Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Hem/Onc Module > FINAL EXAM CUMULATIVE PORTION > Flashcards

FINAL EXAM CUMULATIVE PORTION Flashcards

1
Q

MOA of Alkylating Agents

A

Bind covalently to the DNA molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Alkylating Agents inhibit what phase of DNA Synthesis?

A

S Phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

List the Alkylating Agents

A
  1. Cyclophosphamide
  2. Ifosfamide
  3. Cisplatin
  4. Carboplatin
  5. Oxaliplatin
  6. Temozolmide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the MOA of Anthracyclines?

A

Intercalation + Topoisomerase II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

List the Anthracyclines

A

“RUBICIN”
1. Doxorubicin
2. Daunorubicin
3. Epirubicin
4. Idarubicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the MOA of Bleomycin?

A

DNA Strand Breaks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the MOA of Antimetabolites?

A

Block the biosynthesis or use of normal cellular metabolites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

List the Pyrimidine Analogues Antimetabolites

A
  1. 5-FU
  2. Gemcitabine
  3. Capcetiabine
  4. Azacitdine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

List the Purine Analogues Antimetabolites

A
  1. 6-MU
  2. Vidarabine
  3. Cladribine
  4. Fludarabine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the MOA of Vinca Alkaloids?

A

Arrest cell division by preventing the formation of mitotic spindle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

List the Vinca Alkaloids

A
  1. Vincristine
  2. Vinblastine
  3. Vinorelbine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the MOA to Etoposide?

A

Inhibit Topoisomerase II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the MOA of Tecans?

A

Inhibit Topoisomerase I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

List the Tecans

A
  1. Irinotecan
  2. Topotecan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the MOA of Taxenes?

A

Stabilize microtubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

List the Taxenes

A
  1. Paclitaxel
  2. Docetaxel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the MOA of Ixabepilone?

A

Microtubule Stabilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the MOA of Eribulin?

A

Binds and blocks plus ends of microtubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the MOA of Anti-Androgens?

A

Inhibit/degrade the androgen receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

List the Anti-Androgens

A

“TAMIDE”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the MOA of Anti-Estrogens?

A

Inhbit/degrade the estrogen receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

List the Anti-Estrogens

A
  1. Tamoxifen
  2. Fluvestrant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the MOA of Aromatase Inhibitors?

A

Block the rate-limiting step in estrogen synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

List the Aromatase Inhibitors

A

“OZOLE”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the MOA of Arsenic Trioxide?

A

Induces apoptosis through reactive oxygen species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the MOA of BCG Vaccine?

A

Enhances immune system to remove tumor cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the MOA of CDK4/6 Inhibitors?

A

Arrest cells in G1/S Phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

List the CDK4/6 Inhibitors

A

“CICLIB”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the MOA of PARP Inhibitors?

A

Block PARP DNA Repair Enzyme = DNA strand breaks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

List the PARP Inhibitors

A

“PARIB”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the MOA of Vitamin A Derivatives?

A

Induce tumor cell differentiation to become more mature, less malignant cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

List the Vitamin A Derivatives

A
  1. Tretinoin
  2. Bexarotene
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the MOA of Differentiating Agents?

A

Sonic Hedgehog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

List the Differentiating Agents

A

“DEGIB”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the MOA of Proteasome Inhibitors?

A

Block proteasome 26S and 20S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

List the Proteasome Inhibitors

A

“ZOMIB”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the MOA of Selinexor?

A

Blocks Exportin-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the MOA of Venetoclax?

A

Blocks BCL-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the MOA of Trastuzumab?

A

Blocks EGF binding to HER2/NEU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the MOA of Pertuzumab?

A

Blocks HER2/NEU Dimerization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the MOA of Lapatinib?

A

Blocks HER2/NEU Activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the MOA of EGFR-1 Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitors TKIs?

A

Block EGFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

List the EGFR TKIs

A
  1. Erlotinib
  2. Afatinib
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the MOA of Cetuximab?

A

Anti EGFR Monoclonal Antibody ONLY works on Wild Type KRAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the MOA of Imatinib?

A

Inhibit BCR Kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the MOA of Crizotinib?

A

Inhibits ALK Kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the MOA of Imbrutinib?

A

Inhibits Bruton tyrosine kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the target of Sotorasib and Asagrasib RAS?

A

Mutant KRAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the target of Vemurafenib and Dabrafenib RAF?

A

B-Raf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the target of Trametinib, Cobimetinib, Binimetinib MET?

A

MEK 1/2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the target of Idelisib, Copanlisib, Pelisib, and Umbrolisib LISIB?

A

PI-3 Kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the target of Everolimus and Temsirolimus LIMUS?

A

mTOR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the MOA of Midostaurin?

A

Smalle molecule inhibitor of multiple signaling kinases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the MOA of Bevacizumab?

A

Anti VEGF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the MOA of Pomalidomide and Lenalidomide OMIDE?

A

Blocks VEGF and bFGF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the MOA of Sorafenib and Sunitinib?

A

Blocks VEGFR2 and PDGFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the MOA of Ipilmumab?

A

CTLA4 Inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the MOA Pembrolizumab and Nivolumab?

A

PD1 Inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the target for Rituximab and Obunutuzumab?

A

CD20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the MOA of Blinatumomab?

A

BiTES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the target of Denileukin?

A

Interleukin 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the target of Intotuzumab?

A

CD22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the MOA of T-VEC?

A

Virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the MOA of Tisagenlecleucel LEUCEL?

A

CART

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Define Neutropenia

A

Neutrophils <1500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Define Normal Platelet Range

A

140,000-440,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Define Thrombocytopenia

A

<140,000 platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What decreases platelet PRODUCTION?

A

Chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What increases platelet DESTRUCTION?

A

Heparin and Penicllin

70
Q

What decreases platelet FUNCTION?

A

NSAIDs/ASA

71
Q

Substance P = ____ CINV

72
Q

Serotonin 5HT = ____ CINV

73
Q

Minimal Acute CINV give what?

A

No prophylaxis

74
Q

Low Acute CINV give what?

A

Dexamethasone

75
Q

Moderate Acute CINV give what?

A

3 Drug Regimen
1. 5HT3: Ondansetron
2. Dexamethasone
3. +/- NK Antagonist: Aprepitant/Fosaprepitant

76
Q

High Acute CINV give what?

A

3-4 Drug Regimen
1. 5HT3: Ondansetron
2. Dexamethasone
3. NK Antagonist: Aprepitant/Fosaprepitant
4. +/- Olanzapine (breakthrough/refractory CINV)

77
Q

Minimal/Low Delayed CINV give what?

A

No prophylaxis needed

78
Q

Moderate Delayed CINV give what?

A
  1. NK Aprepitant +/- Dexamethasone OR
  2. Dexamethasone alone OR
  3. 5HT3 alone
79
Q

High Delayed CINV give what?

A

Aprepitant + Dexamethasone +/- Olanzapine

80
Q

Low Emetic Agents use what?

A

NO NK1 antagonists
Use 1 agent

81
Q

Moderate Emetic Agents use what?

A
  1. 5HT3 + Dexamethasone +/- NK1 Antagonist OR
  2. Palonesetron + Dexamethasone + Olanzapine
82
Q

High Emetic Agents use what?

A

5HT3 + NK Antagonist + Dexamethasone +/- Olanzapine

83
Q

Define Palliative Care

A
  1. Begins at time of disease
  2. Provided over many years to all patients w/serious illness
  3. Specialist
84
Q

Define Hospice

A
  1. Begins after of treatment of disease is stopped
  2. ONLY for patients with lifespan <6 months
  3. Hospice Clinicians
85
Q

Define Hyperuricemia

A

Uric Acid >8

86
Q

Define Hyperkalemia

A

Potassium >6

87
Q

Define Hyperphosphatemia

A

Phosphorous >6.5

88
Q

Define Hypocalemia

A

Calcium <7

89
Q

Antihyperuricemic Agents are used in TLS, name the 2 agents.

A
  1. Allopurinol
  2. Rasburicase
90
Q

What is used to stabilize the heart in TLS?

A

Calcium Gluconate

91
Q

What happens in TLS?

A
  1. Hyperurecemia
  2. Hyperkalemia
  3. Hyperphosphatemia
  4. Hypocalcemia
92
Q

T/F: You can give Calcium Gluconate in symptomatic hypocalcemia.

93
Q

Decreased Calcium triggers PTH to what?

A

Increase calcium

94
Q

Increased PTH trigger Calcitriol to do what?

A

Increase calcium

95
Q

Increased calcium triggers Calcitonin to do what?

A

Decrease Calcium

96
Q

Formula for Corrected Calcium

A

Measured Calcium + [0.8 x (4-Albumin)]

97
Q

When do you treat Hypercalcemia?

A
  1. Moderate 12-13.9 corrected Ca with symptoms
  2. Severe >14 corrected Ca
98
Q

What are the symptoms of Hypercalcemia?

A
  1. Painful Bones
  2. Renal Stones
  3. Abdominal Groans
  4. Psychic Moans
99
Q

Treatment of Hypercalcemia

A
  1. Hydration
  2. Loops
  3. IV Bisphosphonate (moderate and up)
  4. Calcitonin (severe)
100
Q

Define Neutropenic Fever

A
  1. Single temp >38.3/101
  2. Temp >38/100.4 sustained over 1 hour
101
Q

Define Neutropenia

A
  1. ANC <500
  2. ANC <1000 and predicted to decline to <500 over next 48 hours
102
Q

Absolute Neutrophil Count ANC Formula

A

[(WBC) x (seg % + band %)] / 100

103
Q

What Gram Pos Bugs are a concern in Neutropenic Fevers?

A
  1. Staph Aur MRSA
  2. Strep Pneumo
104
Q

What Gram Neg Bugs are a concern in Neutropenic Fevers?

A

Pseudomonas Aeru

105
Q

What is outpatient therapy of Neutropenic Fever?

A

Cipro or Levo + Augmentin

106
Q

What is inpatient therapy of Neutropenic Fever?

A

Monotherapy Cefepime or Zosyn

107
Q

What is the preferred prophylaxis therapy for Antibacterial Neutropenic Fever?

A

Levofloxacin

108
Q

What is the most common DLT?

A

Myelosuppression

109
Q

What is the most common site of toxicity?

A

Bone Marrow

110
Q

What drugs do NOT cause Bone Marrow Toxicity?

A
  1. Bleomycin
  2. Vincristine
  3. Hormones
  4. Corticosteroids
  5. L-Asparaginase
  6. Interferons
  7. Methotrexate + Leucovorin Rescue
111
Q

What chemotherapy is renal toxic?

112
Q

When does Nadir occur?

113
Q

What is the primary prevention of Neutropenia?

114
Q

Pegfilgrastim is given when?

A

Start 1-2 days after completion of chemo, SINGLE DOSE

115
Q

Fligrastim is given when?

A

Start 1-3 days after completion of chemo, given DAILY

116
Q

What agents are known to cause Thrombocytopenia?

A
  1. Toptecan
  2. Carboplatin
  3. Gemcitabine
  4. Bortezombi
117
Q

ESAs should only be used to treat chemotherapy induced anemia and DC when chemo is complete, but they should NOT be used when intent is ______.

118
Q

What agents are known to cause Mucositis?

A
  1. 5-FU
  2. Methotrexate
  3. Doxorubicin
  4. Pemtrexed
  5. Stem Cell Transplant
119
Q

What is indicated for prevention of mukositits and is a human keratinocyte growth factor?

A

Palifermin

120
Q

What agents are known to cause Diarrhea?

A
  1. 5-FU
  2. Immunotherapy
  3. Irinotecan
121
Q

What is used for treatment of Diarrhea?

A
  1. Atropine - irinotecan only
  2. Loperamide - AVOID in immunotherapy
  3. Octreotide - SEVERE only
122
Q

What agent is known to cause Constipation?

A

Vincristine

123
Q

T/F: Anthracyclines are NOT cardiac toxic?

124
Q

Give ______ to protect from Anthracycline Cardiomyopathy?

A

Dexrazoxane

125
Q

What agent is Pulmonary Toxic?

126
Q

What agents are Bladder Toxic?

A
  1. Cyclophosphamide
  2. Ifosfamide
127
Q

Administer what to aid in Bladder Toxicity?

128
Q

What agents have Neurotoxicities?

A
  1. Oxaliplatin = acute/chronic neuropathies
  2. Taxanes = peripheral neuropathy
129
Q

What are the Vesicants?

A
  1. Anthracyclines = HOT/DMSO
  2. Vinca = COLD/Hyaluronidase
  3. Nitrogen Mustard = HOT/Sodium Thiosulfate
130
Q

What agents need test doses?

A
  1. Bleomycin
  2. Cetuximab
131
Q

What agents need premedications?

A
  1. Paclitaxel
  2. Cetuximab
132
Q

What is the premedication regimen for Paclitaxel?

A
  1. Dexamethasone
  2. Famotidine
  3. Diphenhydramine
133
Q

What are the irAEs of Ipilimumab?

A

Diarrhea/Colitis

134
Q

What are the irAEs of PD1 Inhibits (Nivolumab/Pembrolizumab/Atezolizumab)?

A

“itis” + endocrinopathies

135
Q

BSA Formula

A

Square Root [ (height cm x weight kg)/3600]

136
Q

Diffuse Large B cell Lymphoma DLBCL is the most common ____.

137
Q

What is therapy for DLBCL?

138
Q

Define RCHOP

A

R = rituximab
C = cyclophosphamide
H = doxorubicin
O = vincristine
P = prednisone

139
Q

What do you pretreat with for Rituxumab?

A

APAP + Diphenhydramine

140
Q

T/F: Do NOT administer Vincristine Intrathecally.

141
Q

Therapy Options for R/R DLBCL

A
  1. RGemOx -preferred
  2. RICE -preferred
  3. Polatuzumab Vedotin - 2nd line/bridge
  4. Tafasitmab + Lenalidomide -2nd line/bridge for patients not suitable for intense therapy
  5. Loncastuximab - 3rd line for patients not sutiable for intense therapy
  6. CART
142
Q

Define RICE

A

Rituximab, Ifosfamide, Carboplatin, Etoposide

143
Q

Define RGemOx

A

Rituximab, Gemcitabine, Oxaliplatin

144
Q

Polatuzumab Vedotin is used in combo with what for 2nd line therapy of R/R DLBCL?

A

Bendamustine + Rituximab

145
Q

Lenalidomide requires _____ QD?

146
Q

Loncastixumab Tesirine requires ______ to prevent edema?

A

Dexamethasone

147
Q

Define CLL

A

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia

148
Q

What agent requires dexamethasone eye drops to prevent conjunctivitis?

A

Cytarabine (used in AML)

149
Q

What is the toxicity concern with daunorubicin + cytarabine combo?

A

Prolonged Cytopenia

150
Q

What agent is Liver Toxic?

A

Gemtuzumab Ozogamicin (AML)

151
Q

What class requires Bactrim prophylaxis due to PJP Infection toxicity?

A

Corticosteroids Prednisone/Dexamethsone (ALL)

152
Q

Blinatumomab used in CLL can cause what AE?

A

Cytokine Release Syndrome

153
Q

CLL Upfront Therapy with/without 17p deletion

A
  1. Acalabrutinib
  2. Obinutuzumab
  3. Ventoclax
  4. +/- Rituxumab (+frail/old >65)
154
Q

CLL R/R Therapy for 17p deletion

A
  1. Acalabrutinib
  2. Ventoclax
  3. Rituximab
155
Q

Optimal Therapy for SCLC LIMITED Stage (small cell lung cancer)

A
  1. Cisplatin
  2. Etoposide

Can switch to carboplatin if cisplatin not tolerated

156
Q

Optimal Therapy SCLC EXTENSIVE Stage

A
  1. Atezolizumab
  2. Carboplatin
  3. Etoposide
157
Q

What do you give with Pemetrexed?

A

Folic Acid and Vitamin B12

158
Q

Do you pretreat with Pemetrexed?

A

YES, dexamethasone for cutaneous reactions

159
Q

Therapy Stage IA NSCLC

160
Q

Therapy Stage IB, II, IIA NSCLC

A
  1. Surgery
    2A. EGFR IF ex19del/L858R + Osimertinib
    2B. Adjuvant Cisplatin
  2. (ONLY IF 2B was done) IF PD1.1 + Adjuvant Atezolizumab
161
Q

Therapy Stage IIIA, IIIB, IIIC NSCLC

A
  1. CRT
  2. Durvalumab
162
Q

Therapy Metastatic NSCLC Adenocarcinoma NON-Squamous

A

1A = EGFR Inhibitor
1B = ALK Inhibitor

163
Q

Therapy Metastatic NSCLC SQUAMOUS Carcinoma

A

1A. EGFR 20 = Osimertinib
1B. KRAS G12C = Sotosanib

164
Q

If the patient received immunotherapy monotherapy for NSCLC, what can they receive 2nd line?

A

Platinum Doublet = carboplatin + pemetrexed

165
Q

If the patient progressed on immunotherapy + chemotherapy combo NSCLC, what can they receive 2nd line?

A

Docetaxel +/- Reamucirumab

166
Q

If a patient had EGFR 20 or KRAS G12C what can they receive on 2nd line setting?

A

Targeted Therapy = Osimertinib or Sotorasib

167
Q

If a patient progressed on Osimertinib NSCLC, what can they received next?

A

Platinum Doublet = carboplatin + pemetrexed

168
Q

If a patient progressed on Alectinib NSCLC, what can they received next?

A

Lorlatinib

169
Q

AVOID what agents with Squamous Cell Carcinoma?

A
  1. Bevacizumab
  2. Pemetrexed
170
Q

What is first line therapy for patients with NO targetable mutations NSCLC (KRAS G12C or EXON 20)?

A

Squamous = Pembro + Carbo + Paclitaxel
Nonsquamous = Pembro + Carbo + Pemetrexed

Hem/Onc Module (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions