Final Exam (MS) Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of the following statements is/are TRUE?

I. Hallmark of MS are plaques or sclerosed areas in CNS
II. MS is most commonly seen in elderly patients
III. There is an increased risk the closer you live to equator

A. I only
B. I & II
C. III only
D. I, II, & III

A

A. I only

MS is is a disease of young people and most commonly seen between ages 15-45. There is an increased risk of developing MS the FURTHER you live from the equator (i.e. people in Antarctica would have a HIGHEST risk of developing MS)

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2
Q

Which of the following regarding MS is/are FALSE?

A. Risk factors for developing MS include smoking, infection, and urbanization
B. There is a genetic component in developing MS
C. Epstein-Barr virus has not been shown to be associated with MS
D. Optic neuritis is a common first presenting symptom
E. B & C

A

C. The greatest link between infection and development of MS is seen with the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). EBV antibiotic titers are higher in MS patients and increase over time vs controls.

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3
Q

All of the following are characteristic of the pathophysiology of MS, EXCEPT:

A. Axonal damage
B. Remyelination
C. Demyelination
D. Inflammation of the CNS
E. None of the above
A

E. None of the above.

MS is characterized by inflammation of the CNS. In MS, myelin sheath surrounding axons of nerve cells is progressively stripped off (DEMYELINATION). Associated with INFLAMMATORY RESPONSE and production of inflammatory cytokines. Infiltration of the CNS by T and B lymphocytes, macrophages, antibodies, and complement causes axonal damage.

Myelin sheath is able to repair itself to some degree (REMYELINIZATION) early in the disease preserving axonal function. However…

Every attack produces damage and damage eventually becomes irreversible with severity correlating to disability.

Demyelination, inflammatory response, and axonal damage produce LESIONS or PLAQUES which can be seen on MRI

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4
Q

T/F:

Formation of lesions can produce any type of neurological symptom (ex. vision issues, parasthesias, or muscle weakness)?

A

True

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5
Q

Loss of myelin sheath inhibits normal conduction of impulses resulting in progressive loss of functions. (6) typical deficits include?

A
  1. muscle weakness
  2. fatigue
  3. slurred speech
  4. blurred vision
  5. diminished coordination
  6. sensory disturbances
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6
Q

Which of the following statements is/are TRUE:

I. MS is an autoimmune disease
II. Activation of T-cells in the periphery occurs before the inflammatory response in the CNS
III. Th1 and Th17 proinflammatory cells help the body fight off MS attack

A. I only
B. I & II
C. III only
D. I, II, & III

A

B. I & II

The order of an attack:

  1. Activation of T-helper cells in periphery
  2. Th1 and Th17 attach to BBB, secrete an enzyme that produces an opening in BBB allowing them and other proinflammatory cells to cross into CNS
  3. Once inside CNS, T-cells produce other proinflammatory cytokines such as: interleukins, TNF, interferon gamma
  4. Interferon gamma creates even more openings in BBB allowing entry and production of: B-cells, complement, macrophages, and antibodies
  5. Inflammatory response causes axonal damage
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7
Q

MS is an autoimmune disease in which the body attacks:

A. Myeline sheath
B. Oligodendrocytes
C. All of the above

A

C. All of the above

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8
Q

What are the (2) most common primary Sx of MS?

A
  1. Visual complains (optic neuritis)

2. Parasthesias (tingling, burning of skin typically in extremities)

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9
Q

Explain “lesions separated by space and time” with regards to MS diagnosis.

A

Diagnosis of MS requires demonstration of “lesions separated by space and time”

The occurrence of at least two separate distinct episodes of neurological disturbances occurring 30 days apart, each lasting at least 24 hours, reflecting different sites of damage (lesions) seen in the CNS that cannot be explained by another mechanism

Neurological disturbances = primary S/Sx such as: pain, weakness, uncoordinated movement, cognitive changes, fatigue, bowel/bladder dysfunction, tremor, speech difficulty

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10
Q

Diagnosis with the McDonald criteria involve which of the following:

A. MRI
B. CSF
C. Visual evoked potential (VEP)
D. A & B
E. All of the above
A

E. All of the above

MRI is the most definite assessment showing lesions in brain. Lesions are seen in 95% of patients with clinically definite MS (CDMS) and 65-85% of patients with possible MS or clinically isolated syndrome (CIS). Patients with CIS and 3+ lesions on MRI have 90% chance of developing CDMS within 15 years.

Examining CSF (not blood) for elevated levels of IgG and oligoclonal bands (bands of immunoglobulins). ≥5 oligoclonal bands are present in 90-95% of all patients with CDMS. Analysis of CSF is usually reserved for patients with abnormal presentation or with possible MS in which a more definitive diagnosis is needed.

Visual evoked potential test is an objective tool testing nerve conduction helpful in determining areas of demyelination that are clinically not seen.

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11
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE:

I. Patient can be diagnosed with CDMS after the first attack with evidence of 3+ lesions on MRI
II. With occurrence of a 2nd “attack” patient now has clinically definite MS (CDMS)
III. No disease progression occurs in between attacks for patients with Relapsing-Remitting MS (RRMS)

A. I only
B. I & II
C. III only
D. I, II, & III

A

A. I only

The first “attack” a patient gets in which they experience any of the primary Sx is called clinically isolated syndrome (CIS). Remember, diagnosis of MS requires evidence of demyelination in TWO distinct areas of the CNS (lesions separated by space and time). A patient with a single attack of demyelination + 3 lesions on MRI has a very good chance of going on to develop CDMS, but does not have CDMS yet.

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12
Q

All of the following statements are true, EXCEPT:

A. The majority of MS patients have RRMS
B. Progressive forms of MS, disease progression and damage is occurring at all times
C. Within 10-20 yrs, up to 50% of RRMS patients will convert to secondary-progressive MS (SPMS)
D. Patients with primary progressive MS (PPMS) have the worst prognosis
E. Patients with PPMS have clear “attacks” and “remission”

A

E. Patients diagnosed with PPMS have progressive disease right from the start. Patients do NOT have “attacks” and “remissions.” Disease progression occurring at all times.

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13
Q

Which of the following statements about Radiologically Isolated Syndrome (RIS) is/are TRUE:

A. Is a form of CDMS
B. No lesions on MRI, but Sx present
C. Lesions on MRI, but no Sx present
D. A & B
E. B &C
A

C. RIS is NOT form of CDMS. It is characterized by lesions on MRI, but NO Sx of CIS/MS

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14
Q

This rare type of MS starts with the progressive form of the disease right from the start, but there appears to be clear relapses with or without full recovery. Progression continues in-between disease relapses even when patient looks like they’re in remission. What is this rare type of MS called?

A

Progressive-relapsing MS (PRMS)

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15
Q

What is the expanded disability status scale (EDSS)?

A

EDSS is an objective tool used to measure progression of MS disease. Typically used in clinical trials to show efficacy of drug.

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16
Q

T/F:

MS by itself shortens lifespan?

A

False - the SECONDARY COMPLICATIONS of MS such as: pneumonia, sepsis, or swallowing difficulties can lead to a shorter than expected lifespan, but MS by itself does NOT shorten lifespan

17
Q

Which of the following statements is/are FALSE?

A. High dose corticosteroids are only useful in treating acute exacerbations of MS
B. Natalizumab is the only DMT approved to treat RRMS, SPMS, and PRMS
C. There are no FDA approved DMTs to treat PPMS
D. Rebif® must be titrated over a 4 week period
E. B & C

A

B. Mitoxantrone (Navantrone®) is the only DMT approved to treat RRMS, SPMS, and PRMS.

Natalizumab is a 2nd or 3rd line agent only used in patients presenting with very progressive form of MS.

18
Q

High dose IV methylprednisolone used for acute exacerbations decreases edema and inflammation around the area of demyelination and restores the integrity of the BBB. Which of the following effects does this have?

A. It can shorten the duration of current attack
B. It can decrease the severity of the current attack
C. it can alter the progression of the disease
D. A & B
E. All of the above

A

D A & B

High dose corticosteroids to treat acute exacerbations of MS do NOT affect or alter progression of the disease.

Doses can range from 500-1000mg IV daily x3-10 days. Improvement usually seen within 3-5 days of high dose corticosteroid treatment.

19
Q

High dose steroids are effective in the majority of MS patients. However, what other (3) options are available for patients with acute exacerbations that fail steroids?

A
  1. plasma exchange
  2. IVIG
  3. adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
20
Q

Match the following generic and brand names:

  1. Interferon beta 1b A. Aubagio®
  2. Interferon beta 1a B. Betaseron® or Extavia®
  3. Glatiramer C. Novantrone®
  4. Fingolimod D. Avonex® or Rebif®
  5. Teriflunomide E. Copaxone®
  6. Dimethyl fumurate F. Gilenya®
  7. Natalizumab G. Tecfidera®
  8. Mitoxantrone H. Tysabri®
A
  1. Interferon beta 1b B. Betaseron® or Extavia®
  2. Interferon beta 1a D. Avonex®, Rebif®
  3. Glatiramer E. Copaxone®
  4. Fingolimod F. Gilenya®
  5. Teriflunomide A. Aubagio®
  6. Dimethyl fumurate G. Tecfidera®
  7. Natalizumab H. Tysabri®
  8. Mitoxantrone C. Novantrone®
21
Q

All of the following DMTs are oral agents, EXCEPT:

A. Fingolimod
B. Aubagio®
C. Copaxone®
D. Gilenya®
E. None of the above.  All are oral agents
A

C. Glatiramer (Copaxone®) is an injection used 1st line in RRMS

22
Q

Patient presents with RIS and has possible MS. What do you do?

A

DON’T treat yet. Monitor clinically and w/ MRI. If more lesions develop and/or clinical relapse, start treatment

23
Q

Patient presents for the first time with neurological Sx suggestive of MS. What do you do?

A

Assess risk. If low risk of further attacks - watch and wait. If high risk of further attacks, begin treatment with injections (Betaseron®, Extavia®, or Avonex® —NOT Rebif® or Copaxone® b/c only FDA approved for RRMS)

High risk = when CIS is accompanied by MRI lesions similar to those seen in MS patients

Low risk = when CIS is NOT accompanied by MRI lesions