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Palmer Spinal Anatomy-GM > Final exam flash cards > Flashcards

Final exam flash cards

1
Q

what motion is particularly associated with lumbar spondylolysis?

A

hyper-extension coupled with rotation

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2
Q

what fills the space in a lumbar spondylolysis?

A

fibrocartilagenous material

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3
Q

what name has been given to the material filling the space in a lumbar spondylolysis?

A

spondylolysis ligament

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4
Q

what types of neural functions have been associated with the spondylolysis ligament?

A

nociception, neuromodulation and autonomic function

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5
Q

what is the appearance of the lumbar vertebra upon oblique xray view?

A

a Scotty dog

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6
Q

what is the appearance of a pars defect in a lumbar vertebra upon oblique xray view?

A

a collared Scotty dog

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7
Q

what is the appearance of a spondylolysis in a lumbar vertebra upon oblique xray view?

A

a collared scotty dog

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8
Q

in an oblique xray, spondylolysis below the superior articular process of a lumbar pars interarticularis is associated with what part of the scotty dog?

A

the neck of the scotty dog

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9
Q

what part of a lumbar vertebra forms the eye of a scotty dog?

A

the pedicle

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10
Q

what part of a lumbar vertebra forms the ear of a Scotty dog?

A

the superior articular process

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11
Q

what part of a lumbar vertebra forms the nose of a Scotty dog?

A

the transverse process

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12
Q

what is the incidence of sacral spondylolysis in the general population?

A

it is rare

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13
Q

what ethnic group is associated with a high incidence of sacral spondylolysis?

A

the native Alaskan (inuit) population

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14
Q

is sacral spondylolysis the result of congential conditions, acquired conditions or an age related condition?

A

it seems to be aquired

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15
Q

what activities are associated with sacral spondylolysis?

A

kayaking and harpooning

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16
Q

what is the ethnic, gender, and locational bia associated with sacral spondylolysis?

A

the native alaskan male at the S1 level

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17
Q

what is the definition of spondylolisthesis?

A

a vertebral slippage

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18
Q

what vertebral condition results in spondylolisthesis?

A

bilateral spondylolysis

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19
Q

what is the direction of spondylolisthesis?

A

anterior or forward displacement

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20
Q

what is the posterior direction of vertebral slippage called?

A

retrospondylolisthesis or retrolisthesis

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21
Q

identiy all names given to type 1 spondylolisthesis?

A

dysplastic spondylolisthesis, congenital spondylolisthesis

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22
Q

what is the locational bias of type 1 spondylolisthesis?

A

L5 or upper sacral segments

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23
Q

what is the location of the defect associated with type 1 spondylolisthesis?

A

more frequently the vertebral arch

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24
Q

what additional conditions are linked to type 1 spondylolisthesis?

A

spina bifida occulta and nerve root compression of the S1 nerve

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25
Q

identify all the names given to type II spondylolisthesis?

A

isthmic spondylolisthesis

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26
Q

which subtype of type II spondylolisthesis is stressed in Spinal II?

A

lytic spondylolisthesis or stress fracture induced spondylolisthesis

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27
Q

what is the cause most frequently given for type II spondylolisthesis?

A

microfractures as the result of repetitive stress during hyperflexion and rotation

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28
Q

what is the age group typically associated with type II spondylolisthesis?

A

teenagers or young adults

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29
Q

will spondylolisthesis always result in type II spondylolisthesis?

A

no, particularly in cases of unilateral spondylolysis

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30
Q

what spinal canal dimensions are associated with type II spondylolisthesis?

A

isthmic spondylolisthesis demonstrates an increase in sagittal diameter of spinal canal

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31
Q

what is the gender bias and locational bias associated with type II spondylolisthesis?

A

isthmic spondylolisthesis is common in men at the L5/S1 level

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32
Q

what conditions are often associated with type III spondylolisthesis?

A

degenerative spondylolisthesis is often associated with osteoarthritis, intervertebral disc degeneration, ligament laxity and articular facet remodeling

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33
Q

what is the gender bias, locational bias, and spinal canal dimension changes often associated with type III spondylolisthesis?

A

degenerative spondylolisthesis is more common in women, particularly at L4/L5, and demonstrates no change in sagittal diameter of the spinal cord

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34
Q

identify all names given to type IV spondylolisthesis?

A

traumatic spondylolisthesis

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35
Q

what causes type IV spondylolisthesis?

A

fracture of the neural arch components

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36
Q

is there a gender, locational, or age bias associated with type IV spondylolisthesis?

A

no

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37
Q

identify all the names given to type V spondylolisthesis?

A

pathologic spondylolisthesis

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38
Q

what are the causes associated with type V spondylolisthesis?

A

bone diseases such as Paget disease or osteogenesis imperfecta

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39
Q

what determines the length of intervertebral foramen?

A

the width of the pedicle

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40
Q

what may extend the length of the intervertebral foramen?

A

the TVP, muscles or ligaments

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41
Q

what forms the superior boundary for the typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the inferior vertebral notch of the pedicle above

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42
Q

what is the average height of the intervertebral foramen?

A

about 13mm

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43
Q

what percent of total vertebral column length does “true” intervertebral foramina height from C2 to S1 equal?

A

About 40%

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44
Q

what percent of total vertebral column length does all intervertebral foramina height from occiput Co1 equal?

A

53%

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45
Q

what are the generic contents of the intervertebral foramen?

A

neural tissue, connective tissue, vascular tissue, lymphatic tissue

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46
Q

what is the percent of neural tissue in the IVF?

A

from 8 to 50%

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47
Q

what are the characteristics of the Artery of Adamkiewicz?

A

it is a left side, anterior medullary feeder artery, located in the T9/T10 IVF, and the primary vascular supply to the lumbar enlargement

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48
Q

what is the most likely region of the thoracic spine for herniation?

A

below T8

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49
Q

what will the Intervertebral veins drain into?

A

the external vertebral venous plexus or Batson’s plexus

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50
Q

what is a unique histological feature of the veins of the vertebral column?

A

they appear to lack valves

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51
Q

what size of lymphatic vessels lie in the IVF?

A

medium sized lymphatics

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52
Q

what type of connective tissue will be present in the IVF?

A

adipose tissue and loose alveolar connective tissue

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53
Q

what is the relationship of cervical IVF height to nerve root size?

A

the height increases but the nerve root size stays about the same from cranial to caudal

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54
Q

what parts of the cervical vertebra will modify the IVF?

A

the lateral groove and uncinate processes

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55
Q

what is the relationship between aging and cervical spine nerve root characteristics?

A

the length of the nerve root increases as it descends fro its apparent origin on the spinal cord, but the cross-sectional area of the nerve root decreases

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56
Q

what are the specific attachment sites for a cervical spinal nerve?

A

the sulcus for the ventral primary ramus on the costotransverse bar and the vertebral artery

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57
Q

what contributes to the anterior boundary of the thoracic IVF?

A

the costocentral joint

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58
Q

what is the amount of contribution of the IVD to the height of the lumbar IVF?

A

about half

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59
Q

which are the largest spinal nerves?

A

L5 and S1 spinal nerves

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60
Q

what increases the length of the IVF at L5

A

the lumbosacral tunnel

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61
Q

what forms the lumbosacral tunnel?

A

the lumbosacral ligament, transverse process of L5 and sacral ala

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62
Q

what condition is the result of encroachment on the L5 spinal nerve?

A

the far out syndrome

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63
Q

what ligaments may contribute to the loss of size in the lumbar IVF?

A

the transforaminal ligament and the corporotransverse ligament

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64
Q

what is unusual about the sacral IVF compared to other IVF?

A

a completely osseous boundary exists

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65
Q

what is more likely the cause of nerve irritation at the sacral IVF?

A

the tilt or position of the entire sacrum relative to the pelvis

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66
Q

what is unique about the relationship of spinal nerve to IVF at S5-Co1?

A

there are two nerves present, S5 nerve and Co1 nerve

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67
Q

what are some examples of destructive lesions of vertebral body?

A

tuberculosis, hemangiomas, osteoporosis

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68
Q

what may reduce the impact of IVD loss of integrity on the IVF in cervical and thoracic spine?

A

the joint of Lushka in the cervicals, the costocentral joint in the thoracics

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69
Q

what are examples of osteophyte formation that influence the IVF?

A

the bony spurs of the vertebral body and para-articular processes on the lamina

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70
Q

what are examples of acquired alterations of the spinal curves identified in class?

A

obesity, pregnancy and the use of heavy backpacks

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71
Q

what is the recommended weight of a backpack compared to individual weight for the developing spine?

A

backpack weight should not exceed 10% individual body weight

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72
Q

what are the curvatures of the vertebral column?

A

anterior, posterior, and lateral

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73
Q

what is the direction of the primary curve of the vertebral column?

A

posterior

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74
Q

why is the posterior curve also called the primary curve?

A

it is the first curve to appear embryologically

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75
Q

what are the adult remnants of the primary curve along the vertebral column

A

the thoracic or dorsal curve and the pelvic or sacrococcygeal curve

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76
Q

what are the names given to curves that form during development to reverse the direction of regions along the vertebral column

A

anterior curve, secondary curve, compensatory curve

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77
Q

what are the names of the anterior curves, secondary curves, and compensatory curves?

A

cervical curve and lumbar curve

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78
Q

what segmental levels form the cervical curve

A

C2-T1

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79
Q

what segmental levels form the lumbar curve?

A

T12 to L5

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80
Q

what is the earliest time of appearance of the cervical curve?

A

the third fetal month

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81
Q

what is the traditional time of appearance of the cervical curve said to be?

A

during the last timester in utero

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82
Q

what is the time during which the “adult” cervical curve is said to appear

A

within the first year after birth

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83
Q

what development events are indicated in the formation of the adult cervical curve?

A
  1. centers for vision and equilibrium will appear in the brain
  2. musculature attaching the skull, cervical region, and upper thorax together develops
  3. the head is held upright
  4. the IVD height becomes greater anterior than posterior
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84
Q

at what age will the infant begin to hold the head erect?

A

usually between the third and fourth month after birth

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85
Q

what is the name given to the integration of visual and motor pathways associated with holding the head erect?

A

the righting reflex

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86
Q

what is the location for the apex of the cervical curve?

A

typically between C4 and C5

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87
Q

what is the location for the cervical kyphosis?

A

between occiput and C1

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88
Q

what is the name given to the primary cervical curve?

A

cervical kyphosis

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89
Q

what is the vertebral relationship between the cervical curve and the cervical enlargement?

A

cervical curve C2-T1; cervical enlargement C3-T1

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90
Q

what is the time of appearance of the lumbar curve?

A

between 12 to 18 months after birth

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91
Q

what infant activities are associated with the developmental of the lumbar curve?

A

crawling and walking

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92
Q

what developmental events are indicated in the formation of the adult lumbar curve?

A
  1. crawling will cause the abdomen to put tension on the lumbar region and pulls it forward
  2. muscle development is promoted to compensate for the swayback of the lumbars
  3. IVD height will become greater anterior compared to posterior
  4. walking in further promote muscle and IVD development
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93
Q

what its within the IVD to facilitate the lumbar curve development?

A

the nucleus pulposus of L4 will shift its position within the annulus fibrosis

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94
Q

which sense is a requirement for holding the head erect, standing, sitting, and walking?

A

vision

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95
Q

what is the gender bias associated with lumbar curve convexity?

A

females have a greater convexity of the lumbar curve

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96
Q

what is the vertebral relationship between the lumbar curve and the lumbar enlargement?

A

lumbar curve T12-L5; lumbar enlargement T9-T12

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97
Q

what is the formation of the lateral curve often correlated with?

A

faster development of the muscles on the side of handedness

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98
Q

what is the time of appearance of the lateral curves

A

they appear after 6 years old

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99
Q

what location of lateral curves are recognized?

A

cervical, thoracic or dorsal, and lumbar

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100
Q

which lateral curves are best developed

A

thoracic or dorsal, and lumbar

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101
Q

what is the relationship between curve direction and handedness?

A

a right handed person has a high probability for a right thoracic, left lumbar curve combination

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102
Q

what is the incidence of a right thoracic, left lumbar curve combination in the population

A

about 80% of the population demonstrates this

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103
Q

what does the suffix “osis” mean?

A

a condition

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104
Q

does osis infer a normal or an abnormal condition

A

neither, it is non-judgmental

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105
Q

what generic names identified abnormal curves of the vertebral column?

A

lordosis, kyphosis, scoliosis

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106
Q

what is the definition of lordosis

A

a forward bending condition

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107
Q

what is the definition of kyphosis

A

a humpback or hunchback condition

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108
Q

what is the definition of scoliosis

A

a warped or crooked condition

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109
Q

what is the direction of the curve deviation in lordosis?

A

to the anterior

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110
Q

what is the direction of the curve deviation in kyphosis

A

to the posterior

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111
Q

what is the direction of the curve devitation in scoliosis

A

to the side (it is a lateral curve deviation)

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112
Q

is there a locational bias for the classic definition of lordosis?

A

no, there would be an increase in the anterior direction in the cervical spine, a decrease in the posterior direction in the thoracic spine, an increase in the anterior direction in the lumbar spine and a decrease in the posterior direction in the pelvic or sacrococcygeal region

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113
Q

is there a locational bias for the classic definition of kyphosis?

A

no, there would be a decrease in the anterior direction in the cervical spine, and increase in the posterior direction in the thoracic spine, a decrease in the anterior direction in the lumbar spine, and an increase in the posterior direction in the pelvic or sacrococcygeal region

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114
Q

what clinical abnormal curvatures of the vertebral column were stressed in class

A

military neck, humpback/hunchback, and swayback

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115
Q

what is military neck

A

a decreased anterior curve in the cervical region, a straight neck

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116
Q

what is humpback or hunchback

A

an increased posterior curve in the thoracic region

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117
Q

what is swayback

A

an increased anterior curve in the lumbar region

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118
Q

what is classic classification of military neck

A

kyphosis

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119
Q

what is classic classification of humpback or hunchback

A

a kyphosis

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120
Q

what is classic classification of swayback

A

lordosis

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121
Q

what does the use of the term lordotic try to imply

A

a normal cervical and normal lumbar anterior curve

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122
Q

what does the use of the term kyphotic try to imply

A

a normal thoracic or dorsal and normal pelvic or sacrococcygeal posterior curve

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123
Q

what prefixes are used to convey abnormality in curve patterns

A

hyper and hypo

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124
Q

what does the term hyperlordotic infer

A

an increase in the anerior curve of the cervical or lumbar region

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125
Q

what does the term hypolordotic infer

A

a decrease in the anterior curve of the cervical or lumbar region

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126
Q

what does the term hyperkyphotic infer

A

an increase in the posterior curve of the thoracic/dorasal or pelvic/sacrococcygeal region

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127
Q

what does the term hypokyphotic infer

A

a decrease in the posterior curve of the thoracic/dorsal or pelvic/sacrococcygeal region

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128
Q

what are the curve classifications for military neck

A

a kyphosis or hypolordotic curve

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129
Q

what are the curve classifications for humpback or hunchback

A

a kyphosis or hyperkyphotic curve

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130
Q

what are the curve classifications for swayback

A

a lordosis or hyperlordotic curve

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131
Q

what is the more complete, accepted definition of scoliosis

A

an abnormal lateral curve coupled with axial rotation

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132
Q

what is the radiological test for skeletal maturity

A

the Risser sign, an indication of bone maturity in the iliac apophysis

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133
Q

what are the classifications of scoliosis according to the scoliosis research society

A

magnitude, location, direction, etiology, structural scoliosis and nonstructural scoliosis

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134
Q

what does magnitude of scoliosis refer to?

A

the length and angle of the curve deviation on xray

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135
Q

what is often used to measure the magnitude of scoliosis

A

the cobb method

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136
Q

what does the location of scoliosis infer

A

the location of the vertebral segment forming the apex of the curve deviation

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137
Q

what does the direction of scoliosis refer to

A

the side the convexity of the curve will bend toward

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138
Q

what does etiology of scoliosis mean

A

the cause of the scoliosis

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139
Q

what is structural scoliosis

A

a more radical form of scoliosis, it may worsen, associated with structural deformities of the vertebra or IVD, frequently has a fixed angle of trunk rotation

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140
Q

what is nonstructural scoliosis?

A

a mild form of scoliosis, unlikely to worsen, not associated with structural deformities of the vertebra or IVD and lacks a fixed angle of trunk rotation

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141
Q

what is the classification of scoliosis that is unique to the individual patient?

A

idiopathic scoliosis

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142
Q

what does idiopathic scoliosis infer?

A

the scoliosis is unique to the individual, it has no known cause, unknown etiology

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143
Q

what is the incidence of idiopathic scoliosis in the population

A

1% to 4% of the population

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144
Q

based on age of onset, what are the types of idiopathic scoliosis

A

infantile, juvenile, and adolescent

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145
Q

waht is the age range for infantile idiopathic scoliosis

A

from birth to 3 years old

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146
Q

what is the age range for juvenile idiopathic scoliosis

A

from 3 years old to 10 years old

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147
Q

what is the age range for adolescent idiopathic scoliosis

A

over 10 years

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148
Q

identify curve direction, location, gender bias and incidence of infantile idiopathic scoliosis

A

left thoracic, male, less than 1% incidence

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149
Q

identify curve direction, location, gender bias and incidence of juvenile idiopathic scoliosis

A

right thoracic, females over 6 years old, and 12% - 21% incidence

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150
Q

identify curve direction, location, gender bias and incidence of adolescent idiopathic scoliosis

A

right thoracic or right thoracic and left lumbar, females, and 80% incidence

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151
Q

what is the genetic factor associated with adolescent idiopathic scoliosis

A

an autosomal dominant factor that runs in families

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152
Q

what is the relationship between curve deviation, incidence, and curve worsening?

A

the greater the deviation, the lower the incidence, and the more likely to worsen

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153
Q

what is the name given to segments that lie in the transition zones of the vertebral column

A

transition vertebrae

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154
Q

what are the transition zones of the vertebral column

A

occitiocervical, cervicothoracic, thoracolumbar, lumbosacral, and sacrococcygeal zones

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155
Q

how are specific segments within a transition zone identified

A

by adjacent region of the segment, process of transition, and specific segment (occipitalization of C1)

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156
Q

what doe the suffix “ization” refer to

A

in the process of becoming like

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157
Q

what are the possible transition zone - segmental combinations

A

cervicalization of occiput, occipitalization of C1, dorsalization of C7, cervicalization of T1, lumbarization of T12, dorsalization of L1, sacralization of L5, lumbarization of S1, coccygealization of S5, sacralization of Co1

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158
Q

what is/are the characteristic of cervicalization of occiput

A

an increase in occipital bone size, formation of new or larger lines on the occipital bone,

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159
Q

what is/are the characteristics of occipitalization of C1

A

the atlas may be partially or completely fused to the occiput

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160
Q

what is another way of implying occipitilization of C1

A

atlas assimilation

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161
Q

what is the incidence of occipitalization of C1

A

0.1 - 0.8%

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162
Q

when do the centers of ossification for the odontoid process first appear?

A

during the last trimester in utero

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163
Q

when do the bilateral ossification centers for the odontoid process fuse

A

at or shortly after birth

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164
Q

what joint forms between the odontoid process ossification centers and the centrum of C2

A

the subdental synchondrosis

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165
Q

what joint classification is present between the C2 odontoid process and centrum

A

amphiarthrosis synchondrosis

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166
Q

ossification between the odontoid process and centrum joint of C2 appears at what age

A

4 years old

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167
Q

a joint between the odontoid process and centrum of C2 is las identified at what age

A

7 years old

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168
Q

what is the name given to the condition in which the joint formed between the odontoid process and centrum of C2 persists beyond age 7

A

os odontoideum

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169
Q

what is an os odontoideum

A

a persistence beyond age 7 of the joint formed between the centrum and odontoid process centers of ossification

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170
Q

what is the name given to the joint between the odontoid process and centrum of C2 which is still evident beyond age 7

A

persistent subdental synchondrosis

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171
Q

what is the name given to the joint formd between the tip of the dens and the odontid process centers of ossifications

A

tip of the dens synchondrosis

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172
Q

what is the classification of the joint formed between the tip of the dens and odontoid process centers of ossifications

A

amphiarthrosis synchondrosis

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173
Q

at what age will the tip of the dens center ossification appear

A

sometime in early adolescence

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174
Q

based on the age of appearance, how is the tip of the dens center of ossification classified

A

secondary center of ossification

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175
Q

at what age will the tip of the dens fuse with odontoid process

A

before age 12

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176
Q

if the joint formed between the tip of dens and odontoid process centers of ossification persists beyond age 12 what is the condition called

A

terminal ossicle

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177
Q

what is a basilar impression

A

persistence of the nonunion of the basilar and condylar parts of the chondrocranium such that the cartilage deforms due to the weight of the brain

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178
Q

what is a basilar invagination

A

the upper cervical spine appears to be invaginated into the skull on xray analysis

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179
Q

what is the incidence of rib related changes following dorsalization of C7

A

from one half to two and one half percent of the population

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180
Q

do patients typically present with symptoms specific for dorsalization of C7

A

no, they are typically asymptomatic

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181
Q

what is the gender bias suggested in dorsaliztion of C7

A

female

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182
Q

what alteration in C7 facet orientation may accompany dorsalization

A

the superior articular face of C7 may change from back, upward, and medial to that of a typical thoracic facet… backupward and lateral; the inferior articular facet is unchaged

183
Q

that alteration in C6 facet orientation may accompany dorsalization

A

c6 demonstrates a change in infereor articular facet orientation from forward lateral downward to forward medial and downward; the superior articular facet unchaged

184
Q

what percent of the population may demonstrate thoracici like features at c7

A

up to 46%

185
Q

what rib related changes may accompany cervicalization of t1

A

the first rib may decrease in mean relative length or become absent

186
Q

what will result from fusion of a short rib to the t1 TVP

A

the transverse foramen

187
Q

what t1 facet orientation changes may accompany cervicalization

A

the superior articular facet may change from BUL to BUM; the inferior articular facet is unchanged

188
Q

what c7 facet orientation changes may accompany cervicalization

A

the inf. articular facet may change from FMD to FoLD; the superior articular facet is unchanged

189
Q

what is the incidences of cervicalization of t1 in the population

A

up to 28% of the population

190
Q

what rib related changes may accompany dorsalization of L1

A

elongated bones shaped like ribs may appear

191
Q

what is the incidence of lumbar ribs in the population

A

over 7% of the population demonstrates lumbar ribs

192
Q

what L1 facet orientation changes may accompany dorsalization

A

the sup articular facet may change from concave BUM to flat BUL; the inf articular facet is unchanged

193
Q

what T12 facet orientation changes may accompany dorsalization

A

the inf art facet may change from convex FLD to flat FMD; the sup art facet is unchanged

194
Q

what is the gender bia associated with dorsalization of L1

A

males are two to three times affected

195
Q

what rib related changes may accompany lumbarization of T12

A

a significant shortening of the mean relative lengt of 113 mm of the 12th rib or it becomes absent

196
Q

what t12 facet orientation changes may accompany lumbarization

A

the sup art facet may change from flat BUL to concave BUM; the inf art facet is unchaged

197
Q

what t11 facet orientation changes may accompany lumbarization

A

the inf art facet may change from flat FMD to convex FLD; the sup art facet is unchagned

198
Q

what is characteristic of lumbarization of S1

A

the failure of synostosis between S1 and S2, squaring the VB of S1 and flaring of the sacral ala

199
Q

what unique characteristic s of lumbarization of S1 were stressed in class

A

squaring of the VB of S1 and flaring of the sacral ala

200
Q

what is failure of synostosis between S1 and S2

A

the segments do not completely fuse together

201
Q

what art facet changes accompany lumbarization of S1

A

none

202
Q

what is characteristic of sacralization of L5

A

L5 may be partially or completely fused to the sacrum

203
Q

what is the incidence of sacralization of L5 in the population

A

41 to 85%

204
Q

which segment demonstrates the greatest mophological variation along the spine

A

L5

205
Q

what articular facet changes accompany sacralization of L5

A

none

206
Q

what is the incidence of variation within the sacrococcygeal region in the population

A

up to 14%

207
Q

what is the characteristic of sacralization of Co1

A

the premature fusion of co1 to the sacrum

208
Q

what is characteristic of coccygealization of S5

A

the separation of S5 from sacrum and its premature fusion to Co1

209
Q

what forms the spinal accessory nerve innervation the trapezius

A

C1-C5 cord levels contribute to the spinal root of the spinal accessory nerve

210
Q

what forms the thoracodorsal nerve innnervation the lat dorsi

A

ventral rami from c6-c8

211
Q

what forms the dorsal scapular nerve

A

the ventral ramus of c5

212
Q

An increase in the density of muscle spindles is most apparent in which suboccipital muscle

A

Obliquus capitis inferior

213
Q

What is the result of communication between suboccipital muscle, visual centers and vestibular centers

A

Coordination of head and eye

position

214
Q

WHat is the proposed function of the suboccipital muscle group

A

Postural stabilizers of the Atlanto-occipital and Atlanto-axial joints

215
Q

Which suboccipital muscles are known to attach to dura mater

A

Rectus capitis posterior major, rectus capitis posterior minor, obliquus capitis inferior

216
Q

Interspinalis is paired in which regions of the spine

A

Cervical and lumbar regions

217
Q

BAsed on the density of muscle spindles what is the proposed function of the interspinalis

A

Acts as a proprioceptive transducer in conjunction with intertransversarii to coordinate the smooth movement of the spine and to maintain appropriate posture

218
Q

Intertransversarii are paired in which regions of the spine

A

Cervical and lumbar regions

219
Q

WHat are the names of the parts of the intertransversarii in the lumbar spine

A

Medial belly, ant. Lateral And posterior lateral belly

220
Q

BAsed on the density of muscle spindles what is the proposed function of the intertransversarii

A

Acts as a proprioceptive transducer in conjunction with interspinalis to coordinate the smooth movement of the spine and to maintain appropriate posture

221
Q

what are the four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joints

A

articular or fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage and synovial fluid

222
Q

thickening of the fibrous capsul connective tissue will form the ___

A

capsular ligament

223
Q

what generic accessory ligaments may accompany and support the capsular ligament

A

intracapsular and extracapsular ligaments

224
Q

what are common characteristics of type 1 articular receptors

A

located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule, resemble ruffini endings, most numerous in cervical zygapophyses and they monitor the joint “at rest”

225
Q

what are the characteristics of type 2 articular receptors

A

located in deeper strata of the fibrous capsule, resemble pacinian corpuscles, most numerous in the cervical spine and monitor the joint during normal range of motion

226
Q

what are the characteristics of type 3 articular receptors

A

present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments, resemble Golgi tendon organs, not initially observed along the vertebral column and monitor extreme joint motion

227
Q

what is the function of type IV articular receptors

A

nociceptive, they monitor pain

228
Q

type IVa articular receptors would be present in what locations

A

fibrous capsule, articular fat pads or adventitia of blood vessels

229
Q

type IVb articular receptors are absent in what part of the synovial (diarthrosis) joint

A

accessory ligaments in general, dense in the posterior longitudinal ligament of the spine

230
Q

what are the three modifications of articular synovial mebrane

A
  1. synovial villi
  2. articular fat pads or haversian glands
    3synovial menisci and intra articular discs
231
Q

what is the generic function of modifications of articular synovial membrane

A

aid in spreading synovial fluid

232
Q

articular fat pads are most numerous in what location along the vertebral column

A

lumbar zygapophyses

233
Q

condensed fibrous connective tissue or fibrocartilage projections of the synovial membrane are called

A

synovial menisci or intra articular discs

234
Q

synovial menisci are a feature of what joint examples

A

femur-tibia articulation, cervical zygapophyses and lumbar zyga’s

235
Q

what are the specific functions of type A synovial cells

A

are phagocytic

236
Q

what is the specific function of type B synovial cells

A

secrete proteinaceous substances and hyaluronic acid

237
Q

what is the common function of type A and type B synovial cells

A

formation and absorption of synovial fluid

238
Q

what is the source of nutrition for articular cartilage

A

blood vessels in the synovial membrane, sinuses of the bone marrow cavity and synovial fluid itself

239
Q

what are the primary constituents of articular cartilage

A

water, cells, collagen type II fibers and a proteoglycan gel

240
Q

what is the primary function of bound gag’s in articular cartilage

A

form a network for water retention

241
Q

what is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties

A

cartilage can deform and returns to original volume rapidly, a time independent property

242
Q

what is implied when cartilage is said to have viscoelastic properties

A

cartilage can deform but returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent property

243
Q

what is the function of articular cartilage

A

to provide a wear resistant, low friction, easily lubricated surface for joint movement

244
Q

what are the properties of synovial fluid

A

it is yellow white, viscous, slightly alkaline and tastes salty

245
Q

synovial fluid consists of what specific chemical groups

A

fats, salts, albumins, hyaluronate

246
Q

which substance in synovial fluid was first thougt to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior

A

hyaluronate

247
Q

what substance of synovial fluid has been proposed to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior

A

lubricin

248
Q

what are the classifications of synovial joints (diarthroses) based on the number of articulating surfaces

A

simple and compound synovial joints

249
Q

what is a complex synovial joint (diarthrosis)

A

within the simple joint or the compound joint, the articulating surfaces surfaces are separated by an articular disc (intra articular disc) or meniscus

250
Q

identify the common ligaments of the vertebral column

A

the 9 column ligaments are the ALL, IVD, PLL, ligamentum flavum, capsular ligament, interspinous ligament, ligamentum nuchae, supraspinous ligament and intertransverse ligament

251
Q

what is the maximum number of common ligamnets identified with vertebral couple

A

8

252
Q

what is the reason that nine common ligaments are identifiied but only eight will be attached at any specific vertebral couple

A

the ligamentum nuchae and supraspinous ligaments attach to the spinous tubercles, but only one of these will be identified at a single vertebral column

253
Q

what is the number of true IVD identified in the adult

A

23

254
Q

in the adult which vertebral levels will demonstrate a true IVD

A

those between C2 and S1 inclusive

255
Q

what percent of the vertebral column length is contributed by the IVD

A

20-25%

256
Q

what is the length of the IVD constribution to the vertebral column length

A

about 7 inches

257
Q

what is the percent of IVD height contribution to the length of each region of the vertebral column

A

cervical…22-25%, thoracic…20%, lumbar…33%

258
Q

what is the cervical nucleus pulposus composed of

A

fibrocartilage

259
Q

what is the water concentration in the lumbar nucleus pulposus at birth and after thirty

A

birth…88%, thirty…70%

260
Q

what cell is associated with the nucleus pulpos usuntil about age 11

A

notochord cells

261
Q

what cells are associated with mature nucleus pulposus

A

reticulocyte-fibrocblast and chondroblast

262
Q

which type of collagen is dominant in the nucleus pulposus

A

collagen type II

263
Q

what is the organizational pattern for collagen fibers in the nucleus pulposus

A

they are irregularly oriented and randomly scattered

264
Q

what is unusual about the cervical annulus fibrosus

A

it lacks any lamellar or layered organization

265
Q

what is the appearance of the cervical annulus fibrosus

A

a horse shoe with the anterior margin thick and lateral margins tapering to the uncinate processes, the posterior margin is thin

266
Q

what compensates for the thinness of the posterior part of the cervical annulus fibrosus

A

PLL

267
Q

what is the organization of the lumbar annulus fibrosus

A

it has 12-14 concentric cylindrical lamellae

268
Q

what is the water concentration in the lumbar annulus fibrosus at birth and after thirty

A

birth = 78%, thirty = 70%

269
Q

which type of collagen is dominant in the anulus fibrosus

A

collagen type I

270
Q

what is the organizational pattern for collagen fibers in the annulus fibrosus

A

they are parallel with one another in a single lamellus and angled

271
Q

what is the organization of collagen fibers between lamellae

A

collagen fibers will be angled in the opposite direction such that a spiral/counter-spiral organization is observed

272
Q

what is the average angle of collagen fibers within the annulus fibrosus

A

they average 50 to 60 degrees

273
Q

what is the thickest part of the cartilage end plate

A

around the periphery

274
Q

what is the principle type of collagen fiber within the cartilage endplate

A

the type II collagen fiber

275
Q

what is the direction of collagen fibers within the cartilage end plate

A

collagen fibers are aligned anterior to posterior

276
Q

what is the attachment site for collagen fibers of the inner lamellae of the annulus fibrosus

A

the cartilaginous end plate

277
Q

what part of the IVD is innervated

A

the outer lamellae of the annulus fibrosus

278
Q

what are the types of receptor endings in the IVD

A

nociceptors and proprioceptors

279
Q

what is the relationship between size of the IVD and receptor endings

A

the larger the disc, the greater the variety of receptor endings

280
Q

what is the proposed function of receptor ending density in the anterior part of the IVD

A

they provide feedback during extension

281
Q

what innervates the annulus fibrosus at the posterior part of the IVD

A

the recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve

282
Q

what innervates the annulus fibrosus at the anterior part of the IVD

A

the fibers from the ventral primary ramus

283
Q

what is the name given to the white ramus communicans which becomes embedded within the annulus fibrosus of the IVD

A

the paradiscal ramus communicans

284
Q

what vertebral levels will the ALL attach to

A

those between occiput and S3 inclusive are traditionally indicated

285
Q

what is the lowest extent of the ALL based on recent studies

A

L3

286
Q

what is the function of the ALL

A

it brakes or limits dorsi-flexion or hyperextension of the vertebral column

287
Q

what was ossification of the ALL in the lumbar region identified as

A

Forestier’s disease

288
Q

ALL ossification in the lumbar region is now identified as

A

diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperstosis or DISH

289
Q

what is the function of the ligamentum flavum

A

it brakes or limits flexion of the vertebral column

290
Q

what is now thought to be a major function of the ligamentum flavum

A

it is an early prime factor in extension of the vertebral column

291
Q

where is ossification of the ligamentum flavum most commonly identified

A

the thoracic spine or thoracolumbar transition zone

292
Q

what is the acronym for ossification of the ligamentum flavum

A

OLF

293
Q

what is the relationship between the capsular ligamnet and mobility

A

the more lax/loose the capsular ligament is, the greater the motion of the joint

294
Q

what regions of vertebral column demonstrate the greatest laxity of capsular ligaments

A

the cervical and lumbar regions

295
Q

the capsular ligament may blend with which other common ligament

A

the ligamentum flavum

296
Q

what muscle will blend with the capuslar ligament posteriorly

A

the multifidis

297
Q

if the zygapophyseal capsular ligament is not significantly involved in restricting motion what is its function

A

it is probably involved in proprioceptive feedback to the muscles stabilizing the vertebral couple during movement

298
Q

what vertebral levels will the interspinous ligament be attached to

A

those between C2 and S1 inclusive are traditionally indicated

299
Q

what is now thought to be a major function of the interspinous ligament

A

it is more likely a proprioceptive transducer for the spinal reflex

300
Q

what will the ligamentum nuchae be attached to

A

the EOP, EOC, posterior tubercle of the posterior arch of C1, and spinous tubercles between C2 and C7 inclusive are traditionally indicated

301
Q

what is the name given to the superficial layer of the ligamentum nuchae

A

the funicular layer or part

302
Q

what is the name given to the deep layer of the ligamentum nuchae

A

the lamellar layer or part

303
Q

what are the attachment sites for the superficial layer of the ligamentum nuchae

A

the EOP, EOC, and spinous tubercle of C7

304
Q

what is the histological makeup of the ligamentum nuchae in quadrupeds

A

it is a yellow elastic ligament

305
Q

what is the histological makeup of the human ligamentum nuchae

A

it is a yellow elastic ligament, but has more collagen fibers than in quadrupeds

306
Q

what is the primary yellow elastic or elastic ligament of the spine

A

the ligamentum flavum

307
Q

what is the classic function of the human ligamentum nuchae

A

it brakes or limits flextion of the cervical spine

308
Q

what will the supraspinous ligament be attached to

A

the spinous tubercles along the vertebral column from C7 to sacrum

309
Q

what is the termination level inferiorly for the supraspinous ligament according to current literature

A

primrily at L4 (73%); between L4 and L5 (5%)j

310
Q

where is the supraspinous ligament said to be best developed

A

in the lumbar spine

311
Q

what is now thought to be a major function of the supraspinous ligament

A

it is a proprioceptive transducer for the spinal reflex

312
Q

what will the intertransverse ligament be attached to

A

the transverse tubercles and TVP of adjacent vertebra along the vertebral column from C1 toL5

313
Q

what is the status of the cervical intertransverse ligament

A

it is said to be paried with an anterior and posterior intertransverse ligament present

314
Q

what is the status of the lumbar intertransverse ligament

A

it is well developed with two parts identified, a ventral slip and dorsal slip

315
Q

what part of the lumbar intertransverse ligament covers the intervertebral foramen

A

the ventral slip

316
Q

what part of the intertransverse ligament in the lumbar spine divides the body wall into an anterior muscular compartment and a posterior muscular compartment

A

the dorsal slip

317
Q

what are the characteristics of the capsular ligament of the antlanto-occipital ligament

A

it is said to be loose, thin, and composed of collagen fibers

318
Q

what other joint space does the atlanto occipital joint communicate with

A

the posterior bursa of the median atlanto axial joint

319
Q

what is the median thickening of the anterior atlanto occipital ligament called

A

the ALL

320
Q

which ribs are classified as typical ribs, true ribs, costa verae, and vertebrosternal ribs in the typical adult skeleton?

A

ribs 3-7

321
Q

which ribs are classified as atypical ribs, true ribs, costa verae and vertebrosternal ribs in the typical adult skeleton

A

ribs 1 and 2

322
Q

which ribs are classified as typical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae, and vertebrochoncal ribs in the typical adult skeleton

A

ribs 8 and 9

323
Q

which ribs are classified as atypical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae, and vertebrochoncal ribs in the typical adult skeleton

A

rib 10

324
Q

which ribs are classified as atypical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae and vertebral ribs in the typical adult skeleton

A

ribs 11 and 12

325
Q

what joint classification is now given to the joint between the sternum, clavicle, and first rib

A

synovial saddle (diarthrosis sellar) joint

326
Q

what ribs will participate in the sternocostal or sternochondral joint

A

rib 1 to 7

327
Q

what is the classic classification of the first sternocostal or sternochondral joint

A

cartilaginous (amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis

328
Q

what is the newer suggested classification of the first sternocostal or sternochondral joint

A

cartilaginous (amphiarthrosis) symphysis

329
Q

what is the classification of the second - seventh sternocostal or sternochondral joint

A

synovial plane (diathrosis arthrodia)

330
Q

what is the classification of the sixth through the ninth interchondral joints

A

synovial plane (diathrosis arthrodia)

331
Q

what is the classification of the fifth - sixth or ninth - tenth interchondral joints

A

fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis

332
Q

which costal cartilages fail to form a joint at their sternal end

A

the eleventh and 12th costal cartilages

333
Q

what is the name given to the segments of the sternum

A

sternabrae (for sternal bodies)

334
Q

how many primary centers of ossification appear in the manubrium

A

1-3 centers have been identified

335
Q

how many primary centers of ossifications appear in the corpus sterni

A

typically 6

336
Q

in what part of the sternum will a secondary center of ossification appear

A

the xiphoid process

337
Q

when does the xiphoid process first demonstrate a center of ossification

A

sometime during or after 3 years old

338
Q

in what part of the rib will primary centers of ossification appear

A

the body (corpus, shaft)

339
Q

in what parts of the rib will secondary centers of ossifications appear

A

the head, articular surface of the tubercle and the non articular surface of the tubercle

340
Q

which ribs will demonstrate primary centers of ossification for the body (corpus or shaft)

A

all ribs; ribs 1-12

341
Q

which ribs will demonstrate secondary centers of ossification

A

ribs 1-10

342
Q

which ribs lack secondary centers of ossifications

A

ribs 11-12

343
Q

what part of the skull is derived from endochondral ossification

A

chondrocranium

344
Q

which skull bones are ossified by both endochondral and intrammbranous ossification

A

mandible, sphenoid, temporal, and occipital bones

345
Q

whcih bone of the appendicular skeleton is formed by endochondal and intramembranous classification

A

the clavicle

346
Q

how many bones form the skull

A

28 including the auditory ossicles

347
Q

exluding the auditory ossicles how many bones form the skull

A

22

348
Q

what is the cranium

A

the skull minus the mandible

349
Q

how many bones form the cranium

A

27 bones

350
Q

what is the calvaria

A

the skullcap

351
Q

what is the neurocranium

A

the part of the skull that surrounds the brain

352
Q

how many bones form the neurocranium

A

8 bones

353
Q

what bones form the neurocranium

A

frontal, parietal, occipital, temporal, sphenoi, and ethmoid

354
Q

what is the facial skeleton

A

the bones that support the face

355
Q

what is the facial skeleton

A

the bones that support the face

356
Q

how many bones form the facial skeleton

A

14 bones

357
Q

what bones form the facial skeleton

A

mandible, vomer, nasal, maxilla, lacrimal, inf. nasal concha, palatine, and zygomatic

358
Q

what is another name for the facial skeleton

A

the viscerocranium

359
Q

what are the four subclassifications of synarthrosis joints based on latin groupings

A

suture, gomphosis, schindylesis and syndesmosis

360
Q

what are the characteristics of sutura vera (true sutures)

A

sutures demonstrating interlocking of the adjacent bone surfaces; typically formed by intramembranous ossification

361
Q

what are the characteristics of sutura notha (false suture)

A

sutures lacking interlocking of adjacent bone surfaces; typically formed by endochondral ossification

362
Q

what is the classification of a joint with a “nail like condition

A

gomphosis

363
Q

what is the classification of a joint with a “fissure-like” condition

A

schindylesis

364
Q

what is the anterior fontanelle

A

the diamond shaped remnant of developing membrane bone at the intersection of the frontal bone with both parietal bones

365
Q

what is the posterior fontanelle

A

the diamond shaped remnant of developing membrane bone at the intersection of the occipital bone with both parietal bones

366
Q

what is the name given to the indentation of bone between the nasal and frontal bones

A

nasion

367
Q

what is the name given to the outline of the nasal cavity at the front of the skull

A

piriform aperature

368
Q

what is the name given to the alveolar jugum of the canine tooth in the maxilla

A

canine eminence

369
Q

what forms a bullet like chin

A

a large mental protuberance

370
Q

what forms an indented chin

A

well developed bilateral mental tubercles and slight mental protuberance

371
Q

what is the tip of the EOP called

A

the inion

372
Q

what is the name of the linear elevation lateral to the EOP

A

superior nuchal line

373
Q

what points on the skull are used to measure the skull size

A

the nasion, vertex, inion, and gnathion

374
Q

what points on the skull measure cranial vault capacity

A

nasion, vertex, and inion

375
Q

what is the appearance of the suture intersections over the hard palate called

A

the cruciate/cruciform suture

376
Q

what is the posterior boundary of the anterior cranial fossa

A

a line drawn along the lesser wing of sphenoid , anterior clinoid processes, and sphenoidal jugum

377
Q

what passes through the cribriform plate

A

fila olfactoria of cranial nerve 1, the olfactory nerve

378
Q

an emissary vein leaves the anterior cranial fossa via what opening

A

foramen cecum

379
Q

what is the post boundary of the middle cranial fossa

A

superior border of petrous part of tympanic bone, posterior clinoid processes and dorsum sella of sphenoid bone

380
Q

what bony feature is prominent in the median plane of the middle cranial fossa

A

sella turcica

381
Q

what cranial nerves exit the skull via middle crania fossa ostia

A

CN 2-6

382
Q

what are the contents of the optic canal

A

the optic nerve and ophthalmic artery

383
Q

what are the contents of the superior orbital fissure

A

ophthalmic veins, oculomotor nerve, trochlear nerve, ophthalmic division of trigeminal nerve, and abducent nerve

384
Q

which single opening will allow the exit of the greatest number of cranial nerves

A

the sup orbital fissure

385
Q

what is unique about the ophthalmic artery and veins

A

they will not share the same opening, the artery is in the optic canal, and veins are in sup orbital fissure

386
Q

what are contents of foramen ovale

A

mandibular division trigeminal nerve (Vc) and lesser petrosal branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve

387
Q

the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve exits the middle cranial fossa via what opening

A

the foramen rotundum

388
Q

what opening allws a branch of cranial nerve Vc to enter the mid cranial fossa from the infratemporal region

A

the foramen spinosum

389
Q

which vessel is located within the foramen spinosum

A

middle meiningeal artery

390
Q

what forms the roof of the post cranial fossa

A

the tentorium cerebeli

391
Q

what part of the cerebrum occupies the post cranial fossa

A

none, the tentorium cerebelli separates the cerebrum into space above the post cranial fossa

392
Q

what part of the CNS occupies the post ranial foss

A

the cerebellum, pons, and medulla oblongata

393
Q

what bony feature is prominent in the median plane of the post cranial fossa

A

the clivus or basilar part of the occipital bone

394
Q

which cranial nerve exit post cranial fossa ostia

A

CN VII-XII

395
Q

what are the contents of the internal acoustic meatus

A

CN VII and VIII, the nervus intermedius/nerve of Wrisberg/sensory root of VII and motor root of VII, the vestibular and cochlear roots of VIII and internal auditory/internal labyrinth artery and vein

396
Q

what are the contents of the jugular foramen

A

the jugular bulb, inf. petrsal sinus, the tympanic body/tympanic glomus or jugular body/jugular glomus, CN IX-XI

397
Q

what is the jugular bulb

A

venous expansion between the sigmoid dural venous sinus and internal jugular vein

398
Q

what is the function of the jugular body/jugular glomus

A

a chemoreceptive organ that monitors hypoxia, hypercapnia, and increases the hydrogen ion

399
Q

what can the five layers of the scalp spell

A

skin, connective tissue, aponeurosis, loose connective tissue, periorsteum….SCALP

400
Q

what are the principal sources of blood to the scalp

A

internal carotid and external carotid artery branches

401
Q

what veins drain the scalp

A

superficial temporal, post. auricular, occipital, and ophthalmic veins

402
Q

which divisions of the trigeminal nerve receive sensory info from the scalp

A

all 3; ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular`

403
Q

what is the third layer of the scalp associated with

A

muscular component of the scalp

404
Q

what muscle are specifically associated with the scalp

A

frontalis and occipitalis bellies of the epicranius

405
Q

the bellies of the epicranius are connected by what

A

galea aponeurotica

406
Q

what specific nerves provid motor control to the scalp

A

facial nerve; post. auricular and temporal branches

407
Q

what is unusual about the muscles of the face

A

they don’t act as lever muscles, no origin or instertion on bone

408
Q

which muscle lack any attachement to bone

A

orbicularis oris, proceris, risorius

409
Q

what type of motor fibers to skeletal muscle are given off by facial nerve

A

branchial efferent (BE)

410
Q

what openings are located at the sup. wall of the orbit

A

optic canal

411
Q

what are the contents of optic canal

A

optic nerve and ophthalmic artery

412
Q

what is the name given to the medial wall of the orbit

A

lamina papyracea

413
Q

what features may be observed on medial wall of orbit

A

lacrimal groove, fossa for lacrimal sac, ant. ethmoid foramen and post.

414
Q

what opening are located along the lateral wall of orbit

A

sup. orbital fissure

415
Q

what are contents of sup. orbital fissure

A

oculomotor, trochlear and abducaent

CN ophthalmic division trigeminal CN and ophthalmic veins

416
Q

what openings are located along the inf. wall of orbit

A

inf. orbital fissure

417
Q

what is contained in inf. orbital fissure

A

maxillary division of trigeminal nerve

418
Q

identify the openings found along each wall of the orbit

A

superior: optic canal,
medial: ant./post. ethmoid foramina,
lateral: sup. orbital fissure,
inferior: inf. orbital fissure

419
Q

what are the layers of the eyelid

A

skin, orbicularis oculi muscle, tarsal plate/tarsus and palpebral conjunctiva

420
Q

what are the names given to the modified sebaceous gland in the tarsus of the eyelid

A

tarsal or Meibomian gland

421
Q

what is the function of the Meibomian gland

A

produces thick, hydrophobic substance that prevents tears from overflowing onto cheeks along the eyelid

422
Q

what is the name of the gland located at base of the eyelash

A

ciliary gland

423
Q

what are names give to the modified sebaceous glands of palpebra

A

tarsal or Meibomian gland or ciliary gland

424
Q

wht is the name given to the elevation at the medial canthus

A

lacrimal caruncle

425
Q

what is the name given to the opening of the lacrimal papilla

A

lacrimal punctum

426
Q

parasympathetic stimulation of blood vessels in the lacrimal gland will result in what events?

A

vasodilation, increased availability of water to secretory units, thinner or more watery product in lumen

427
Q

sympathetic fibers synapse in which ganglion in the pathway to the lacrimal gland

A

the superior cervical ganglion

428
Q

sympathetic stimulation of the lacrimal gland will result in what events

A

vasoconstriction of blood vessels, limited availability of water to secretory units, more viscous or thicker product formed in glandular lumen

429
Q

what are the names of layers of the eyeball

A

fibrous tunic, uveal tract and retina

430
Q

what are the parts of the fibrous tunic of eyeball

A

cornea and sclera

431
Q

what are the parts of the uveal tract of the eyeball

A

iris, ciliary body, choroid and pupil

432
Q

what muscles are present in the iris

A

scphincter pupillae and dilator pupillae

433
Q

what is the innervation of sphincter pupillae

A

oculomotor nerve, parasymp. pathway

434
Q

what iss the innervation of ciliaris muscle

A

oculomotor nerve, parasymp. pathway

435
Q

what is innervation of dilator pupillae

A

internal carotid artery plexus, symp. path

436
Q

what are chambers of the eyeball in front of the lens

A

anterior chamber and posterior chamber

437
Q

what separates the ant. from post. chamber in eyball

A

the iris

438
Q

what is contained in the ant. chamber of eyeball

A

aqueous humor

439
Q

what is the primary cause of glaucoma

A

excess aqueous humor in the chambers in front of the eyeball

440
Q

what is the name given to the chamber behind the lens

A

the vitreous chamber

441
Q

what fills the vitreous chamber

A

vitreous body

442
Q

what are the functions of the vitrous body

A

maintain retinal curvature, allow light distortion from lens to retina

443
Q

what are the common characteristics in origin and insertion of all rectus extraocular muscles

A

they all originate from common annular tendon in the orbit they all insert into the sclera in front of the coronal equator

444
Q

what is the common characteristic regarding the instertion of both oblique extraocular eye muscles

A

both insert onto sclera on the lateral margin of eyeball behind the coronal equator

445
Q

what are the two unique features of the fourth cranial nerve

A

it is the only cranial nerve with apparent origin from the brains dorsal surface; it is the only cranial efferent nerve to decussate within the midbrain from its nucleus

446
Q

intrinsic muscles of the eyeball are innervated by which visceral efferent pathways

A

ciliaris and sphincter pupillae are innervated by parasympathetics, dilator pupillae is innervated by sympathetics

447
Q

the auricule transmits sensory innervation via which specific cranial nerve branches

A

auriculotemporal nerve (mandibular division, trigeminal)posterior auricular cutaneous nerve (facial) auricular nerve (vagus)

448
Q

what part of the external acoustic meatus is protected by cartilage

A

lateral one third

449
Q

what pat of the external acoustic meatus is protected by bone

A

medial two thirds

450
Q

what is the cerumen

A

the product of ceruminous glands form the bulk of the earwax

451
Q

skin lining the external acoustic meatus contains what modified sebaceous gland

A

ceruminous glands

452
Q

what vein is formed within the parotid gland

A

retromandibular vein

453
Q

what branche of the facial nerve penetrates parotid gland, but is not given off within it

A

the chorda tympani nerve

454
Q

what forms the boundary of the infratemporal region

A

ramus of the mandible

Palmer Spinal Anatomy-GM (1 decks)

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