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CNB > final exam flash cards > Flashcards

final exam flash cards

1
Q

language is located in the…

A

left side of the brain, it is unilateral

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2
Q

paul broca was a french neurologist in the…

A

1860s

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3
Q

language expression is controlled in most people in…

A

the left hemisphere of the brain

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4
Q

90% of right handed people have their language centers located…

A

in the left hemisphere

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5
Q

70% of left handed people have their language centers located…

A

in the left hemisphere

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6
Q

broca’s patient Tam could understand language but couldn’t speak, he had damage…

A

only in one part of the left hemisphere frontal lobe which is now called broca’s area

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7
Q

broca’s area functions in…

A

language production/the ability to speak

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8
Q

Karl Wernicke was a german neurologist in the…

A

1870s/1874

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9
Q

Wernicke had a patient that could speak but couldn’t understand any language and had damage…

A

in the left hemisphere temporal lobe which is now called wernicke’s area

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10
Q

broca’s area controls the production of speech and is located near…

A

the motor cortex BUT it is not a motor area. instead it converts words into code for muscle movement that is then sent to the motor cortex

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11
Q

wernicke’s area controls the comprehension of language and is located near…

A

the auditory cortex

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12
Q

the language functions of the right side of the brain include…

A

intonation (how a word is pronounced) and emotional expression in speech

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13
Q

broca’s aphasia has the symptoms of…

A

having good language comprehension but production of non-fluent, a-grammatical speech, if speech can even be produced

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14
Q

wernicke’s aphasia has the symptoms of…

A

poor language comprehension but the production of fluent, grammatical, meaningless language (they cannot even understand what they are saying)

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15
Q

the wernicke-geshwind model outlines…

A

the path both spoken and written language are interpreted to then produce speech

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16
Q

When a word is spoken to a person and they are asked to repeat it, it is…

A

interpreted by the auditory cortex (A1), then sent to wernicke’s area where it is comprehended, travels along the arcuate fasciculus (bundle of axons) to go to broca’s area, broca’s area then converts the words into a code for muscle movements and the motor cortex then executes the command and produces speech.

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17
Q

When a word is read and asked to be spoken out loud, the information is first…

A

processed by the primary visual cortex which then sends the information to the angular gyrus, the angular gyrus then transforms the signal so that it evokes the same response in wernicke’s area as if the word had been spoken, wernicke’s then understands the word and sends the information to broca’s area via the arcuate fasciculus where the necessary motor signals are produced and sent to the motor cortex to be converted into speech

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18
Q

the angular gyrus is located between the visual and auditory cortexes and can be thought of as…

A

the voice inside out heads when reading, etc.

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19
Q

split brain patients are those that…

A

had their corpus callosum cut in order to prevent their seizures from expanding over both halves of the brain

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21
Q

in everyday life, split brain individuals can…

A

function as normal people even though there is no communication between the two halves of the brain because their eyes can move around and obtain a complete picture

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22
Q

When an object is located within only the left visual field, split brain patients…

A

cannot see anything according the broca’s area since the visual information from the right side of the brain cannot cross to the language centers on the left side, resulting in the individuals saying “i don’t see anything”

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23
Q

when an object is located within only the right visual field, split brain patients…

A

will respond as a normal individual since the visual information is already in the left side of the brain and can be sent to the language centers

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24
Q

If a split brain patient has a ball placed in their left visual field they will respond by saying that they do not see anything. When asked to use the left hand to pick up the object they saw (simply based on feel/shape) they…

A

correctly pick the ball because the right brain knows what was seen, proving that the right side of the brain can function and understand things without the left side being connected to it, the right side just cannot speak, it is mute not “dumb”

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25
Q

the right hemisphere can read letters, short words and numbers but this can only be determined by…

A

asking the split brain patients for a non verbal response for the information they just saw

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26
Q

because the left hemisphere cannot receive information about what was seen in the left visual field, the brain will…

A

fabricate a story/reason why the particular object was selected in response to what the right hemisphere saw (think of the snow and chicken example)

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27
Q

cochlear implants can be thought of as…

A

electronic cochleas

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28
Q

cochlear implants work by…

A

directly stimulating the auditory nerve and by taking advantage of the tonotopy of the basilar membrane

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29
Q

cochlear implants typically have _____ electrodes

A

Aug 22, 2013

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30
Q

cochlear implants focus on the frequencies of…

A

human speech (1000 Hz to 6000HZ)

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31
Q

cochlear implants were first developed in the 1950s but were not FDA approved until…

A

1984

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32
Q

the artificial retina was first approved for use in…

A

feb 2013 (argus II)

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33
Q

retinitis pigmentisa is a condition when…

A

photoreceptors dies and bipolar and ganglion cells and the lens can still function

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34
Q

one example of a disease in which the argus II can be used is…

A

retinitis pigmentisa

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35
Q

Argus II works by…

A

having the individual wear glasses with a camera which then sends a signal to a processor, the processor generates an electrical signal that travels to the retinal implant, activating cells allowing them to see a black and white image; directly stimulates the ganglion and bipolar cells

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36
Q

argus II contains ____ electrodes

A

60

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37
Q

in order to be a candidate for a retinal implant, the patient must…

A

have had vision previously and recently so that the necessary areas of the brain function still

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38
Q

one reason that many electrodes cannot be added to a retinal implant is because…

A

they produce a lot of heat when functioning and the heat generated will kill ganglion and bipolar cells

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39
Q

the 1st artificial retina, developed in 2002, had 16 electrodes which could detect…

A

hand motion at most

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40
Q

in order to have 20/20 vision, a retinal implant would have to contain _____ electrodes

A

over 1000

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41
Q

Braingate is a program where…

A

electrodes are implanted into the motor cortex so that paralyzed people with working brains can control computers and in some cases machines by thinking about a motion

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42
Q

in may 2012, braingate made advances so that…

A

a woman could use the implanted electrodes and control a robotic arm, even for tasks such as drinking coffee

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43
Q

amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) or lou gehrig’s is a disease where…

A

all upper and lower motor neurons die and eventually even lose the ability to blink but the sensory system remains intact and all cognitive functions remain intact

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44
Q

ALS typically progresses…

A

quickly and all movement is lost within 3 to 5 years

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45
Q

approximately 1/20,000 people get…

A

ALS

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46
Q

Hawking is a strange case of ALS because…

A

it progressed very slowly and he still hasnt lost all of his motor controls

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47
Q

EEG stands for…

A

electroencephalogram

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48
Q

EEG records the…

A

electrical activity of the neurons in the cortex, and takes the average of thousands to millions of neurons

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49
Q

the human ear can hear…

A

20Hz to 20,000 Hz (20 kHz)

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50
Q

low frequency sounds are…

A

low pitch, like a bass drum

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51
Q

high frequency sounds are…

A

high pitched, like a flute

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52
Q

the ossicles of the midear are…

A

the malleus, incus, and the stapes

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53
Q

the ear drum is the…

A

tympanic membrane

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54
Q

the inner ear is the…

A

cochlea

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55
Q

the cochlea is…

A

a fluid filled tube with 2.5 turns, it is peasized.

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56
Q

the auditory nerve comes out of the ___ and sends an electrical signal to the brain

A

cochlea

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57
Q

the scala tympani and scala vestibuli of the cochlea are filled with…

A

perilymph, it is similar to the extra cellular fluid since it has low [K+] and high [Na+]

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58
Q

the scala media of the cochlea contains…

A

endolymph which is similar to the intracellular fluid since it has high [K+] and low [Na+]

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59
Q

the cells in the stria vascularis of the cochlea function to…

A

regulate the ion concentration of the endolymph

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60
Q

the basilar membrane of the cochlea runs from the base to the apex and it…

A

vibrates in response to sound/different frequencies

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61
Q

the stapes pushes and pulls which causes fluid movement which then…

A

causes vibrations in the basilar membrane that depend on the frequency

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62
Q

the base of the basilar membrane vibrates in response to…

A

high frequencies

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63
Q

the apex of the basilar membrane vibrates in response to…

A

low frequencies

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64
Q

the sterocilia on the top of the basilar membrane…

A

are hair cells that release neurotransmitter onto the spiral ganglion cells in response to vibration

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65
Q

the axons of the spiral ganglion cells make up…

A

the auditory nerve

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66
Q

when the basilar membrane vibrates, the sterocilia bend back and forth against the…

A

fixed tectorial membrane

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67
Q

loud sounds can cause stereocilia to break of because…

A

they are semi-rigid and a loud sound will produce a high amplitude which damages the stereocilia

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68
Q

there are approximately ____ hair cells per ear

A

20,000

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69
Q

of the 20,000 hair cells per ear, only about ____ of them are in the inner ear and function in hearing

A

3,500

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70
Q

the tip links on stereocilia connect…

A

the TRPA1 on one to the TRPA1 on the adjacent stereocilia

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71
Q

when the stereocilia bend towards the tallest “hair”, the tip link tension increases which causes…

A

K+ inflow to increase because the channel opens

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72
Q

when K+ influx occurs in hair cells…

A

Ca2+ gated ion channels open and the synaptic vesicles filled with neurotransmitter are then released via excytosis onto the spiral ganglion neurons, conducting a signal down the auditory nerve

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73
Q

for the softest sound you can hear, stereocilia move approximately…

A

0.2 nm

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74
Q

for the loudest sound you can hear, stereocilia move approximately…

A

the width of 100 atoms

75
Q

outer hair cells function to…

A

amplify the vibrations on the basilar membrane

76
Q

inner hair cells (stereocilia) function to…

A

translate mechanical waves into electrical signals

77
Q

the motor protein in the outer hair cells is…

A

prestin; contract and expand which then results in the pushing and pulling of the basilar membrane

78
Q

outer hair cells amplify the vibration in the basilar membrane by…

A

100 times

79
Q

some antibiotics can damage hearing by…

A

killing the outer hair cells

80
Q

otoacoustic emission is…

A

the sound generated by the outer hair cells, used for testing hearing in new born infants

81
Q

hearing is mostly bilateral because…

A

each cochlea sends signals to both sides of the brain

82
Q

sound becomes bilateral when it reaches the…

A

superior olive

83
Q

the superior olive also functions to…

A

determine horizontal sound localization

84
Q

the inferior colliculus…

A

turns the head towards sounds

85
Q

at the optic chiasm, …

A

about half of the neurons cross over to the other side (only those from the nasal side)

86
Q

before the optic chiasm the neurons are called…

A

the optic nerve

87
Q

after the optic chiasm, the neurons are called…

A

the optic tract

88
Q

the optic tract contains…

A

neurons from both the left and right eye (for example the right optic tract has temporal axons from the right and nasal axons from the left)

89
Q

the left binocular visual field is viewed by…

A

the temporal retina of the right eye and the nasal retina of the left eye

90
Q

periphery (visual hemisphere) is viewed…

A

only by the nasal retinas on the same side

91
Q

if the left optic nerve is cut…

A

the vision of the left eye is completely lost but the right eye still sees a part of the left eye visual field (only the periphery of the left hemifield is missing)

92
Q

if the left optic tract is cut…

A

the entire right visual field is gone

93
Q

transection of the optic chiasm (ie: pituitary gland humor) causes…

A

only the crossing axons to be cut (the nasal retina axons) resulting the loss of the peripheral visual fields on both sides; also known as tunnel vision

94
Q

the ganglion cells from the retina synapse on the…

A

LGN

95
Q

input from the two eyes is kept separate and…

A

they synapse on different layers of the LGN

96
Q

M and P type ganglion cells from the retinas of both eyes are…

A

kept separate when synapsing on the LGN

97
Q

the LGN is…

A

the primary visual cortex, v1

98
Q

axons from the LGN come into the…

A

layer IV in v1

99
Q

the fact that information from the 2 eyes is kept separate in layer IV of v1 is called…

A

occular dominance columns (altering input from left and right eye)

100
Q

layer III neurons in v1 receive information from both eyes because…

A

this is necessary in order to have depth perception

101
Q

the orientation of columns in v1 is…

A

perpendicular to the surface and all the neurons in a single column have the same orientation preference

102
Q

using an electrode in the orientation columns of v1 we see…

A

a change in orientation based on flow of charge

103
Q

orientation columns are responsible for…

A

analyzing the shape of an object

104
Q

occular dominance columns are responsible for…

A

3D vision and depth perception (its where the info from both eyes joins)

105
Q

the dorsal stream of vision is located in the parietal lobe and functions to…

A

analyze motion

106
Q

the ventral stream of vision is in the temporal lobe and…

A

analyzes objects

107
Q

the inferior temporal lobe functions…

A

in facial recognition

108
Q

the right side of the brain is active when…

A

looking at faces

109
Q

prosopagnosia is…

A

face blindness, inability to recognize faces

110
Q

the eeg of non rem sleep is…

A

high amplitude and low frequency

111
Q

dreams are rare during ___ but they can occur

A

non rem sleep

112
Q

muscles aren’t paralyzed during non rem sleep but…

A

the brain rarely tries to move (the motor cortex is mostly inactive)

113
Q

during non rem sleep the brain…

A

truly rests because there is decreased energy usage

114
Q

sleep walking occurs during…

A

non rem sleep

115
Q

the eeg of rem sleep…

A

has high frequency and low amplitude; looks similar to an awake eeg

116
Q

90-95% of people report dreams when…

A

they wake up during rem sleep

117
Q

during rem sleep the motor cortex…

A

is active and will try to move the body but muscles are paralyzed so motion rarely happens

118
Q

all muscles are paralyzed during rem sleep besides…

A

eye muscles and those for breathing

119
Q

rem sleep behavior disorder is when…

A

muscles are not paralyzed and the person acts out their dreams

120
Q

the active-synthesis hypothesis states….

A

the reason for dreaming is that there is random activity of neurons in the pons (brain stem) activates cortical areas (vision, auditory, emotional areas, etc.) which then elicits images, memories, emotions, the frontal cortex then tries to synthesize everything into a story=dreams

121
Q

awake and rem sleep have _____ eeg

A

high frequency and low amplitude

122
Q

stage one non rem sleep is…

A

the lightest sleep/drowsiness

123
Q

stage 2 non rem sleep is…

A

light sleep

124
Q

stage 3 non rem sleep is…

A

moderate to deep sleep

125
Q

stage 4 non rem sleep is…

A

the deepest sleep aka delta sleep or slow wave sleep

126
Q

as you progress through the stages of non rem sleep…

A

frequency decreases and amplitude increases and more and more parts of the brain become active in synchrony

127
Q

_____ sleep is the most restful

A

stage 4 non rem

128
Q

stage 4 non rem sleep happens…

A

only 1 or 2 times and it occurs early on in sleep

129
Q

there is an average of 5…

A

rem episodes a night and they get longer as time goes on

130
Q

one sleep cycle lasts approximately…

A

90 minutes

131
Q

most rem sleep happens…

A

towards the morning

132
Q

the reticular activating system (RAS) is..

A

cells bodies in small clusters in the brain stem that regulate sleep

133
Q

the cell bodies of the RAS have…

A

axons that branch out and contact large numbers of post synaptic neurons (100,000s) and they regulate the excitablitiy of the postsynaptic neurons

134
Q

the RAS contains neurons that are susceptible to …

A

ACh, NE and 5HT

135
Q

in the sleeping cat experiment, when the RAS was stimulated with electricity….

A

the sleeping cat wakes up

136
Q

if you stimulate the thalamus of an awake cat with a low frequency of stimulus…

A

the cat falls asleep

137
Q

when awake, ACh, 5HT, and NE…

A

are all active

138
Q

when in non rem sleep, ACh, 5HT, and NE are…

A

all decreased/deactivated

139
Q

during rem sleep, ACH, 5HT and NE are…

A

ACH is active and the other two are inactive

140
Q

during sleep, thalamic neurons enter burst firing mode when…

A

the neurons are hyperpolarized from Ih current opening

141
Q

during sleep the cortex is disconnected from the outside world because…

A

even though the thalamus is functioning and sending signals to synchronize the cortex activity, it does not actually relay any sensory info to the cortex

142
Q

the thalamus regulates and synchronizes the cortex while sleeping which results in…

A

the low frequency waves seen in non rem sleep eeg

143
Q

while awake, thalamic neurons are depolarized by…

A

diffuse modulatory neurotransmitter neurons and a single spike is released instead of burst firing

144
Q

Ih current is…

A

from ion channels that hyperpolarize and bring the thalamus to threshold, allowing thalamatic neurons to fire bursts of 5-6 action potentials and they are permeable to Na and Ca

145
Q

the two sleep promoting factors are…

A

adenosine and melatonin

146
Q

adenosine builds up throughout the day as…

A

a by-product of neural activity, levels decrease during sleep

147
Q

diffuse modulatory neurotransmitter neurons include…

A

ACh, 5HT, and NE neurons

148
Q

diffuse modulatory neurotransmitter neurons have receptors for…

A

adenosine which then binds to the neurons and decreases their activity, bringing on sleep

149
Q

caffeine works by…

A

blocking the adenosine receptors on the diffuse modulatory neurotransmitter neurons so that adenosine cannot bind and bring on sleep

150
Q

melatonin is regulated by circadium rythums and…

A

is relased by the pineal gland, release is suppressed by light

151
Q

melatonin promotes sleep by…

A

inhibiting the RAS

152
Q

the wakefulness factor is…

A

orexin (aka hypocretin)

153
Q

orexin promotes wakefulness by…

A

stimulating the RAS

154
Q

orexin is released by…

A

orexin neurons whose cell bodies are located in the thalamus

155
Q

narcolepsy occurs from…

A

selective death of orexin neurons, believe to be autoimmune disease

156
Q

narcolepsy is often coupled with…

A

cataplexy which is sudden muscle paralysis

157
Q

narcolepsy is often brought on by…

A

strong emotions

158
Q

medications to treat the symptoms of narcolepsy are…

A

stimulants such as modafinil, amphetamines, antidepressants

159
Q

antidepressants act as stimulants by…

A

increasing serotonin and norepinerphrine levels, both of which are absent during rem sleep

160
Q

declarative memory control is in the…

A

hippocampus (medial temporal lobe)

161
Q

declarative memories include…

A

facts, events, anything that can be declared by language

162
Q

non declarative memories include…

A

skills, procedures, classical conditioning, skeletal musculature, emotional responses, associations

163
Q

emotional responses depend on the…

A

amygdala

164
Q

memories involving skeletal musculature require use of the…

A

cerebelum

165
Q

procedural memory (skills and habits) require use of the…

A

striatum

166
Q

HM had surgery in 1953 that removed…

A

his hippocampus bilaterally to prevent his severe life threatening seizures

167
Q

HM was a strange case because…

A

prior to surgery he was a normal man but after surgery he could no longer form new memories but his old memories were not lost. he could still form non declarative memories and ould hold conversations because his working memory still functioned

168
Q

the case of HM taught us that…

A

the hippocampus is necessary for forming new declarative memories and not necessary for forming new non declarative memories. the hippocampus is also not the site of long term memory storage

169
Q

working memory is…

A

the memory for storing temporary information such as a list of numbers. it is very limited in capacity of 5 to 9 digits at a time

170
Q

working memory depends on the…

A

prefrontal cortex

171
Q

the activity of the prefrontal cortex increases…

A

while waiting to perform the task stored in working memory. the activity drops right after the task is performed and the information is no longer needed

172
Q

memories are stored by…

A

both strengthening and weakening the synaptic connections

173
Q

AMPA and NMDA are both receptors that…

A

are modified during memory storage

174
Q

AMPA receptors are…

A

normally active for EPSPs, they are Na+ channels that when activated produce EPSP

175
Q

NMDA receptors conduct Ca2+ and are called…

A

coincidence detects because they only become open when both the pre synaptic and post synaptic terminals are active at the exact same time

176
Q

the pore of NMDA receptors is usually…

A

blocked by a Mg2+ molecule

177
Q

NMDA receptors are opened when…

A

the presynaptic cell released glutamate, depolarizing the post synaptic cell (makes more+) from Na+ influx from the AMPA receptor. When this happens the Mg2+ molecule is released from the pore.

178
Q

When there is strong depolarization of the post synaptic cell and Mg2+ is released from NMDA…

A

Ca2+ enters the post synaptic cell, resulting in inserting more or removing some AMPA receptors, causing for an increase or decrease in EPSP

179
Q

LTP (long term potentiation) is…

A

a large increase of Ca2+ in the postsynaptic cell, the insertion of AMPA making a larger EPSP and a strong synaptic connection

180
Q

LTD (long term depression) is…

A

when a modest influx of Ca2+ decreases the number of AMPA receptors, generating smaller EPSP and a weaker synaptic connection

181
Q

pavlov’s dog experiment worked by…

A

taking the normally inactive synapse of the ear axons on the salivation cell body and activating it by other stimulus. by having a very large response from the nose when food was present and the bell was rung, eventually LTP was induced so that the dog would salivate when only the bell was rung.

CNB (2 decks)

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