Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

5 main classes of antifungal drugs

A
  1. Polyenes
  2. Azoles
  3. Pneumocandins & echinocandins
  4. Pyrimidines
  5. Drugs used to treat dermatophytosis
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2
Q

Polyenes

A
  • ex. amphotericin B
  • broad spectrum; fungicidal
  • high systemic toxicity

MOA: binds ergosterol and enters fungal membrane —> several molecules form a pore; fungal cell lyses
binds cholesterol = toxicity to host cells

PK: long half-life; > 100 h — excretion continues weeks after therapy discontinuation

AE: most toxic of its type in clinical use; dose-dependent nephrotoxicity; IV admin. may cause thrombosis = must be slow (4-6 hrs.); preparations containing bile salts add to toxicity
**lipid-complex formulations = safer; more effective = much less toxic (can be infused at higher dosages over 1-2 hrs.)

CA: mainly admin. IV for life-threatening systemic mycoses (esp. immunocompromised patients = fungicidal nature); often given once prior to longer follow-up therapy w/ an azole

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3
Q

Azoles

A
  • broad spectrum; fungistatic
  • very low toxicity

MOA: inhibit fungal P450 enzymes involved in ergosterol formation = inhibit fungal membrane synthesis

AE: teratogenic; inhibit mammalian hepatic P450 enzymes (inhibit metabolism of concurrently admin. drugs)

2 main classes:

  1. Imidazoles (ex. clotrimazole, miconazole - topical) toxicity preludes systemic use
    - AE: inhibit fungal and mammalian sterol synthesis (cortisol, testosterone = endocrine)
  2. Triazoles (ex. itraconazole - oral, non-life-threatening systemic mycosis, sometimes replaces or used after amphotericin B (life-threatening)) longer half-lives
    - AE: interferes less w/ sterol synthesis of host’s enzymes than imidazoles; systemic endocrine AEs = uncommon
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4
Q

Pneumocandins & echinocandins

A
  • ex. caspofungin, micafungin, anidulafungin
  • fungicidal; low toxicity; resistance uncommon for E
  • newest antifungal drugs; replacing polyenes for systemic therapy
  • drawbacks: narrower SOA; expensive
    in humans, all agents well-tolerated w/ similar AE profiles and few drug-drug interactions

MOA: inhibit an enzyme necessary for cell wall synthesis of several fungi

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5
Q

Pyrimidines

A
  • ex. flucytosine
  • penetrate BBB well
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6
Q

An example of a drug used to treat dermatophytosis (ringworm)…

A

Terbinafine

MOA: inhibit ergosterol synthesis in virtually all dermatophytosis; toxicity metabolites accumulate — fungicidal

  • distributes to skin, hair, nails, fat; enters newly forming keratin (skin - 3 months; nails - >12 months)
  • given orally = serious infection
  • more effective than itraconazole

AE: uncommon, generally safe

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7
Q

What is inflammation?

A
  • active, complex, local response of tissues to injury
  • can be either protective & beneficial OR exaggerated & harmful
  • involves immune responses, coagulation cascade, and regeneration & repair processes
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8
Q

Inflammation: Function is to protect the body following injury, which involves…

A
  • removal of injurious stimuli/ insult (bacteria, chemical irritants, etc.)
  • removal of necrotic cells
  • containment of damage (abscess)
  • stimulation of repair & regeneration
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9
Q

Four major changes that occur during acute inflammation

A
  1. Blood vessels dilate (warmth & redness)
  2. Blood vessels become leaky (fluid & proteins enter tissue —> edema)
  3. WBCs enter inflamed tissue
  4. Nociceptors become sensitized (pain)
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10
Q

Cardinal signs of inflammation

A
  1. Heat
  2. Redness
  3. Swelling
  4. Pain
  5. Loss of function
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11
Q

Chronic inflammation

A
  • stimulates fibrosis (scarring)
  • depending on site — may impair vision, mobility, oxygenation, etc. OR cause seizures, arrhythmias, intestinal strictures, etc.

anti-inflammatory therapy may be necessary if stimulus cannot be identified or eliminated

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12
Q

Inflammatory mediators (synthesis & redundancy)

A

Synthesis: produced in advance and released at time (histamine) OR synthesized at site in response (PGs)

Redundancy: several mediators trigger same inflammatory process = inhibitors of one class of mediator may lessen BUT NOT abolish inflammation

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13
Q

Major classes of pro-inflammatory mediators

A
  1. Eicosanoids (PGs, TXA2, PGI2)
  2. Leukotrienes the most effective anti-inflammatory drugs inhibit many or all of these
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14
Q

Therapeutic options for inflammation

A

Non-pharmacological: rest, heat/cold, weight reduction, surgery

Pharmacological: NSAIDs, glucocorticoids, misc.

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15
Q

Main beneficial effects of NSAIDs

A

Anti-inflammatory, antipyretic, analgesic

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16
Q

Eicosanoids (mainly PGs)

A

Normal physiological roles — required for normal homeostasis in all tissues; synthesized from arachidonic acid by COX enzymes (COX1 & COX2)

Roles in inflammation — COX2 up-regulated; locally responds to plasma membrane damage OR inflammatory mediator release —> excessive vasodilation occurs, promoting inflammation

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17
Q

NSAIDs (MOA)

A

MOA: inhibit COX enzymes
- reduces synthesis of PGs, including those that promote vasodilation
- reduces blood flow to site
- reduces sensitization of nociceptors
- alleviates inflammation

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18
Q

NSAIDs (MOA of AEs in gastric mucosa)

A

Normal protective effects of PGs in stomach inhibited = decreased blood flow, bicarbonate and mucus secretion; increased acid secretion

gastric bleeding +/ ulceration (most common AE)

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19
Q

NSAIDs (MOA of AEs in platelets)

A

Only COX1 is present —NSAIDs inhibit conversion of AA to TXA2 in platelets = slightly increases general tendency to bleed

excessive doses = more pronounced bleeding

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20
Q

NSAIDs (MOA of AEs in kidney)

A

Excessive COX inhibition = renal medullary hypoxia & papillary necrosis

COX2

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21
Q

NSAIDs (shared general properties)

A

PK: weak acids, highly protein-bound, hepatic metabolism (phase 2 conjugation), variable elimination

Contraindications: patients w/ GI ulcers, renal disease, hepatic disorders, hypoproteinemia, dehydration or cardiac disease

Clinical uses: for relief of musculoskeletal & inflammatory pain, including post-operative

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22
Q

NSAIDs (shared AEs)

A
  • GI ulceration*
  • inhibition of platelet aggregation (bleeding)*, uterine motility, PG-mediated renal perfusion
  • renal papillary necrosis (dehydrated patients)

*PG synthesis in other tissues inhibited — excessive inhibition:

  • in GI epithelium: decreases PGI2 (decreased blood flow & bicarbonate secretion, increased acid secretion = gastric ulcers); decreases PGE2, decreases gastric mucus = gastric ulcers)
  • in the kidney: decreases PGE2, decreases blood flow = hypoxia; renal papillary necrosis
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23
Q

Aspirin (ASA)

A
  • oldest of the NSAIDs
  • prolonged effects even at low doses; shorter duration of action
  • anti-inflammatory, antipyretic, analgesic
  • effective for musculoskeletal/cutaneous pain BUT poor for visceral pain
  • most commonly used anti-platelet drug; prevents thrombus formation and re-thrombosis (does not lyse existing thrombus) — MI, stroke, peripheral vascular diseases

MOA: irreversibly inhibits COX1 —> inhibits PG synthesis —> prevents TXA2 production (reduces platelet aggregation)

AEs: bleeding tendencies (inhibits platelet function); dose-dependent gastric ulceration; renal damage (dehydrated patients)

Contraindications: patients w/ bleeding disorders; those prone to GI ulcers (receiving glucocorticoids)

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24
Q

Ibuprofen

A
  • anti-inflammatory, antipyretic, analgesic
  • indicated for arthritis & musculoskeletal pain
  • preferred for some chronic uses (osteoarthritis)
    MI risk may be elevated when used ‘chronically in high doses’ BUT appears to be less risky than selective COX inhibitors

MOA: inhibits both COX1 & COX 2

AE (main): gastric ulceration but less intense than w/ aspirin

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25
Q

Celecoxib

A
  • almost 100% selective for COX2 ‘in vivo’
  • approved for osteoarthritis
  • poor to negligible analgesia
  • no effect on platelets/bleeding
  • far less likely to cause GI ulceration & bleeding than non-selective NSAIDs, if gastric lesions are not already present — COX2 products involved in healing gastric ulcers

Concerns:
- reduced blood flow to kidneys = reduced renal function; intravascular clotting = increased risk of stroke & MI
- w/ chronic use in osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis, not with acute or intermittent use

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26
Q

How do coxibs increase the risk of stroke & heart attack?

A
  • regular non-selective NSAIDs inhibits synthesis of all COX1 & COX2 products = inhibition of TXA2 has a greater effect than inhibition of PGI2 — in favour of bleeding
  • coxibs inhibit only COX2 = less PGI2 produced — in favour of intravascular coagulation (hence, stroke & MI)

effects are only observed after prolonged use (>18 months)

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27
Q

Acetaminophen

A
  • antipyretic, analgesic
  • little peripheral activity = negligible anti-inflammatory effect & no effect on blood clotting
    no longer considered an NSAID

MOA: centrally inhibits PG synthesis

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28
Q

Glucocorticoids (mechanism)

A

Two mechanisms:
1. Nuclear pathway promotes protein production, inhibiting EGFR
2. Cytoplasmic pathway activates proteins, inhibiting EGFR
plasma membrane receptors = rapid effects

MOA: indirectly inhibit PA2 —> inhibits synthesis of AA —> inhibits synthesis of PGs & leukotrienes —> inhibits inflammation & essentially all WBC functions
more profound effect than NSAIDs

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29
Q

To elevate blood glucose, glucocorticoids…

A
  • stimulate hepatic glucose syn. from amino acids & lipids
  • inhibit glucose uptake by muscle & adipose
  • stimulate fat breakdown in adipose
  • mobilize amino acids from non-hepatic tissues
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30
Q

Glucocorticoids inhibit _____ absorption, bone _____________, __________ healing, ____________ function, etc.

A

Ca2+, formation, wound, immune

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31
Q

_________________ is a common AE of chronic glucocorticoid administration.

A

Osteoporosis

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32
Q

Glucocorticoids (PK)

A

Absorption: oral; IM / SQ; intra-articular; topical

Distribution: carried in blood via albumin & transcortin

Metabolism: hepatic ADRs possible
~ some activated in liver:
- cortisol —> hydrocortisone
- prednisone —> prednisolone

Excretion: urine / feces

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33
Q

Glucocorticoids (AEs)

A

Serious AEs — usually only seen after ~2 weeks of continuous, dose-dependent therapy
risk of AEs related to duration AND dose

Numerous, possibly severe if not used properly:
• Increased appetite, thirst, & urination
• Impaired wound healing/thinning of skin
• Hypertension (mineralocorticoid activity, RAS activation, etc.)
• Edema
• Negative calcium balance (osteoporosis)
• Gastric ulcers
• Psychoses / euphoria
• Infection
• ‘Centripetal’ fat distribution & hair loss

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34
Q

Glucocorticoids (therapeutic principles)

A
  1. Empirical use, except for replacement therapy
    → alleviation of a patient’s symptoms until initial insult has been resolved (if possible)
  2. Consider risks / benefits in that patient
    — goal = toleration of condition, not complete relief
  3. Dose very dependent on disease/patient → trial & error
    — use smallest possible dose
  4. Re-evaluate periodically
    — gradually reduce dose to minimum acceptable
  5. Generally, even large single doses are harmless
    — crisis situation
  6. < 1 week unlikely to be harmful
  7. Time & dose related to toxicity (> 1 week)
  8. With chronic use, abrupt cessation
    → adrenal insufficiency
    MUST wean patient off drug GRADUALLY

Hypoadrenocorticism secondary to abrupt glucocorticoid cessation
~ may or may not be as severe as Addison’s disease, depending on the drug
~ drugs such as cortisone, prednisone, and prednisolone, which have some mineralocorticoid activity, will suppress the patient’s aldosterone levels during therapy
~ aldosterone levels may be inadequate following abrupt cessation of the glucocorticoid, resulting in:
— Na+ and water loss → low BP
— K+ retention → arrhythmias
these effects may be fatal

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35
Q

Arthritis (clinical use of GCs)

A
  • provide early to minimize damage from inflammation; patient should exercise affected joints moderately = slow disease progress
  • caution regarding “masking” of pain; patients may overuse & injure inflamed joints (ex. athletes)
  • hypersensitivities for oral / inhaler; use injectable drug for anaphylaxis
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36
Q

What is the goal of normal homeostasis?

A

To prevent prolonged hemorrhage & spontaneous thrombosis; remain localized
involves temporally overlapping stages

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37
Q

Prothrombogenic factors

A
  • platelet activators
  • procoagulants
  • vasoconstriction
  • fibrinolytic inhibitors
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38
Q

Antithrombogenic activators

A
  • platelet inhibitors
  • anticoagulants
  • vasodilators
  • fibrinolytic activators
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39
Q

What are the stages of hemostasis?

A
  1. Vasospasm (vasoconstriction)
  2. Platelet response
  3. Coagulation phase
  4. Clot dissolution (fibrinolysis)
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40
Q

Vasospasm

A
  • damaged vessel immediately constricts, reducing blood flow = limits blood loss
  • response occurs as a result of sympathetics & local factors (e.g. TXA2, endothelin) = initiates myogenic properties in vessel wall
    smooth muscle contraction
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41
Q

Platelet response

A
  • platelets adhere to exposed collagen of damaged endothelium and to each other = platelet plug releases chemical mediators (e.g. TXA2, ADP)
    recruits more platelets, promotes vasoconstriction, initiates coagulation cascade
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42
Q

Coagulation phase

A
  • involves sequential conversion of inactive proteins into catalytically active proteases; divided into intrinsic (in vitro) & extrinsic (in vivo) pathways (converge at factor X activation — common pathway)
  • extrinsic pathway: coagulation cascade initiated at site of injury by expression of TF complexing with factor VIIa = conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin — protein matrix reinforces clot
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43
Q

Clot dissolution (fibrinolysis)

A
  • involves proteolytic actions of plasmin bound to clot
    needed for wound healing & vessel flow restoration
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44
Q

Excessive bleeding may be caused by…

A
  • platelet deficiency (thrombocytopenia; von Willebrand’s)
  • clotting factor deficiency (single factor (hemophilia - VIII, IX); multiple factors (vitamin K deficiency))
  • fibrinolytic hyperactivity
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45
Q

Drugs/treatments used in hemorrhagic diseases…

A
  • vitamin K
  • antifibrinolytic agents
  • blood products (replacement factors)
  • others*
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46
Q

Vitamin K

A

2 natural form exist: vitamin K1 (phytonadione — foods); vitamin K2 (menaquinone — intestinal bacteria)
- available for oral & parenteral use; IV route (give slow; anaphylaxis); SC injection (preferred route)
- considered very safe; fat-soluble (requires bile salts for intestinal absorption)

MOA: confers biological activity to factors II, VII, IX, X via post-translational modification
- requires ~6-12 hours for new factors & clinical effects

Uses: anticoagulant toxicity; vitamin K deficiency; prevent hemorrhagic disease (newborns)

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47
Q

Antifibrinolytics/fibrinolytic inhibitors

A

Plasmin lyses fibrin and fibrinogen by attaching to lysine binding sites

Aminocaproic acid (Amicar)
- synthetic agent similar to lysine
- MOA: blocks lysine binding site; competitively inhibits plasmin action on fibrin
incomplete lysis can lead to thrombi formation
- Uses: bleeding from fibrinolytic therapy; adjunct therapy-hemophiliacs

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48
Q

Plasma fractions

A

Deficiencies in plasma coagulation factors can cause bleeding; spontaneous when key factors < 5-10% of normal levels
- examples: factor VIII deficiency (hemophilia A/classic hemophilia); factor IX deficiency (hemophilia B/Christmas disease) — treatment? concentrated plasma factors!

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49
Q

Desmopressin acetate (DDAVP)

A
  • transiently increases factor VIII activity in mild hemophilia or von Willebrand’s disease
  • available as tablets, injectable or nasal spray (high doses)
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50
Q

Protamine sulfate

A
  • low MW, strongly basic (cationic) protein produced by recombinant technology
  • used to treat heparin overdoses by binding & neutralizing its coagulant effects
    more effective against large MW heparin molecules in unfractionated heparins vs. low MW heparins
  • give IV slowly to avoid AEs (includes collapse)
  • monitor patient — high doses can produce anticoagulant effects
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51
Q

Drugs/treatments used in anemias…

A
  • essential nutrients
  • growth factors
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52
Q

What is the aim of anemia therapy?

A
  • to provide components for RBCs and hemoglobin
  • to stimulate bone marrow formations of RBCs
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53
Q

Iron

A
  • forms complex w/ oxygen in hemoglobin & myoglobin (transport)
  • used in treatment or prevention of disorders associated w/ deficiency (chronic blood loss in adults; prevention of newborn iron deficiency; anemia from chronic renal failure; inadequate iron absorption from GI tract)
  • oral (ferrous salts) or parenteral (iron dextrans via injection) administration
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54
Q

Vitamins (anemia)

A
  • essential for DNA synthesis
  • examples: folic acid; vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin) administered alone or in multivitamin preparations; oral or injected
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55
Q

Erythropoietin (Epogen, Procrit) - growth factor -

A
  • glycoprotein hormone produced by kidney in response to hypoxia
    primarily used in cases of chronic anemia due to reduced EPO in CRF; has been used in anemia of other causes (AIDs, cancers, elective surgeries)
    iron supplementation advised in combination

MOA: stimulates proliferation & differentiation of red cell progenitors & release of reticulocytes
- following treatment: increase in hematocrit & hemoglobin in 2-6 weeks

AEs: hypertension, thrombosis

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56
Q

Filgastrim (Neupogen)

A
  • granulocyte colony stimulating factor

MOA: stimulates proliferation & differentiation of myeloid progenitor cells (neutrophil lineage)
- activates polymorphic neutrophils (increases their life in circulation)
- mobilizes hematopoietic stem cells in circulation important source of cells for transplantations following high dose chemotherapy; improves stem cell engraftment & recovery

Uses: indicated for chemotherapy-induced neutropenia — ameliorates myelosuppression of neutrophils (no improvement in survival noted)

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57
Q

Oprelvekin (Neumega)

A

MOA: stimulates myeloid, lymphoid & megakaryocyte progenitor cells in conjunction w/ growth factors

  • used to treat thrombocytopenia
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58
Q

Red thrombus

A

Fibrin-rich; contains large # of RBCs; occurring in veins

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59
Q

White thrombus

A

Platelet-rich; occurring in arteries

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60
Q

Pathogenesis of thrombosis requires ______________________.

A

Prothrombic factors

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61
Q

Prothrombic factors can be released due to…

A
  • endothelial injury (local vessel)
  • circulatory stasis
  • altered blood coagulability (hyperactivity of hemostatic mechanisms; hypoactivity of fibrinolytic mechanisms)
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62
Q

Drug classes for thromboembolic disease

A
  • systemic anticoagulants
  • antithrombotic drugs
  • fibrinolytic drugs
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63
Q

An ideal systemic anticoagulant…

A
  • prevents pathologic thrombosis
  • limits reperfusion injury & bleeding
  • allows normal response to vascular injury
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64
Q

Heparin

A
  • mixture of sulfated mucopolysaccharides; highly negatively charged

MOA: enhances (accelerates 100-fold) action of antithrombin III (forms heparin-ATIII complex); AT-III inhibits activated clotting factors, especially thrombin IIa and Xa — “suicide substrate”

Uses: primarily used in initial treatment of thrombosis and thromboembolic disease; prevents thrombi from enlarging & new thrombus formation (does not lyse existing thrombus)
rapid onset of action = acute anticoagulant (oral - concurrently)
used in venous thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, unstable angina, atrial fibrillation, acute MI & various cardiovascular surgeries

AEs: bleeding tendencies & possible thrombocytopenia
monitor aPTT - 1.8-2.5 X normal mean; protamine sulfate can neutralize heparin overdose

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65
Q

Enoxaparin (Lovenox)

A
  • low MW heparin
  • inactivate factor Xa well, but not thrombin (IIa)
  • used more commonly due to advantages (less bleeding tendencies possible, protamine sulfate less active against LMW heparins (reversible), less risk of thrombocytopenia, improved pharmacokinetics (can give SC; longer half-life))
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66
Q

Warfarin (Coumadin)

A
  • oral / injectable anticoagulant
  • used as chronic preventative anticoagulant therapy; dosing usually begun w/ heparin administration
  • monitor using INR (PT/mean PT) — increase to 2.0-3.0

MOA: antagonizes vitamin K actions, reducing clotting factors (II, VII*, IX and X) — clotting not affected until existing factors used
*6 hrs half-life

Toxicities: bleeding tendencies (can treat w/ vitamin K1); serious bleeding (requires fresh blood/plasma); crosses placenta (heparin does not cross)

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67
Q

An example of a selective factor Xa inhibitor

A

Rivaroxaban (Xarelto)

MOA: inactivates factor Xa directly; does not interact w/ ATIII and no thrombin activity

  • prevention of stroke secondary to atrial fibrillation
  • prevention & treatment of deep venous thrombosis & pulmonary embolism
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68
Q

Direct thrombin inhibitors & examples

A
  • more specific inhibition of thrombin w/ negligible effects at factor Xa

Bivalirudin (Angiomax)
- derived originally from lepirudin (medicinal leeches); now prepared synthetically; given by IV injection
MOA: binds and inhibits thrombin via its active site & exosite

Dabigatran (Pradaxa)
- given orally; prodrug
MOA: binds and inhibits thrombin via its active site

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69
Q

Antithrombotic drugs therapeutically target _________________________ via agents…

A

Platelet activators

  • outside platelet acting on its membrane (collagen, thrombin)
  • produced within granules that act on platelet membrane once released (ADP, 5-HT, TXA2)
  • produced in platelet and act within it (cyclooxygenase, cAMP, cGM and Ca2+)
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70
Q

Examples of ADP inhibitors

A

Clopidogrel* (Plavix), Prasugrel* (Efient), Ticagrelor (Brilinta)**
*irreversible inhibitors; prodrug (must be activated by liver P450 metabolism)
**competitive inhibitor of P2Y12 receptor

  • indicated to reduce and prevent recurrence of stroke and MI in affected individuals; agents are fairly safe

MOA: reduces aggregation by inhibiting ADP pathways
- acts as P2Y12 receptor antagonists (prevent binding of ADP to receptors); may be synergistic w/ aspirin (different MOAs)

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71
Q

Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors & examples

A

Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa (platelet surface integrin receptor for fibrinogen) — receptor expression activated by thrombin, collagen, ADP, epinephrine & TXA2; once activated, binds & anchors platelets to each other

Abciximab (REOPRO)
MOA: Fab fragment of humanized monoclonal antibody directed against IIb/IIIa platelet receptor; irreversibly inhibits platelet aggregation
- indicated in percutaneous angioplasty associated w/ coronary thrombosis
- major toxicity: possible bleeding tendencies

Eptifibatide (Integrillin)
MOA: synthetic peptide reversibly inhibits IIb/IIIa receptor & platelet aggregation
- similar uses & AEs to abciximab

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72
Q

Fibrinolytic drugs & examples

A

MOA: rapidly lyse thrombi by activating plasmin from clot-bound plasminogen (ideally local fibrinolysis only)

Tissue plasminogen activator; t-PA or alteplase (Activase)
- serine protease that binds fibrin (produce by endothelial cells)
- preferentially activates clot-bound plasminogen; limits activation of systemic plasmin
- fairly short half-life = constant infusion
- uses: treatment of coronary thrombosis in acute MI; deep venous thrombosis; acute ischemic stroke; pulmonary embolism
- toxicities: bleeding tendencies

Tenecteplase (TNKase)
- engineered variant of t-PA w/ similar efficacy & possibly less bleeding
- longer half-life = single bolus injection

73
Q

Atherosclerosis is due to…

A

Cholesterol/lipid plaques in coronary arteries from many lipid disorders

74
Q

Atherosclerotic risk associated w/ _______ in LDL, IDL, and VLDL and _________ HDL levels. _______ plasma lipoproteins (mainly LDL) ______ atherosclerosis.

A

Increase; decrease; decrease; decrease

75
Q

______________ are the bulk lipid transport of the body.

A

Lipoproteins

76
Q

___________________, _______________, and _______________________ are sequelaes to atherosclerosis.

A

Coronary artery disease; stroke; peripheral artery disease

77
Q

Inhibitors of cholesterol synthesis (statins) & examples

A
  • these compounds are structural analogs of HMG-CoA (enzyme that mediates early steps of hepatic sterol synthesis)

Lovastatin, Rosuvastatin (Crestor)
- most effective & best tolerated drugs for therapy of hyperlipidemias; used as monotherapy (high efficacy); may be used w/ other drug classes

Pleiotropic effects: may contribute to reduction in cardiovascular morbidity & mortality (decreased inflammation (reduction in C-reactive protein); reversal of endothelial dysfunction (improved vasodilation to NO); decreased thrombosis; increase atherosclerotic plaque stability)

MOA: partially inhibit HMG-CoA reductase (decreases hepatic cholesterol levels)
- have high hepatic first-pass effect
- induce an increase in high affinity LDL receptors (principally in the liver) — increases LDL clearance; decreases plasma LDLs

Toxicities: possible increase in liver enzymes & risk of teratogenic effects (contraindicated in pregnancy); drug interactions possible = altered CYP450’s

78
Q

Niacin

A
  • one of the oldest drugs used to treat hyperlipidemias
  • rapid-release & slow-release tablets
  • acts as a vitamin B3 when converted to NAD
    unconverted niacin produces lipid lowering effects

MOA: inhibits VLDL production & secretion = decreases LDL levels via liver effects; decreases adipose lipoprotein lipase activity = decrease hepatic production of VLDL’s
- best agent for raising HDL’s

Toxicities: cutaneous flushing & pruritus can occur (mediated by PG release (can be alleviated w/ aspirin or another NSAID)); GI distress & ulcers possible

79
Q

Inhibitors of bile acid absorption (resins) & examples

A

Cholestryamine, Colestipol (Colestid)
- one of the oldest & safest drugs used to treat hyperlipidemias
- very large highly positively charged (cationic) resins
- usually used as second agents if statins alone are ineffective
- available as granule packets or tabs (oral); taken w/ meals (bile secretion is highest); insoluble in water (not absorbed by GI tract)

MOA: bind negatively charged bile acids in GI tract lumen (prevents re-uptake in jejunum/ileum; increased bile acid synthesis = decreased liver cholesterol concentration = increased hepatic LDL receptors & increased LDL uptake & clearance from plasma

Toxicities: constipation & bloating (common); drug interactions possible = positive charges on resins

80
Q

Fibrates (PPAR activators)

A

Gemfibrozil (Lopid)

MOA: unclear — acts as ligand for nuclear transcription receptor PPAR-alpha*

*found largely in liver, skeletal muscle; increases lipoprotein lipase levels in muscle = decrease in VLDL (and its secretion); modest decrease in LDL’s & moderate increase in HDL’s occur

  • considered safe & can be used in combination w/ other lipid lowering agents

AEs: GI discomfort (most common); increases risk of cholesterol gallstones

81
Q

Inhibitors of cholesterol absorption

A

Ezetimibe (Zetia)

MOA: inhibits intestinal absorption of phytosterols & cholesterol (targets transport protein in jejunal enterocytes used to uptake cholesterol present in micelles); decreases LDL levels (hepatic LDL receptors increase as LDL’s removed from plasma) — both dietary & biliary cholesterol affected

  • excreted in bile following absorption & metabolism
  • used primarily as an adjunct w/ statins
  • appears very safe
  • inhibitors of bile acid absorption may inhibit ezetimibe absorption
82
Q

Most common treatments for cancer…

A

Surgery, radiation, chemotherapy

83
Q

Carcinomas

A

Cancers of epithelial cells lining the surface of organs

84
Q

Sarcomas

A

Cancers of muscle, bone, cartilage, fat, connective tissue

85
Q

Leukemia

A

Group of blood cancers, usually originate in bone marrow resulting in underdeveloped blood cells

86
Q

Lymphoma

A

Group of cancers that develop from lymphocytes

87
Q

Blastoma

A

Cancers that develop from precursor cells or embryonic tissue

88
Q

80 - 90 % of cancers are of which type?

A

Carcinomas
- epithelial cells = site of extensive cell proliferation & frequent exposure to chemical/physical damage

89
Q

Most cancers originate from…

A

A single aberrant cell = genetic mutation or epigenetic mutation

90
Q

Tumour progression depends on:

A
  • mutation/epigenetic alteration rate
  • selective advantage
  • proliferation rate
  • invasiveness
91
Q

Critical cancer genes play a role in…

A
  • DNA proofreading/repair genes
  • genes maintaining chromosomal integrity
  • oncogenes
  • tumour suppressor genes
92
Q

Oncogene

A
  • gain of function
  • mutation in gene regulating cell growth = increase mitosis
  • examples: hormones/growth factors, receptors, cell signalling molecules, transcription factors
93
Q

Tumour suppressor

A
  • loss of function
  • mutation in gene that normally suppresses mitosis & cell growth, induces apoptosis or DNA repair
  • examples: transcription factors/repressors
94
Q

Angiogenesis

A
  • larger tumours require oxygen & nutrients
  • tumours secrete growth factors to induce blood vessel growth
95
Q

Metastasis

A

least understood & most feared aspect of cancer
- detachment of cells from parent tumour
- entry into blood vessel
- exit circulation
- survival & proliferation in new environment

96
Q

Knowledge of cell cycle & tumour growth kinetics important for…

A
  • design of effective treatments
  • understanding lack of drug response
97
Q

Many drugs are most cytotoxic during which phase of the cell cycle?

A

S-phase

some effective during M-phase

98
Q

Most drugs are ineffective in which phase of the cell cycle?

A

G₀ phase

99
Q

Growth fraction equals…

A

% dividing cells sensitive to chemotherapy

100
Q

________________ tumours stimulate proliferation

101
Q

_________________________ have high growth fraction

A

Early metastases

102
Q

____________________ cancers are more responsive

A

Fast-growing

103
Q

Several treatment cycles are necessary to ___________________ cells

A

Synchronize

104
Q

Chemotherapy kills cancer via _______________ kinetics

A

First-order (constant %)

10⁹ to 10⁵ = 4 log kill (difference of 10000 times)

105
Q

Chemotherapy principles

A
  1. Cure requires death of ALL tumour cells
  2. Drugs kill constant proportion of tumour cells
  3. Tumours detected later = prolonged treatment
  4. Drugs have narrow therapeutic index
  5. Drug combinations = increase effectiveness & decrease AEs
  6. Intermittent high-dose therapy = more effective
  7. Adjuvant therapy may decrease metastases and/or AEs
106
Q

Factors influencing patient survival (cancer)

A
  • nature of cancer (type, stage at diagnosis, cell-cycling phase, growth rate, heterogeneity)
  • pharmacology (time of initiation & timing of treatment, drug combination)
  • patient (general health, tumour blood supply, immune status)
  • failure of anticancer drugs (lack of specificity (side effects, dosage limitations), cancer exhibits/develops resistance)
107
Q

Major sites of toxicity (cancer)

A
  • bone marrow (myelosuppression)
  • GI tract (vomiting, nausea, diarrhea)
  • hair follicle (alopecia)
  • reproductive tract (decreased sperm, menopause, teratogenicity)
  • secondary carcinogenicity
108
Q

Cancer resistance

A
  • natural (some neoplasm cells inherently resistant)
  • acquired (mutation —> resistance development)
  • multidrug resistance (cells express resistance mechanism that affects multiple drugs (e.g. p-glycoprotein pumps drug out of cell)
109
Q

Treatment regimen (cancer)

A
  • most often given in combination (synergistic, different MOAs & resistance)
  • drugs should be given as frequently & as close to the maximal effective dose as possible
110
Q

Dosage (cancer)

A
  • generally based on body surface area
  • PKs, drug interactions & impact on liver, kidney & immune system taken into account
111
Q

Patient (cancer)

A
  • type/stage of cancer
  • health of patient (renal/hepatic function, bone marrow reserve, concurrent medical problems)
  • desire to undergo difficult/dangerous treatment
  • ability to cope w/ side effects
  • pre-treatment screening
112
Q

Considerations (cancer)

A
  • long-term gain vs. risk
  • probability of successful treatment vs. quality of life
113
Q

DNA alkylating agents

A

MOA: transfer alkyl group to cellular constituents; major site of action in DNA — attaches to N7 and/or O6 of guanine
- agents can be monofunctional (alkylate single DNA strand) or bifunctional (alkylate at two locations; cross-link)
proliferating cells are more sensitive

114
Q

Major classes of DNA alkylating agents

A

Alkylsulfonates
Methyl/ethylenimines
Nitrogen mustards (cyclophosphamide)
Nitrosoureas
Platinum compounds* (cisplatin)
Triazenes

*technically not alkylating agents, but also bind N7 & cross-link DNA

115
Q

Cyclophosphamide

A
  • most commonly used alkylating agent
  • administered IV or orally; lipid soluble
  • prodrug; activated by cytochrome P450
  • broad spectrum: used alone or in combo w/ other drugs to treat neuroblastomas, lymphomas, leukemias & colon, breast, ovarian, small cell lung & testicular cancers
    less toxic than some alkylating agents due to cellular metabolism of aldophosphamide by ALDH

AEs: dose-dependent GI disturbances, bone marrow suppression, immunosuppression, hair loss, hemorrhagic cystitis (acrolein accumulation); increased risk of sterility, menopause, cancer

Resistance occurs due to…
- reaction w/ other cellular constituents
- increase in metabolism (ALDH, GST)
- increase in DNA repair (e.g. cancer cells w/ high levels of MGMT less susceptible)

116
Q

Cisplatin

A
  • inorganic metal: covalently binds N7 & O6 of guanine; interacts with cytosine and adenine
  • administered IV
  • particularly effective for testicular, bladder, ovarian cancer; used to treat lymphomas, sarcomas, and lung carcinomas

AEs: bone marrow suppression, anemia, GI distress (one of most emetogenic chemotherapies), nephrotoxicity, electrolyte imbalances, neurotoxicity (hearing loss, peripheral neuropathy)

Resistance occurs due to…
- decreased access to DNA
- increased DNA repair

117
Q

Non-covalent DNA binding agents

A
  • antibiotics extracted from soil microbe (streptomyces) — has anti-tumour activity

MOA: form tight drug-DNA interactions (DNA intercalation); free radical DNA damage = DNA unwinding, impaired synthesis, single & double strand breaks — interfering w/ cell proliferation

118
Q

Bleomycin

A
  • administered through variety of routes (IV, IM, SC), typically in combo with other drugs to treat lymphomas & cervical, ovarian & testicular cancer

MOA: forms DNA-bleomycin-Fe(II) complex that interacts w/ oxygen (oxidation = free radicals; DNA strand breakage & damage of other cellular constituents)

AEs: pulmonary fibrosis, anaphylaxis, GI disturbances, alopecia

Resistance occurs due to…
- increased DNA repair
- increased drug efflux
- increased expression of antioxidants or bleomycin hydrolase

119
Q

Commonly used regimen of breast cancer chemotherapy that combines which three anti-cancer agents?

A

Cyclophosphamide, methotrexate, fluorouracil (CMF)

refer to image

120
Q

Antimetabolites (MOA)

A
  • affect cell proliferation by interfering with DNA & RNA synthesis (interfere with the availability of purines & pyrimidines)
    most effective in S-phase of cell cycle
121
Q

Major classes of antimetabolites

A

Folate antagonists (methotrexate)
Pyrimidine analogues (5-fluorouracil)
Purine analogues
Sugar-modified analogues

122
Q

Methotrexate

A
  • usually used in combo with other drugs for a variety of carcinomas, leukemias & lymphomas
  • administered orally or via injection (IV, IM, SC, IT)

MOA: enter cells via active transport (folic acid inhibitor: structurally similar to folate & binds to DHF reductase); reduces purine & pyrimidine synthesis = affects RNA, DNA, and protein synthesis
methotrexate-polyglutamate metabolites retained in cells to further inhibit RNA or DNA synthesis

AEs: bone marrow suppression, GI distress, alopecia, liver damage (long-term treatment), renal damage (high dose)

Resistance occurs due to…
- decreased cellular uptake
- increased DHF reductase expression
- decreased binding to DHF reductase
- increased efflux

Drug interactions:
- aminoglycosides decrease methotrexate absorption
- NSAIDS, penicillins, cephalosporins, cisplatin, probenecid decrease methotrexate elimination

123
Q

5-fluorouracil

A
  • primarily used to treat carcinomas of breast, skin, & GI tract (esophageal, gastric, rectal, anal)
  • administered IV or topically

MOA: carrier-mediated transport into the cell; converted to ribosyl & deoxyribosyl nucleotide metabolites & incorporated into RNA & DNA; inhibits TS = decreased thymidine synthesis = decreased DNA synthesis

AEs: bone marrow suppression, GI disturbances, (nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, ulceration), alopecia, cardiotoxicity (angina, arrhythmias), skin irritation

Resistance occurs due to…
- decreased cell uptake
- increased 5-fluorouracil metabolism
- decreased conversion to nucleotide metabolite
- increased TS activity
- prolonged DNA synthesis time (DNA repair)

Dosing concerns:
- under & overdosing
- minimum effective dose & maximum tolerated dose = very close
- monitoring of serum levels being investigated to maximize efficacy & minimize AEs

124
Q

Chromatin modulators (examples)

A

Topoisomerase inhibitors
topoisomerase II = transient ATP hydrolysis-dependent double-strand break (re-ligation of DNA); assists w/ DNA replication & transcription
- camptothecins
- anthracyclines (doxorubicin)
- epipodophyllotoxins
- amsacrine

Microtubule inhibitors
plant or synthetic alkaloids; tubulin polymerizes to form mitotic spindles; microtubule half-life decreases = spindle dissolves = cell divides
- vinca alkaloids (vincristine)
- taxanes (paclitaxel)

125
Q

Doxorubicin

A
  • administered IV & used for leukemias & lymphomas, bladder, breast, stomach, lung, ovarian and thyroid carcinoma, tissue sarcomas & multiple myeloma

MOA: intercalates w/ DNA; binds to & stabilizes topoisomerase II DNA complex to prevent re-ligation of DNA breaks; generates free radicals that damage DNA; inhibits DNA replication & transcription

AEs: cardiomyopathy/heart failure, bone marrow suppression, GI disturbances, alopecia, rash/swelling of hands & feet

Resistance occurs due to…
- increased efflux via P-glycoprotein in cell membrane
- overexpression or mutation of topoisomerase II

126
Q

Vincristine

A
  • administered IV in combo w/ other drugs to treat some carcinomas (small cell lung, breast), leukemias, lymphomas & neuroblastomas
  • kills cells in M-stage of cell cycle

MOA: inhibits tubulin polymerization = dysfunctional spindle

AEs: peripheral neuropathy, nausea, vomiting, alopecia, constipation

Resistance occurs due to…
- altered tubulin structure (mutations)
- altered expression of tubulin isotypes
- increased efflux via P-glycoprotein in cell membrane

Interactions (metabolized by CYP3A4)
- metabolism accelerated by some anti-convulsants & some HIV medications (nevirapine)
- metabolism slowed down by some antifungals (azoles), HIV medications & grapefruit juice

127
Q

Paclitaxel

A
  • kills cells in M-stage of cell cycle
  • primarily used to treat breast, ovarian & non-small cell carcinomas & AIDS-related Kaposi’s sarcoma

MOA: inhibits tubulin depolymerization = overly stable microtubules = cell cannot divide

AEs: hypersensitivity, peripheral neuropathy, bone marrow suppression, alopecia, GI distress, anorexia

Resistance occurs due to…
- altered tubulin structure (mutations)
- altered expression of tubulin isotypes
- increased efflux via P-glycoprotein in cell membrane

Interactions (metabolized by CYP3A4)
- metabolism accelerated by some anti-convulsants & some HIV medications (nevirapine)
- metabolism slowed down by some antifungals (azoles), HIV medications & grapefruit juice

128
Q

Steroid hormones & antagonists

A
  • useful for cancers w/ steroid hormone-sensitive cells
  • must have steroid receptors; hormone-responsive & hormone-dependent
  • steroids regulate expression of genes involved in cell growth & proliferation
129
Q

Prednisone

A
  • used for immune & inflammatory suppression in variety of disorders (oral, inhalation, injection)

MOA: converted to active form (prednisolone) in liver; binds irreversibly to glucocorticoid receptors; can induce apoptosis of leukemic & lymphoid cells

AEs: immunosuppression, hypertension, hyperglycaemia, pancreatitis, weakness, osteoporosis, mood changes

Resistance occurs due to absence or mutation of receptor

130
Q

Tamoxifen

A
  • SERM: selective estrogen receptor (ER) modulator
  • administered orally, metabolized in the liver metabolites behave as antagonists and/or agonist of ERs, depending on the target tissue
  • in estrogen-sensitive breast cancer cells: prevents ER-mediated gene expression = decreased tumour growth
  • currently used to treat & prevent estrogen-dependent breast cancer

AEs: hot flashes, irregular periods, blood clots, reduced cognition, uterine cancer

131
Q

______________________ can be used instead of tamoxifen to treat breast cancer because they do not induce _____________________.

A

Aromatase inhibitors (e.g. anastrozole); uterine cancer

132
Q

Enhanced efflux occurs through…

A

Expression of transmembrane protein which enhances excretion of drug from cancer cell

133
Q

Multi-drug resistance

A
  • efflux pump that affects several drugs
  • observed in several cancers: ovarian, breast, prostate, GI tract, lung, neuroblastoma, lymphoma, leukemia
  • protein examples: P-glycoprotein, MDR- associated protein (multiple subtypes), lung-resistance protein, breast cancer resistance protein
134
Q

P-glycoprotein

A
  • aka: MDR1, ABCB1, CD243
  • 170 kDa transmembrane ATP-binding transporter expressed in: intestinal epithelium, hepatocytes, pancreatic, renal tubule, capillary endothelial (BBB) cells
  • protects cells against toxins but increased expression in tumour cells interferes w/ chemotherapeutic agents

MOA: ATP & drug bind; ATP hydrolysis releases phosphate to shift position of drug = excretion

in some cancer cells
- estrogen down-regulates protein expression of P-glycoprotein
- tamoxifen inhibits efflux of some drugs by P-glycoprotein
- cisplatin or doxorubicin can induce P-glycoprotein expression

135
Q

Types of breast cancer

A

Most common:
- ductal - inside milk duct (in situ or invasive)
- lobular - inside milk-producing gland (in situ or invasive)

Rare:
- inflammatory breast cancer
- male breast cancer

136
Q

Treatment for stage I breast cancer

137
Q

Treatment for stage II (no lymph node involvement) breast cancer

A

Surgery & radiation

138
Q

Treatment for stage II (w/ lymph node involvement; less than 4) breast cancer

A

Surgery and/or radiation & chemotherapy*

*refer to image for several traditional combos

139
Q

Treatment for stage III & IV breast cancer

A

Treatment options often considered palliative > curative; some women live several years w/ metastatic breast cancer

140
Q

Bevacizumab (Avastin)

A
  • targeted therapy
  • angiogenesis inhibitor
  • approved by FDA in 2008 for use in combo w/ paclitaxel for metastatic breast cancer but withdrawn in 2011
  • approved for some metastatic cancers (ovarian, kidney, colon, lung)

MOA: antibody binds VEGF & acts as antagonist of VEGFR2

AEs: inhibition of blood vessel growth for maintenance & healing; hypertension, bleeding

141
Q

Trastuzumab (Herceptin)

A
  • targeted therapy
  • approved for HER2 overexpressing breast cancer; Herceptin & paclitaxel — first-line treatment of HER2 over-expressing metastatic breast cancer

AEs: fever, aches, chills, nausea, and diarrhea; cardiac dysfunction including congestive heart failure (downregulates expression of neuregulin 1 which is involved in the activation of cell survival pathways in cardiac myocytes)

142
Q

Olaparib

A
  • targeted therapy
  • orally administered PARP inhibitor
  • metastatic, HER2-negative breast cancer w/ BRCA gene mutation & already had chemotherapy (2018 approval); BRCA mutated advanced ovarian cancer (2014 approval)

AEs: bone marrow suppression, GI disturbances (nausea, vomiting), anorexia, fatigue, muscle & joint pain

143
Q

Atezolizumab

A
  • immunotherapy
  • monoclonal antibody against the PD-L1 protein (blocking allows T cell to kill tumour cell); administered by slow IV infusion (every 2 to 4 weeks)
  • triple-negative breast cancer (does not express ER, PR and HER2) - FDA approved 2019; previously approved for some advanced, resistant and/or high PD-L1 expressing lung, bladder & liver cancers

AEs: nausea, anorexia, fatigue, UTI

144
Q

Structure of a virus

A
  • RNA or DNA
  • protein coat (capsid)
  • lipid-rich envelope (some viruses)
145
Q

Viral replication

A
  1. Virus attaches to host cell; mediated by proteins on viral surface that bind to host membrane component
  2. Virus adsorbs/enters host cell membrane
  3. Virus loses enough capsid proteins (uncoating)
  4. Nucleic acid becomes available for transcription into mRNAs then undergoes translation on ribosomes
  5. DNA/RNA replication
  6. Protein synthesis
  7. Synthesized viral proteins assemble w/ viral genomes within host cell; followed by viral maturation
  8. Release from cell by lysis or budding through cell membrane

antiviral drugs target these steps of viral cell cycle

146
Q

Types of infection (examples)

A

Acute: smallpox, influenza, rhinovirus, ebola, SARS
Chronic: hepatitis B & C
Latent: herpesviruses
Progressive: HIV
Cancer: HPV, Epstein-Barr

147
Q

Remdesivir

A
  • first approved antiviral for COVID-19 (authorized w/ conditions in Canada (July 2020))
  • administered IV within 7 days of infection (severe cases)

MOA: blocks viral replication; metabolized to nucleoside monophosphate —> triple phosphorylated (ATP analog incorporated into newly synthesized RNA strand = premature termination of RNA product)

AEs: infusion site reactions, low blood pressure, nausea, vomiting, chest tightness, respiratory failure, altered liver enzymes, back pain, echocardiogram abnormalities, renal impairment

Resistance occurs due to…
- mutations in viral RdRP (ATP analog not incorporated into RNA)

148
Q

Nirmatrelvir/ritonavir (Paxlovid)

A
  • approved for patients w/ mild-moderate symptoms at risk of severe COVID-19 (FDA - Dec 2021; Canada - Jan 2022)

*Nirmatrelvir: inhibitor of Mpro (viral protease in all coronaviruses known to affect humans) —> inhibits viral polyprotein processing

Ritonavir: protease inhibitor (high dose) or booster (low dose) —> slows down metabolism*

AEs: change in taste, muscle aches, swollen joints, headache, blurred vision, changes in heart rate

*Resistance occurs due to…
- multiple mutation identified in SARS-CoV-2 Mpro near its binding site

149
Q

Oseltamivir (tamiflu)

A

MOA: inhibits neuraminidase (sialidase); sialic acid analog
neuraminidase cleaves sialic acid on surface of infected host cells to promote release of newly synthesized virus

PK: administered as prodrug, metabolized to active form in liver & GI tract

AEs: nausea, GI discomfort

Clinical uses: prevention & treatment of early infection by many influenza A & B sub-types

Resistance occurs due to…
- mutation in neuraminidase (mutant strains often less virulent)

H1N1 (2009; ~ 1 day sooner in alleviation)

150
Q

Amantidine

A

MOA: inhibits proton ion channel (M2) in viral envelope of influenza A —> inhibits H+ transport (necessary for proper viral protein synthesis) —> inhibits uncoating of virus —> inhibits release of viral RNA-protein complex

PK: distributed throughout the body (including CNS); excreted unchanged in kidney

AEs: GI disturbances, CNS disturbances (nervousness, insomnia, difficulty concentrating), renal damage in patients w/ renal insufficiency

Resistance occurs due to…
- mutation in M2 (~50%)

Clinical uses: treatment of early infection by influenza A (not H1N1)

151
Q

Acyclovir

A

MOA: guanosine analogue activated by viral thymidine kinase (infected cells most susceptible); triphosphate acyclovir competes w/ dGTP during DNA synthesis —> DNA chain termination (inhibit viral DNA synthesis)

PK: oral, IV or topical formulations; distributed throughout the body (including CNS)

AEs: nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, headache, renal damage (high doses or dehydrated patients, accumulates in patients w/ renal failure)

Resistance occurs due to…
- altered or deficient thymidine kinase

Clinical uses: treatment of active herpes infection

152
Q

HIV positive

A
  • infected w/ virus
  • generally symptom free
  • w/o treatment: clinically latency of 2-10 years
153
Q

AIDS present

A
  • symptoms (opportunistic infections)
  • life-span w/o treatment: 1-2 years
154
Q

HIV infects ___________________ via CD4 & co-receptor. The majority (up to 90%) of newly transmitted HIV uses the _________ co-receptor. ______________ virus emerges in ~ 50-60% of infected individuals; average time to emergence = ______________.

A

Immune cells (CD4+ T cells, macrophages, dendritic cells); CCR5 (R5-tropic); X4-tropic; 5 years

155
Q

Treatment of HIV

A
  • first-line treatment (combo of 3 antiviral agents; typically begins w/ 2 NRTIs + 1 of NNRTI/INI/PI)
    originally called HAART, now ART or cART
156
Q

Azidothymidine (AZT)

A
  • nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)

MOA: thymidine analogue activated/phosphorylated by mammalian kinases (viral RT not selective —> competes w/ dTTP during DNA synthesis —> DNA chain termination)
can affect human DNA polymerase at very high doses

PK: well absorbed & distributed (even in CNS); metabolized in liver (glucuronidation)

AEs: bone marrow (anemia, leukopenia), CNS (headaches, seizures)

Drug interactions: drugs that compete for glucuronidation (acetaminophen, benzodiazepines)

Resistance occurs due to…
- RT mutation, inefficient kinase activation
1/3 of patients develop resistance w/ AZT monotherapy

157
Q

Nevirapine

A
  • non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI)

MOA: binds to non-catalytic site & inhibits viral RT

PK: well absorbed & distributed (CNS, fetus, maternal milk), metabolized in liver (oxidation (CYP3A4 & CYP2B6) —> glucuronidation)

AEs: rash, hepatotoxicity

Drug interactions: increased CYP3A4 —> increases metabolism of certain drugs (itself, oral contraceptives, azoles, methadone, protease inhibitors)
metabolism affected by drugs that increase or decrease CYP3A4 or CYP2B6

Resistance occurs due to…
- RT mutation

158
Q

Raltegravir

A
  • integrase inhibitor (INI)
  • initially approved by Health Canada (Nov 2007) for patients w/ ART resistant HIV; now approved for all (decreased viral load earlier in patients taking raltegravir + ART drugs, compared to those taking ART drugs alone)
    effect as preventative treatment under investigation

MOA: inhibits viral integrase —> decreases transfer of viral DNA into host genome

Resistance occurs due to…
- viral integrase mutation

Biktarvy (fixed dose drug combination)

159
Q

Ritonavir

A
  • protease inhibitor (PI)

MOA: inhibits HIV aspartyl protease (cleaves viral polyprotein into specific proteins: Phe-Pro); inhibits CYP3A4 = given at low doses as enhancer of other HIV drugs (including other PIs)

PK: good bioavailability, metabolized by CYP3A4

AEs: GI disturbances, insomnia, hyperglycaemia, metabolic abnormalities (lipid levels, liver enzymes)

Resistance occurs due to…
- mutations in viral protease

160
Q

Maraviroc

A
  • viral fusion/entry inhibitor
  • approved in 2007; decreased viral load in patients w/ maraviroc compared to placebo (all participants received optimized ART)
  • indicated for use in individuals w/ R5-tropic virus

MOA: CCR5 receptor antagonist blocks binding of viral gp120 to CCR5 = prevents viral entry

AEs: muscle/joint pain, cold symptoms, dizziness, GI disturbances, rare but potentially serious liver damage & allergic reactions

161
Q

Parasites of people

A
  1. Macroscopic parasites
    - taenia species (tapeworms)
    - enterobius (pinworm)
    - pediculus (head louse)
  2. Microscopic parasites
    - entamoeba (amebiasis)
    - giardiasis (beaver fever)
    - trichomonas (trichomoniasis)
    - plasmodium (malaria)
162
Q

Praziquantel

A
  • cestocidal drug

MOA (exact unknown): binds to parasite integumentary = focal vacuolisation; influx of Ca2+ = muscle contraction (in seconds)
impaired function of hooks & suckers at anterior end = paralysis dislodgement, death

PK: synthetic isoquinoline derivative; systemic bioavailability ~80% after oral dosing

AEs: mild, transient reactions (common) — nausea, headache, abdominal discomfort

Clinical uses: effective against most cestode infections (drug of choice); safe & effective as single oral dose; swallow w/o chewing (bitter taste = retching/vomiting)

163
Q

Niclosamide

A
  • cestocidal drug

MOA: rapidly kills scolex & segments of adult tapeworms; inhibits mitochondrial anaerobic phosphorylation of ADP = decreased ATP production

PK: salicylanilide derivative; minimally absorbed from GI tract

AEs: minor GI complaints rarely encountered (nausea, vomiting, diarrhea)

Clinical uses: second-line choice for treatment of taenia saginata & taenia solium; single oral dose effective; cheap & readily available in many parts of the world

164
Q

Mebendazole

A
  • treatment for enterobius vermicularis

MOA: binds to beta-tubulin (inhibits polymerization to microtubules; inhibits parasite motility, glucose uptake, cell division)
slow kill = expelled in feces; efficacy varies w/ GI transit time

PK: benzimidazole (broad spectrum); administered orally (chewable tablets) — less than 10% absorbed

AEs: short term therapy (nearly free of AEs); embryotoxic & teratogenic in animals

Clinical uses: approved for pinworms (treat twice at 2-week interval)

165
Q

Pyrantel

A
  • treatment for enterobius vermicularis

MOA: “nicotinic anthelmintic”; acts selectively at neuromuscular junction of parasite on nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (release of acetylcholine & inhibition of acetylcholinesterase; paralysis = expulsion)

PK: tetrahydropyrimidine; poorly absorbed from GI tract (activity within)

AEs: mild, transient (nausea, vomiting, diarrhea)

Clinical uses: approved for pinworms (treat twice at 2-week interval)

166
Q

Permethrin

A
  • treatment for pediculus capitis
  • synthetic pyrethroid
  • used on nets as mosquito repellent & insecticide; residual activity (2 weeks to 6 months); biodegraded in 1-20 weeks

MOA: causes voltage-gated sodium channels to remain open = membrane depolarization = rapid paralysis

PK: absorption through skin (minimal); rapidly degraded to inactive metabolites in liver; resistance to permethrin in ~50% head lice (USA)

AEs: itching/mild burning sensation of scalp (inflammation of skin in response to agents; can persist for many days after lice are killed)

not significantly ovicidal; more than one application typically required (retreat at 9-10 day interval)

167
Q

Malathion

A
  • treatment for pediculus capitis; when permethrin fails
  • organophosphate

MOA: irreversible inhibitor of acetylcholinestrase (accumulation of acetylcholine = rapid paralysis)

PK: hydrolysed & activated by plasma carboxylesterases much faster in humans than in insects

AEs: itching/mild burning sensation of scalp (inflammation of skin in response to agents; can persist for many days after lice are killed)

not significantly ovicidal; more than one application typically required (retreat at 9-10 day interval)

168
Q

If living lice on scalp 24+ hours after treatment…

A
  • incorrect use of drug
  • hatching of lice eggs after treatment
  • re-infestation
  • drug resistance
169
Q

Entamoeba histolytica

A

Causes the infection amebiasis

Clinical presentations:
- asymptomatic intestinal infection
- mild to moderate colitis
- severe intestinal infection (dysentery)
- ameboma (pseudotumoral lesion)
- liver abscess/other extra-intestinal infection

Amebicidal drugs (chemotherapy):
- luminal (parasites in bowel lumen; used: i) after treatment of invasive intestinal or extra-intestinal amebic disease; ii) for treatment of asymptomatic infections)
- systemic (parasites in intestinal wall & liver)
- mixed (both)

170
Q

Metronidazole (Flagyl)

A
  • mixed amebicide
  • choice for E. histolytica (diarrhea/dysentery) — kills trophozites, not cysts)
  • extensive use in treatment of: giardia lamblia, trichomonas vaginalis, anaerobic cocci, anaerobic gram-negative bacilli, pseudomembranous colitis (clostridium difficile)
  • not reliably effective for luminal parasites; must be used w/ luminal amebicide (iodoquinol; paromomycin (aminoglycoside))

MOA: some anaerobic protozoal parasites lack mitochondrial activities for generating ATP & disposing of electrons; instead, ferredoxin-like, low redox potential, electron-transport proteins can transfer electrons to nitro groups of metronidazole (cytotoxic reduced products; bind to DNA & proteins)

PK:
- nitroimidazole
- administered orally (readily absorbed; extensive tissue distribution (simple diffusion)
- therapeutic levels in vaginal & seminal fluids, saliva, cerebrospinal fluid
- metabolism (hepatic oxidation by mixed-function oxidase then glucuronylation)
- excreted in urine along with metabolites
- rate of plasma clearance decreases if liver function impaired
- simultaneous treatment w/ inducers of hepatic mixed-function oxidase (e.g. phenobarbital) = enhanced metabolism
- drugs that inhibit hepatic mixed-function oxidase (e.g. cimetidine) = prolonged excretion

AEs: *nausea, *vomiting, headache, abdominal cramps, metallic taste in mouth (common); mutagenic in bacteria (best avoided in pregnant or nursing women)
*if alcohol ingested simultaneously

171
Q

Iodoquinol

A
  • drug of choice for asymptomatic luminal infections
  • active against luminal stages (trophozites & cysts)
  • unknown MOA
  • side effects: rash, diarrhea, dose-related peripheral neuropathy (including rare optic neuritis)
  • long-term use should be avoided
172
Q

Metastatic infections

A

usually hepatic abscesses

need to kill parasites within liver abscess, intestinal wall & lumen

  • high dosage of metronidazole used to eliminate trophozoites in liver abscess & intestinal wall (not gut lumen)
  • followed by iodoquinol to treat intestinal infection & prevent further amebic liver abscesses
173
Q

Giardia lamblia (“beaver fever”)

A
  • most common intestinal parasitic infection of people
  • no tissue development
  • two life-cycle stages: i) trophozoite; ii) cyst
  • infection (ingestion of cysts) — usually in water
  • people-specific & zoonotic genotypes
  • many infections = asymptomatic; severe diarrhea can occur
  • drug of choice: metronidazole (dosage much lower than for amebiasis — better tolerated; typically not used for asymptomatic infections — self clearance)

Risk factors for infection in humans:
- ingesting contaminated drinking or recreational water
- children in childcare settings
- close contact w/ infected persons/animals, male-male sex
- taking part in outdoor activities

174
Q

Trichomonas vaginalis

A
  • parasites reside in: i) female lower genital tract; ii) male urethra & prostate
  • does not have cyst form; trophozoite replicates by binary fission; does not survive in external environment

Trichomoniasis
- one of most common STIs; symptoms? — women & men
- treatment: metronidazole (single (typically more effective; requires compliance) & multiple dose regimens); resistant? failure! repeat at higher doses; systemic > topical (multi focal nature of infection); simultaneous treatment of sexual partner!!

175
Q

Malaria

A
  • caused by plasmodium falciparum*, p. vivax, p. malariae, p. ovale
  • drug resistance = major prophylactic & therapeutic problem
    **only erythrocytic parasites —> clinical illness

*most serious clinical disease = death:
- incubation period — generally 9-14 days; headache, pain in back & limbs, anorexia, nausea, fever, chills, anemia (young children)
- cerebral malaria (severe) — usually ill for 4-5 days w/ fever, slowly lapse into coma (+/- convulsions), mortality = ~15-20%

Drugs that eliminate:
- liver stages = tissue schizonticides
- erythrocytic stages = blood schizonticides
- sexual stages = gametocides
**killed by effective chemoprophylactic agents (before growing in #’s = disease)

Treatment of people w/ clinical malaria:
p. falciparum & p. malariae
- one cycle of multiplication in liver (liver infection ceases < 4 weeks); elimination of erythrocytic parasites cures infection
p. vivax & p. ovale
- dormant hepatic stage (hypnozoite) — not killed by most drugs; must eliminate both erythrocytic & hepatic parasites

Prevention:
- resistance of parasites to drugs is only increasing; no chemoprophylactic regimen is 100% protective!
- counsel people = prevent mosquito bites

176
Q

Enterobius vermicularis

A
  • most common nematode infection in temperate countries
  • transmission: female parasite on perianal skin → pruritus (eggs → hands → ingestion); eggs sticky & can survive long periods in environment; contamination of nightclothes / bedding; eggs → wide dispersal in bedrooms / house
  • clinical presentation: most frequent in school age children; most infections asymptomatic; itching → irritability, incontinence, weight loss
  • minimise risk of infection: personal hygiene (handwashing, fingernail cleaning, regular bathing); keep bedrooms scrupulously clean & dust free; bed linen / nightclothes (change and launder frequently)
177
Q

Chloroquine

A
  • chemoprophylaxis if only chloroquine-S parasites in area
  • treatment of chloroquine-S P. falciparum
  • parasite in RBC: digests host hemoglobin (essential amino acids); polymerizes heme (toxic to parasite) = hemozoin (sequestered in food vacuole)

MOA: unclear; drug concentrated in parasite’s acidic food vacuole; prevent polymerization of heme = hemozoin; oxidative damage (lysis of parasite & RBC)

PK: synthetic 4-aminoquinoline (oral use); rapidly absorbed and distributed to tissues; blood schizonticide; no activity against liver parasites; dealkylated by hepatic mixed function oxidase system (parent drug + metabolites → urine)

AEs: minimal at low doses for chemoprophylaxis; nausea, vomiting, blurred vision (higher doses); dosing after meals decreases AEs

Resistance (very common in P. falciparum) occurs due to…
- mutations in membrane transporter

178
Q

Mefloquine

A

Clinical uses: recommended chemoprophylactic drug in areas w/ chloroquine-R P. falciparum; taken weekly per os

MOA: blood schizonticide; no activity against hepatic stages or gametocytes; concentrated in parasite by unknown mechanism; may inhibit heme polymerization = membrane damage

PK: synthetic 4-quinoline methanol (chemically related to quinine); given orally (well absorbed); extensive distribution in tissues (eliminated slowly)

AEs: weekly dosing for chemoprophylaxis — neuropsychiatric toxicities (much publicity); nausea, vomiting, dizziness, sleep and behaviour disturbances; frequency of serious AEs no higher than other anti-malarials?

Contraindications: history of epilepsy, psychiatric disorders
risks of mefloquine use must be balanced with risk of contracting falciparum malaria

Resistance (uncommon except in regions of Southeast Asia w/ high rates of MDR) associated with resistance to quinine and halofantrine, not chloroquine

179
Q

Doxycycline

A

Clinical uses: standard chemoprophylactic drug in areas of. Southeast Asia with MDR parasites (including mefloquine-R); administered daily per os; should not be used as a single agent (slow action); commonly used for treatment of P. falciparum in conjunction w/ quinidine or quinine (allows shorter & better tolerated course of these drugs)

MOA: inhibits protein synthesis (as in bacteria); blood schizonticide; not active against liver stages

AEs: infrequent GI symptoms; photosensitivity