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Anatomy and Physiology II > Final Exam Flashcards! > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards!

1
Q

Changes in the external and internal environment are _____ that are detected by the sensory system

A

Stimuli

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2
Q

Conscious awareness of incoming sensory information is called?

A

Sensation

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3
Q

Which term best describes receptors that detect stimuli from the external environment?

A

Exteroceptors

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4
Q

These receptors respond to touch, pressure, vibration, and stretch

A

Mechanoreceptors

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5
Q

What is NOT a part of the olfactory epithelium?

A

Gustatory cells

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6
Q

The fibrous tunic of the eye is composed of two parts. What are they?

A

The cornea and the sclera

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7
Q

What part of the retina lacks photoreceptors?

A

The optic disc

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8
Q

Phototransduction is the process in which

A

Photoreceptors convert light energy to changes in membrane potential

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9
Q

What is the function of the auditory tube?

A

To equalize air pressure between the atmosphere and the middle ear

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10
Q

The part of the cochlea that converts pressure waves (from sounds) into changes in membrane potentials in the

A

Spiral organ

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11
Q

After being funneled by the auricle, sound waves pass (in sequence) through the

A

External acoustic meatus, tympanic membrane, ossicles, oval window

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12
Q

When you travel on a moving walkway or an elevator, the linear acceleration of your body is sensed by the

A

Utricle and saccule

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13
Q

Which term best describes the function of blood when considering the presence of carbon dioxide and endocrine hormones

A

Transportation

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14
Q

The temperature of blood is about _____ than measured body temperature

A

1*C higher

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15
Q

The “buffy coat” in a centrifuged blood sample is composed of

A

Platelets and leukocytes

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16
Q

The most numerous of the formed elements are the

A

Erythrocytes

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17
Q

Which most closely approximates the percentage of water in plasma by weight?

A

92%

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18
Q

The process of producing the formed elements of blood is called

A

Hemopoiesis

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19
Q

Colony - stimulation factors influence the development of specific formed elements depending on the body’s needs T/F

A

True

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20
Q

How many globins (protein building blocks) are found in a single hemoglobin molecule?

A

4

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21
Q 
Which characteristics of type O blood
    A: has anti-A antibodies
    B: Has anti-B antibodies
    C: Has surface antigen O 
    D: Has surface antigen A
    E: Has neither surface 
        antigen A nor B
A

A: Has anti-A antibodies
B: Has anti-B antibodies
E: Has neither surface antigen A nor B

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22
Q 
Which leukocytes are granulocytes?
     A: Neutrophils
     B: Eosinophils
     C: Lymphocytes
     D: Monocytes
     E: Basophils
     F: Erythrocytes
A

A: Neutrophils
B: Eosinophils
E: Basophils

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23
Q

Erythropoietin is released by the ______ in response to low blood oxygen levels

A

Kidney

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24
Q

The first phase of hemostasis involves?

A

Blood vessel constriction AKA Vasoconstriction

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25
Q

The pulmonary trunk receives blood from the right ventricle and conducts it toward the lung. The pulmonary trunk is a(n)

A

Artery

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26
Q

The receiving chambers of the heart are the atria, and the forcefully pumping chambers of the heart are the ventricles T/F

A

True

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27
Q

Which heart chambers contain deoxygenated blood?

A

Right atrium and right ventricle

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28
Q

The pericardial cavity is between the

A

Visceral and parietal layers of the serous pericardium

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29
Q

What type of tissue forms the fibrous skeleton of the heart?

A

Dense irregular connective tissue

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30
Q

The layer of the heart wall composed of cardiac muscle tissue is the

A

Myocardium

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31
Q

Which action leads to the closure of the right atrioventricular valve?

A

Contraction of the right ventricle

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32
Q 
What is the sequence of events in the transmission of an impulse through the heart muscle?
    A: Atrioventricular node
    B: Atrioventricular bundle
    C: Sinoatrial node
    D: Through the atria
    E: Through the ventricles
    F: Bundle branches
    G: Purkinje fibers
A 
C: Sinoatrial
D: Through the atria
A: Atrioventricular node
B: Atrioventricular bundle
F: Bundle branches
G: Purkinje fibers
E: Through the ventricles
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33
Q

In an ECG, what does the T wave represent?

A

Repolarization of the ventricles

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34
Q

During a cardiac cycle, how many of the four chambers contract at any one time?

A

2

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35
Q

Cardiac output is the amount of blood that is pumped

A

By a single ventricle in one minute

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36
Q

The function of the coronary sinus is to

A

Take blood from the coronary circulation to the right atrium

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37
Q

A network of small arteries called the ______ provides a blood supply to the tunica externa of very large vessels

A

Vasa Vasorum

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38
Q

In arteries, the thickest layer of the wall is the

A

Tunica media

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39
Q

As a venous pathway moves closer to the heart, the veins

A

Get larger

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40
Q

The largest arteries of the body are classified as

A

Eleatic arteries

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41
Q

Which is the most common type of capillary

A

Continuous

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42
Q

Blood colloid osmotic pressure is largely due to

A

The proteins in the blood, and it promotes reabsorption

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43
Q

As blood moves from the arterial end of the venous end of a capillary, net filtration pressure

A

Decreases, as blood hydrostatic pressure decreases

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44
Q

Considering the bulk flow that occurs at capillary beds, the lymphatic system is need to

A

Reabsorb excess fluid from the interstitial fluid

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45
Q

A vasodilator causes a decrease in local blood flow at a capillary bed

A

False

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46
Q

Systolic blood pressure is recorded

A

In arteries and is the maximal pressure that is recorded during ventricular contraction

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47
Q

If someone’s blood pressure were listed as 125/75 mmHg, then their pulse pressure would be

A

50 mmHg

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48
Q

The contraction of skeletal muscles plays and important role in the movement of blood in the veins T/F

A

True

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49
Q

Renin converts

A

Angiotensinogen to angiotensin 1

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50
Q

Atrial natriuretic peptide stimulates

A

Vasodilation, increased urine output, and therefore decreased blood pressure

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51
Q

Lymph contains red blood cells T/F

A

False

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52
Q

The path that fluid takes as it enters a lymphatic capillary is through

A

Spaces between capillary endothelial cells that are arranged as one - way flaps

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53
Q

The thoracic duct collects lymph from all of the following except the

A

Right arm

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54
Q

The spleen is considered a primary lymphatic structure T/F

A

False

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55
Q

B - lymphocytes are

A

White blood cells that are generated in red bone marrow

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56
Q

Lymph nodes may be found individually, or clusters in specific regions of the body. Which cluster of lymph nodes receives lymph from the head and neck

A

Cervical lymph nodes

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57
Q

Lymph nodes

A

Filter lymph

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58
Q

One of the functions of the lymphatic system is to transport fat T/F

A

True

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59
Q

The thymus gland begins to atrophy immediately after birth T/F

A

False

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60
Q

The spleen is essentially a giant lymph node, because it is encapsulated, had trabeculae, and filters lymph to remove antigens T/F

A

False

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61
Q

Interferons are one of the classes of

A

Cytokines

62
Q

Nonspecific immunity is another name for

A

Innate immunity

63
Q

In addition to creating a physical barrier to pathogen entry, mucus contains antimicrobial substances such as IgA T/F

A

True

64
Q

Inflammation is a(n)

A

Nonspecific process that occurs in vascularized tissue

65
Q

Inflamed tissue fells warm due to

A

Increased blood flow and increased metabolic activity

66
Q

B - lymphocytes cannot bind directly with an antigen, and so require presentation by another type of cell T/F

A

False

67
Q

Activation of lymphocytes occurs in

A

Secondary lymphatic structures

68
Q

Most activated B - lymphocytes differentiate into

A

Plasma cells

69
Q

Why are functions of T - lymphocytes referred to as “cell - mediated” immunity

A

Because T - lymphocytes are cells and not just plasma proteins

70
Q

An immunoglobulin is a(n)

A

Antibody, which is a protein molecule

71
Q

IgA is primarily found

A

In external secretions such as tears, saliva, and mucus

72
Q

In passive immunity, the individual has not had an antigenic challenge T/F

A

True

73
Q

A variety of lymphatic cells are involved in the immune response in the immune response. Which is not part of the process

A

Replication of antigens

74
Q

Which is not part of the conducting portion of the respiratory system?

A

Alveoli

75
Q

Several things happen to inhaled air in a process called conditioning. Select and exception

A

The air is cooled

76
Q

Which bone does not contain a paranasal sinus?

A

Mandible`

77
Q

What structure is also known as the “voice box”?

A

Larynx

78
Q

What type of tissue lines the trachea

A

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

79
Q

Bronchoconstriction results from relaxation of smooth muscle in the walls of airways T/F

A

False

80
Q

On each side of the chest, the ______ pleura lines the internal thoracic wall and the ______ pleura tightly covers the lung

A

Parietal; visceral

81
Q 
Organized the items listed into the proper sequence of events for gas exchange
    A: O2 is transported to 
        cells by circulatory 
        system
    B: O2 is drawn into the 
         lungs during inhalation
    C: cells use O2 and 
        generate CO2
    D: CO2 is exhaled
    E: The circulatory system 
        transports CO2 to the 
        lungs
A

B: O2 in drawn into the lungs during inhalation
A: O2 is transported to cell by circulatory system
C: Cells use O2 and generate CO2
E: The circulatory system transports CO2 to the lungs
D: CO2 is exhaled

82
Q

Air flows out of the body during expiration because

A

Intrapulmonary pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure

83
Q

Where would you find the trachealis muscle?

A

Between the esophagus and the trachea

84
Q

The amount of sir that can be forcibly inhaled after a normal inspiration is the

A

Inspiratory reserve volume

85
Q

When a parietal pressure gradient exists for a gas, it will move from the area of its lower pressure to the area of higher partial pressure

A

False

86
Q

The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the air in the alveoli and blood in the lungs is called

A

External respiration

87
Q

Most carbon dioxide is transported through the blood as bicarbonate dissolved in plasma T/F

A

True

88
Q

In addition to oxygen, hemoglobin also transports

A

Carbon dioxide and hydrogen ions

89
Q

The ______ transfer from the kidneys to the urinary bladder

A

Ureters

90
Q

The kidneys are located ______ the peritoneum

A

Posterior to

91
Q

The first structure in the kidney to collect newly formed urine is the

A

Minor calyx

92
Q

Cortical nephrons have their corpuscles near the _______ edge of the cortex and are the ______ common type of nephron

A

Peripheral; more

93
Q

Granular cells synthesize and release the enzyme

A

Renin

94
Q

What is the correct sequence of arteries that a drop of blood would flow through as it entered the kidney and moved toward a glomerulus

A

Renal artery - segmental artery - interlobular artery - accurate artery - interlobular artery

95
Q

Which step(s) in the process of urine formation occur in the renal tubule

A

Secretion and reabsorption only

96
Q

The endothelium of the glomerulus is made up of ______ capillaries

A

Fenestrated

97
Q

Podocytes are cells with foot - like processes called pedicels. Podocytes are found in the

A

Visceral layer of the glomerular capsule

98
Q

The hormone ANP is released from the heart and causes the urinary system to

A

Increase in urine volume and decrease in blood volume

99
Q

The reabsorption of both sodium and potassium is carefully regulated T/F

A

True

100
Q

The muscularis layer of the urinary bladder is commonly called the ______ muscle

A

Detrusor

101
Q

At which stage of life is the percentage of fluid in the human body highest

A

Infancy

102
Q

When compared to extracellular fluid, intracellular fluid contains

A

More potassium and more negatively charges proteins

103
Q

As an individual becomes dehydrated, the net movement of fluid in their body id from cells toward plasma T/F

A

True

104
Q

Fluid intake causes blood volume to increase T/F

A

True

105
Q

The thirst center of the brain is located in the

A

Hypothalamus

106
Q

The most abundant cation within cells is

A

Potassium

107
Q

Angiotensin 2 stimulates the adrenal cortex to release antidiuretic hormone T/F

A

False

108
Q

An individual who consumes many antacids for stomach upset and many diuretic for high blood pressure will be be at risk for metabolic

A

Alkalosis

109
Q

Renal compensation for acidosis results in

A

Urine with a low pH and an elevation of blood bicarbonate levels

110
Q

To compensate for metabolic acidosis, the respiratory system increases breathing rate, which lowers that partial pressure of carbon dioxide below normal levels T/F

A

True

111
Q

What organ is not part of the gastrointestinal tract?

A

Liver

112
Q

An organ that helps break down food but is not part of the tube through which the foodstuffs pass is referred to as a(n)

A

Accessory digestive organ

113
Q

The initial site of both mechanical and chemical digestion

A

Oral cavity

114
Q

Lipid molecules that are absorbed from the GI tract enter

A

Lacteals

115
Q

The term “retroperitoneal” may be used to describe the location of certain abdominal organs. This means that such organs are located

A

Posterior to the parietal peritoneum

116
Q

“Segmentation” within the small intestine refers to the

A

Back - and - forth motion that mixes chyme with glandular secretions

117
Q

What is the primary function of the large intesstine

A

Water and electrolyte absorption

118
Q

The enzyme pepsin becomes active when pH is

A

Low

119
Q

What is the substance secreted by the G cells of the gastric glands

A

Gastrin

120
Q

Put the tunics of the GI tract wall in correct order from deep to superficial

A

Mucosa - submucosa - tunica muscularis - serosa

121
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the biliary apparatus

A

Transverse bile duct

122
Q

Which gastric gland cell secretes alkaline mucin

A

Surface mucous cell

123
Q

When chyme leaves the stomach, what does it enter next?

A

Duodenum

124
Q

What is the blood vessel in the middle of the liver lobule that receives blood from the hepatic sinusoids?

A

Central vein

125
Q

Triglycerides and steroids are both examples of

A

Lipids

126
Q

A nonessential amino acid is now that

A

Can be made with the body

127
Q

Vitamin C is a

A

Water - soluble, essential vitamin

128
Q

A deficiency in vitamin ______ may lead to bleeding problems

A

Vitamin K

129
Q

Are minerals organic molecules

A

No

130
Q

Honey, fruit and milk are all sources of

A

Sugars

131
Q

The absorptive state occurs

A

From when you are eating until about 4 hours after the meal

132
Q

One of the ultimate effects of insulin is to stimulate protein synthesis within cells of the body T/F

A

True

133
Q

High - density lipoproteins (HDLs) are associated with the transport of lipids from the

A

Peripheral tissues to the liver

134
Q

When glucose enters glycolysis, it

A

Is oxidized to pyruvate molecules

135
Q

Is protein a macronutrient?

A

Yes

136
Q

Does glycolysis require oxygen?

A

No

137
Q

Which step in cellular respiration produces the most ATP?

A

Electron transport system

138
Q

The coenzymes that will provide the electrons needed for the electron transport system are

A

NADH and FADH2

139
Q

Which of the following is the product of the citric acid cycle

A

Carbon dioxide molecules

140
Q

What is the correct order for the phases of the ovarian cycle, beginning with day 1

A

Follicular, ovulation, luteal

141
Q

What are fimbriae?

A

Fingerlike projection at the opening of the uterine tube

142
Q

The myometrium of the uterus is composed of

A

Smooth muscle

143
Q

What do the interstitial cells in the testes

A

Secrete testosterone

144
Q

What to the rete testis receive?

A

Sperm from the seminiferous tubules

145
Q

Which of the following is the neck of the uterus that projects into the vagina

A

Cervix

146
Q

After ovulation, the oocyte does?

A

It releases chemotoxic signals to attract sperm to its location

147
Q

Cleavage occurs during

A

The pre - embryonic period

148
Q

The fingerlike structures of the placenta that form from its fetal portion are known as

A

Chorionic Villi

149
Q

The secondary trimester of a pregnancy includes months

A

4 - 6

150
Q

Shortly after birth the foramen ovale of the fetal heart ceases to function as an open pathway for blood T/F

A

True

Anatomy and Physiology II (1 decks)

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