Final Exam Cumulative Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 6 major classes of nutrients?

A

Carbohydrates, Fats, Proteins, Vitamins, Minerals and Water

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2
Q

What are the 3 main functions for nutrients?

A
  1. Provide energy for metabolism
  2. Build and Repair Body Tissues
  3. Help Regulate body process
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3
Q

In what units is energy measured in?

A

Calories

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4
Q

How are food calories measured?

A

By placing it is a calorimeter and finding the amount of heat required to raise one gram of water by one degree celsius

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5
Q

What is a macronutrient?

A

Nutrients that we consume in large amounts or nutrients that give us Calories

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6
Q

What is a micronutrient?

A

This is specific to vitamins and minerals (maybe phyto and zoo nutrients)

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7
Q

What classfications of nutrients are part of macronutrients?

A

fats, alcohol, proteins and carbohydrates

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8
Q

What is an essential nutrient?

A

A nutrient that we should get from our diet because our body cannot make it (either at all or enough of it)

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9
Q

What is a non-essential nutrient?

A

These nutrients can be made by our body. if we do consume them, the amount that our bodies need to make decreases

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10
Q

What are the diesases most related to our diet? (7)

A

Heart disease, stroke, diabetes, hypertension, obesity, cancers, liver disease

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11
Q

What are the four main principles for avoiding malnutrition?

A
  1. Variety: eating a mix of fruits and vegetables.
  2. Balance
  3. Moderation: Dont overeat
  4. Nutrient Density: eat nutrient dense food
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12
Q

Who creates the Dietary guidelines for Americans?

A

The department of Human Health Services and the USDA

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13
Q

According to the dietary guidelines, what foods should be limited?

A

Saturated fats, trans fats, added sugars, and sodium

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14
Q

How much physical activity do adults need?

A

150 minutes

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15
Q

How much physical activity do youth need?

A

60 minutes

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16
Q

What is the number one reason for food selection?

A

Flavor

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17
Q

What document helps us determine which nutrients are good for us?

A

The Dietary Reference Intake (DRI)

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18
Q

What is the RDA?

A

Recommended Dietary Allowance is the estimated amount of a nutrient per day considered necessary for the maintenance of good health (practically all healthy individuals)

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19
Q

What is AI?

A

Adequate Intake is established when evidence is insufficient to develop an RDA and is set at a level assumed to ensure nutritional adequacy.

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20
Q

What is the EAR?

A

Estimated Average Requirement is the intake level for a nutrient at which the needs of 50 percent of the population will be met.

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21
Q

What is UL?

A

The Upper Intake level is the value established for some nutrients where we know the value should not exceed a certain limit

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22
Q

What is the EER?

A

Estimated Energy Requirement is the average energy intake that is predicted to keep energy balance in healthy, normal weight individuals of based on age, gender, weight, height,

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23
Q

What is the AMDR?

A

Acceptable Macro nutrient Distribution Ranges is a value that establishes calories from carbohydrates, fats and proteins

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24
Q

How much energy do we obtain from carbohydrate?

A

4 kcal/g

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25
Q

How much energy do we obtain from fats?

A

9 kcal/g

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26
Q

How much energy do we obtain from proteins?

A

4 kcal/g

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27
Q

How much energy do we obtain from alcohol?

A

7 kcal/g

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28
Q

What are GMOs?

A

Genetically modified organisms are foods whose genetic material (DNA) has been modified in a way that does not naturally occur

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29
Q

What is an example of plant breeding?

A

Seen with corn, it cannot survive without human intervention

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30
Q

A good plasmic for DNA cloning has what 3 characterisitics?

A
  • Replication origin
  • marker that permits selection
  • region where DNA fragments can be inserted
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31
Q

What is the risk with GMOs?

A

There is a risk of potential allergens unintentionally being transferred from one species to another.

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32
Q

t/f the USDA and FDA have found lots of adverse health effects associated with GMO’s

A

FALSE

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33
Q

What percent of calories must be from carbohydrates?

A

45-65%

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34
Q

What percent of Calories must be from fats?

A

20-35%

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35
Q

What percent of Calories must be from protein?

A

10-35%

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36
Q

What MUST a nutrition facts panel include?

A

List of Ingredients
Serving Size
Servings per container
Amount per serving

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37
Q

Why dont alcoholic beverage have labels?

A

Because they are not regulated by the FDA, they are part of the TTB (alcohol and Tobacco Tax and trade Bureau)

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38
Q

What does Calories free mean?

A

> 5 kcal

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39
Q

What does fat free mean?

A

> 0.5g of fat/ serving

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40
Q

Who regulates pesticides?

A

EPA

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41
Q

How are pesticides approved?

A

Based on a risk/benefit assessment. If it is approved, a tolerance level is set

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42
Q

How do they account for the differences in tolerance level between rats and humans?

A

They reduce the Tolerance Level by a factor of 10 to be sure. For children foods, it is reduced another factor of 10

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43
Q

What is meant by 100% organic?

A

ALL ingredients are organic

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44
Q

What is meant by “organic”

A

A minimum of 95% of ingredients are organic

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45
Q

What is meant by “made with organic ingredients?

A

70-94% of the product is organic

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46
Q

Under which conditions does food security exist?

A

When all people at all times are able to obtain sufficient amounts of nutritionist food for an active and healthy lifestyle.

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47
Q

What factors can contribute to food insecurity?

A

Poverty, war, natural disasters, etc

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48
Q

Which ethnic groups are at a higher risk for food insecurity?

A

Latinos and Blacks

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49
Q

What is a food desert?

A

Urban neighborhoods that have limited access to healthy and fresh food.

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50
Q

What is the largest domestic hunger and safety network?

A

SNAP

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51
Q

What is WIC

A

WIC provides funds for pregnant women, breastfeeding and mothers of infants.

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52
Q

What is urbanization?

A

A shift in a country’s population from primarily rural to urban

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53
Q

The use of _____ for purposes other than feeding the people can be converted to ________________

A

The use of land for purposes other than feeding the people can be converted to food shortages

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54
Q

What is nutrition transition?

A

A shift from under nutrition to over nutrition

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55
Q

What is quackery?

A

A huge business where people sell millions of dollars each year based on false information.

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56
Q

What are some well known seals and certifications (for products being sold)?

A

USP
Consumerlabs.com
NSF
Informed Choice

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57
Q

What are the 3 main reasons for processing foods?

A
  1. Prevent Spoilage
  2. Some food is enriched or fortified
  3. Some nutrients may be lost
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58
Q

What is enrichment?

A

This is when we add nutrients back into certain foods

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59
Q

What is fortification?

A

When we add nutrients back to the food but it is greater than what was naturally present

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60
Q

What are the 2 vitamins that are seriously depleted?

A

Vitamin B1 and Vitamin C

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61
Q

What is the main issue of consuming processed foods?

A

The excessive use of highly refined products (sugar, oils, salt)

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62
Q

What are the main reasons for adding additives in the foods we eat?

A

Adding flavor, enhancing color, improve texture and preserve the food

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63
Q

What is GRAS?

A

Generall recognized as safe

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64
Q

How are food additives approved?

A

They must be GRAS and FDA approved

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65
Q

What are the 2 main functions of the digestive system?

A

Digestion and Absorption

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66
Q

What is digestion?

A

The process where larger nutrients are broken down into smaller nutrients

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67
Q

What is absorption?

A

When the nutrients move through intestinal tract to eventually reach the circulation.

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68
Q

What organs does the Upper GI tract consist of?

A

Oral cavity, esophagus, and stomach

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69
Q

What is the gastroesopageal sphincter? Where is it at?

A

This sphincter is at the end of the esophagus and it prevents food from coming back into the esophagus by closing up as soon as contents pass into the stomach

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70
Q

What happens if regurgitation occurs and some food comes back up the esophagus after it was in the stomach?

A

It can cause a burning sensation also known as heartburn

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71
Q

What is the medical condition for when heartburn is a chronic condition?

A

Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

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72
Q

What is the pyloric sphincter? Where is it located?

A

It is a muscle between the end of the stomach and beginning of the small intestine. It regulates how rapidly food moves from stomach into the small intestine.

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73
Q

What is the pyloric sphincter controlled by?

A

neural and hormonal cues

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74
Q

What organs does the lower GI tract consist of

A

Small intestine, large intestine and rectum

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75
Q

What are the 3 sections of the small intestine?

A
  1. Duodenum (busiest)
  2. Jejunum
  3. Ileum
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76
Q

What is the function of the duodenum?

A

Receive food that was just processed in the stomach

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77
Q

What is the function of the jejunum?

A

The most absorption of nutrients occurs

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78
Q

What is the function of the ileum?

A

Some important absorption occurs

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79
Q

What is the average length of the small intestine?

A

15-20 feet

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80
Q

What are plica circulares?

A

Folds of the small intestine that help slow movement of food

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81
Q

What is the difference between villi and microvilli?

A

Villi are hair-like appendages that cover plica circulares. Microvilli are on villi

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82
Q

What 3 parts of the intestinal walls increase surface area of the small intestine?

A

Plica circulares, villi and microvilli

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83
Q

Gut cells are also known as ??

A

Enterocytes

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84
Q

Where are enterocytes found? What do they form?

A

They are found covering the surface of villi and have microvilli attached to it. Together, they form the brushed border

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85
Q

What are the parts of the large intestine?

A
Cecum 
Ascending Colon 
Transverse Colon 
Descending Colon 
Sigmoid
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86
Q

What is the cecum?

A

This is where the small intestine begins to enter into the large intestine

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87
Q

What sphincture is found at the cecum?

A

Ileocecal sphincture

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88
Q

What is the ascending colon?

A

Part of the intestine that goes uo the gut

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89
Q

What is the transverse colon?

A

Bridge between ascending and descending colon

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90
Q

What is the descending colon?

A

Part of the intestine that goes down the gut

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91
Q

What is the sigmoid colon?

A

The short curving of the colon that leads to rectum

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92
Q

Organs that are not part of the GI tract but have important functions for digestion and absorption are called?

A

Accessory organs

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93
Q

What are the 3 main accessory organs?

A

Liver
Gallbladder
Pancreas

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94
Q

How does the liver help with digestion and absorption?

A

It uses cholesterol to make bile acids that are sent to the gallbladder for storage

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95
Q

How does the gall bladder help with digestion and absorption?

A

It contracts and releases secretions into the duodenum

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96
Q

How does the pancreas help with digestion and absorption?

A

The pancreas secretes enzymes used for digestion

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97
Q

What are the main functions of the stomach? (3)

A

Mixing, secretion of gastric juices, and production of gut hormones

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98
Q

How does the mixing process occur in the stomach??

A

delete

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99
Q

What is chyme?

A

the acidic fluid which passes from the stomach to the small intestine, consisting of gastric juices and partly digested food.

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100
Q

What is the main secretion from the stomach?

A

HCl

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101
Q

How does HCl come into play in the stomach?

A

It keeps us safe because it kills microorganisms and begins the process of protein digestion (does not raise pH)

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102
Q

What is the first step of protein digestion?

A

Protein denaturation (this occurs with the help of HCl)

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103
Q

HCl activates which enzyme in the stomach?

A

The enzyme called pepsin which helps break down long strands of protein into shorter strands of amino acids

104
Q

Which stomach secretion is responsible for absorbing vitamin B12?

A

Intrinsic factor

105
Q

t/f most of the digestion of food is completed in the stomach

A

false

106
Q

the rate at which the food leaves the stomach is called….

A

The gastric emptying rate

107
Q

What is the gastric emptying rate influenced by? (3)

A

Food volume ( how much there is)
Consistency (whether it is solid or liquid)
Composition of chyme (whether it is fatty food, carbohydrates or more protein based)

108
Q

What is the main role of the small intestine

A

To digest foods

109
Q

What are the 2 main secretions of the pancreas? Where are they released

A

Bicarbonate and enzymes, released at duodenum

110
Q

What is the purpose of bicarbonate?

A

To increase the pH of stomach contents, specifically the chyme.

111
Q

What secretions are released by the gallbladder? where are they released?

A

Bile acids, released at duodenum

112
Q

Why are bile acids important?

A

They allow fat digestion and absorption by allowing fat and water to mix (through hydrolyses). Once fat is broken down, the molecules are emulsified.

113
Q

What are the 3 main functions of the large intestine?

A

water absorption, electrolyte absorption, and bacterial action

114
Q

What are prebiotics

A

food for the friendly/good intestinal bacteria

115
Q

Where do prebiotics come from?

A

They are carbohydrates that escape digestion and reach the large intestine

116
Q

What are probiotics?

A

The good bacteria that we eat and can survive the harsh environment of the stomach to reach and grow in our large intestine

117
Q

What substance (from the digestion of food) has proven to help probiotics thrive?

A

Glucose

118
Q

What is the “protective” shield that probiotics have to survive the stomach?

A

Halo, made from milk and food

119
Q

What are helicobacter pylori?

A

They are bacteria (found in most people) that live in our digestive tract and can be pathogenic by producing urease and toxins

120
Q

What diseases does helicobacter pylori produce?

A

Ulcers and cancers

121
Q

How can we treat helicobacter pylori?

A

They are resistant to anitbiotics, so theonly thing that can help us fight them is probiotic bacteria through the use of bacteria sins

122
Q

What disorder can probiotics be used to fight against?

A

Irritable Bowel Syndrome

123
Q

What foods can we eat to have more probiotics?

A

Eat more fermented foods along with prebiotics to support them

124
Q

What is the transit time?

A

The amount of time that it takes for food to go through the GI tract

125
Q

How long is transit time for the average person?

A

24-72 hours

126
Q

What factors affect transit time?

A

Composition of diet, illness, medications, activity, stress

127
Q

What are the 3 major mechanisms of absorption?

A

Diffusion, facilitated diffusion, and active transport

128
Q

What is diffusion? is energy required?

A

When a molecule moves from an area of high concentration to low concentration (no energy required)

129
Q

What is facilitated diffusion?

A

When a molecule moves from an area of high concentration to low concentration with the help of a membrane protein

130
Q

What is active transport?

A

The use of energy to move molecules against a concentration gradient

131
Q

What is gluten?

A

It is a storage protein for wheat, barley, and rye, sometimes found in oats.

132
Q

Which diseases do not allow gluten consumption?

A

those with celiac disease and with gluten sensitivity

133
Q

What is celiac disease?

A

A chronic immune disease that affects the small intestine when gluten is ingested

134
Q

How is celiac disease contracted?

A

The patient must already be genetically predisposed

135
Q

What class of nutrients are energy-yielding nutrients?

A

Macro nutrients

136
Q

What is a metabolic pathway?

A

A series of interrelated chemical reactions that either break down a molecule or produce a molecule

137
Q

What is substrate?

A

The molecule that enters the reaction

138
Q

What are the 2 types of metabolic pathways?

A

Catabolic and Anabolic

139
Q

What is a catabolic pathway?

A

where carbohydrates, proteins, and triglycerides are broken down to form glucose, aa, fatty acids, and glycerol. (energy released)

140
Q

What is an anabolic pathway?

A

This is when glucose, aa, fatty acids, and glycerol create carbohydrates, proteins and triglycerides. (energy is required)

141
Q

What is an enzyme?

A

A protein molecule that can help catalyze chemical reactions

142
Q

What is the main example of a high energy compound?

A

ATP

143
Q

What is the purpose of the gallbladder?

A

To store and release the biles needed for lipid digestion

144
Q

What is the purpose of the small intestine?

A

It is the major site for enzyme digestion and nutrient absorption

145
Q

What is the purpose of the liver?

A

to make bile acids and send to gallbladder

146
Q

What are the roles of HCl in the stomach? (4)

A
  • part of gastric juices
  • dissolve food particles
  • destroy bacteria
  • provide acidic environment `
147
Q

What is gastric emptying?

A

The time it takes for food to leave the stomach and enter the small intestine

148
Q

Which procedure is performed to examine the esophagus for damage?

A

Endoscopy

149
Q

What passes through duodenum?

A

Chyme, bile and pancreatic juices

150
Q

What is the main role of the lymphatic system?

A

To carry fat-soluble nutrients (lipids) to the cardiovascular system

151
Q

What are the major functions of the large intestine? (3)

A
  • absorption of fluids/electrolytes
  • bacterial action
  • storage/ elimination of solid waste
152
Q

What are the energy yielding nutrients?

A

glucose, amino acids, and fatty acids

153
Q

What are amphibolic pathways?

A

Pathways that can be used fir both catabolic and anabolic pathways

154
Q

What are the 3 main parts that make up ATP?

A

Ribose, Adenine and 3 Phosphate groups

155
Q

How is energy released in ATP?

A

It is released when a phosphate bond is broken off. ATP then converts to ADP

156
Q

What two ways can ATP be synthesized?

A

Substrate and Oxidative phosphorylation

157
Q

What is substrate phosphorylation (glycolysis)?

A

n

158
Q

What is oxidative phosphorylation (electron transport chain)?

A

n

159
Q

Where does the electron transport chain occur?

A

Mitochondria

160
Q

How does the e. transport chain work?

A

NADH + H+ and/or FADH2 pass thorugh enzymes that remove electrons and hydrogens. Then, some chemical reactionswill occur and there will be an accumulation of H+ ions that will give ADP a phosphate and produce ATP

161
Q

What is glycogenolysis?

A

The first step in carbohydrate catabolism and it converts glycogen into glucose

162
Q

What is glycolysis?

A

The specific pathway for glucose (6 carbond) to be converted into pyruvate (2 of these 3 carbon molecules)

163
Q

What happens with pyruvate after glycolysis if oxygen is present?

A

Pyruvate is converted into acetyl-coA. Ready for citric cycle

164
Q

What happens with pyruvate after glycolysis if oxygen is not present?

A

It will be converted into lactate (fermentation process)

165
Q

What happens during citric cycle?

A

Now that we have Acetyl-Co A from pyruvate, and it produces CO2 and NADH, H+, and FADH2 which will be used for electron transport which will produce the majority of ATP

166
Q

What is GTP?

A

This is another energy molecule (like ATP)

167
Q

What routes can we take when carbohydrate is broken down for energy?

A

We can either go through glycogenolysis or glycolysis.

Either begin with glycogen or with a free glucose molecule

168
Q

What is the product of pyruvate break down?

A

A 2 fatty carbon acetate (activated by coenzyme A)

169
Q

What are the different anabolic pathways? (5)

A

Gluconeogenesis, glycogenesis, lipogenesis, ketogenesis, protein synthesis

170
Q

What is gluconeogenesis?

A

This is when we take noncarbohydrate molecules and transform them into glucose
This includes AA, fat or pyruvate

171
Q

Where does gluconeogenesis mainly occur?

A

In the tissues of the liver and kidneys

172
Q

What is lipogenesis?

A

This is the process of making lipids that consist of triglycerides

173
Q

What can cause a fatty liver?

A

This occurs when we eat too much carbohydrates/proteins which results in more triglycerides, more lipids and can cause our fat cells from liver to increase

174
Q

What is ketogenesis?

A

The production of ketones due to accumulation of acetyl coA

175
Q

What is protein synthesis?

A

The process of using amino acids to make protein molecule.

176
Q

What are the 3 most common carbohydrates in our diet?

A

Glucose, Galactose and Fructose

177
Q

Where do carbohydrates come from?

A

They come from the process of photosynthesis. Plants can obtain co2 from air, water and sunlight.

178
Q

What are simple sugars?

A

Mono or disaccharides

179
Q

What are the 3 major monosaccharides

A

Glucose, fructose and galactose

180
Q

What are disaccharides?

A

A combination of glucose, fructose, and galactose linked together

181
Q

What are the 3 major disaccharides?

A

Sucrose, Maltose, and Lactose

182
Q

What are complex carbohydrates?

A

This is also known as polysaccharides and it is when there are 2 or more monosaccharides linked together

183
Q

What is the main type of polysaccharide in our diet?

A

Starch (it is stored as energy in plants)

184
Q

What complex carbohydrate is common in mammals?

A

Glycogen

185
Q

What are soluble fibers?

A

Fibers that dissolve in water. These are mostly found in fruits, most grains and beans

186
Q

What are insoluble fibers?

A

Fibers that cannot dissolve in water. These are mainly found in wheat and other plant foods

187
Q

What are the main reasons grains are processed?

A

To prolong shelf life or improve the availability.

188
Q

What is the upper limit for sugars?

A

10% of calories

189
Q

Glucose and galactose are absorbed by which method?

A

Active Transport (ATP required)

190
Q

How is fructose absorbed?

A

Facilitated diffusion

191
Q

What happens once a carbohydrate is absorbed?

A

It goes to circulation around the GI tract (hepatic portal circulation) and eventually the liver so that it can either metabolize or leave

192
Q

What is considered the most important physiological carbohydrate?

A

Glucose

193
Q

What are triglycerides composed of?

A

a glycerol backbone (a 3-carbon molecule) and 3 fatty acids.

194
Q

More than 95% of the lipids we eat are _______

A

Triglycerides

195
Q

What is a short chain fatty acid?

A

less than 6 carbons

196
Q

What is a medium chain fatty acid?

A

6-10 carbons

197
Q

What is a long chain fatty acid?

A

More than 12 carbons

198
Q

Most our fatty acids are ___ chain fatty acids

A

Long

199
Q

How does solubility relate to length of chain?

A

The shorter the fatty acid, the more water soluble it will be. The longer it is, the more fat soluble it will be

200
Q

What does it mean to be saturated?

A

the carbons in the middle will each be bonded to as many hydrogens as possible

201
Q

What is the RDA for carbohydrates?

A

130 grams/ day

202
Q

Disaccharides must be broken into _____ before they are absorbed

A

their respective monosaccharide

203
Q

What happens in our body once carbohydrate is absorbed?

A

Our blood sugar concentration goes up and it also increase the release and production of insulin

204
Q

What is the function of insulin?

A

To allow glucose to go from the circulation into the cells so that there is not high amounts of glucose in the circulation.

205
Q

What is it called if insulin functions at a high rate? What will occur to our glucose levels?

A

It can be transient hypoglycemia which will cause our glucose levels to be below normal.

206
Q

What is the glycemic index?

A

a system that ranks foods on a scale from 1 to 100 based on their effect on blood-sugar levels.

207
Q

What does it mean to be lactose intolerant?

A

When an individual has low levels of lactase production (the enzyme that breaks down lactose.

208
Q

What happens if we cannot absorb lactose and glucose?

A

They will go through the GI tract and will pull fluid into the large intestine which can cause Lactose intolerant symptoms

209
Q

Are more groups susceptible to lactose intolerance?

A

Yes

210
Q

What is type 1 diabetes?

A

Insulin dependent because the individual is not producing enough in the pancreas.

211
Q

What is type 2 diabetes?

A

It is associated with older overweight individuals and it is when we have so much insulin that does not function properly and elevates glucose concentration

212
Q

What are some common diabetes complications?

A

blindness, kidney disease, heart disease, nerve damage, increased infections, amputations of limbs

213
Q

What are some common diabetes symptoms?

A

excessive thirst, polyuria, blurred vision, unexpected weight loss,

214
Q

When is diabetes diagnosed?

A

Once our blood glucose is greater than 200mg./deciliter at any time of the day

215
Q

When is metabolic syndrome present? (3/5 criteria)

A

abdominal obesity, fasting triglycerides, HDL cholesterol, high blood pressure, or fasting glucose

216
Q

How can we prevent diabetes?

A

Reducing weight, prevent obesity

217
Q

How can we reduce overeating?

A

choose a diet high in vegetables, fruits, poultry, fish, and whole grains. They also provide enough anti-inflammatory symptoms to help reduce metabolic syndrome chances.

218
Q

What is the major key if one already has metabolic syndrome/diabetes?

A

keep glucose in close regulation (not just diet, also exercise and medications)

219
Q

What is the medication given to those with type 1 diabetes?

A

insulin

220
Q

What is the medication for those with type 2 diabetes>

A

we must promote insulin sensitivity

221
Q

What should be the dietary intake of someone with diabetes?

A

Rich in fiber, low in saturated fat

222
Q

When do cavities form?

A

When the bacteria in our mouth use carbohydrates as energy source and produce acids that erode the enamel of the tooth

223
Q

What are the main benefits of fiber?

A

Reduce rates of obesity, heart disease, diabetes, gut health, and maybe even colon cancer

224
Q

t/f carbohydrates are fattening and we must reduce/restrict them

A

False, carbohydrates are less energy dense. Fats are associated with obesity

225
Q

When is fructose consumption bad for us?

A

When we consume at high levels

226
Q

When is it easier to consume too much high fructose corn syrup?

A

When we consume sweet soft drinks

227
Q

What is the problem of eating too much sugar alcohol?

A

It can get into the colon and produce water and cause diarrhea

228
Q

What is one benefit of sugar alcohol?

A

They are not metabolized in the oral cavity (less cavities)

229
Q

t/f moderate intake of approved sweeteners pose no health risks and are not cariogenic so can be used as sugar replacers

A

true

230
Q

What does it mean for a fatty acid to be monounsaturated?

A

Carbons will be bonded to almost all hydrogen. It is disrupted by one double bond

231
Q

What does it mean for a fatty acid to be polyunsaturated?

A

2 or more double bonds between the carbons

232
Q

What can we assume about fatty acids that are liquids in room temperature (in terms of saturation)?

A

They are typically rick in polyunsaturated fats

233
Q

What can we assume about fatty acid foods that are solid in room temperature (in terms of saturation)?

A

Typically, they are rich in saturated fatty acids

234
Q

What are some examples of saturated fats?

A

animal fats, plant fats, tropical oils (coconut oil)

235
Q

What are the 2 types of double bonds?

A

Cis and Trans

236
Q

What are cis double bonds?

A

A bond that causes a bend and the hydrogens are on the same side of the double bond.

237
Q

Cis double bonds are associated with _____________ fatty acids which are __________ at room temperature

A

Cis double bonds are associated with unsaturated fatty acids which are liquids at room temperature

238
Q

What are trans double bonds?

A

A double bond where hydrogens are across from each other and the structure is more tightly held

239
Q

What are Omega 3 fatty acids?

A

This is when the first double bond of the fatty acids is 3 carbons from omega end

240
Q

What is the omega end?

A

The side of the fatty acid that has carbons linked to hydrogens

241
Q

What are omega 6 fatty acids?

A

When the first double bond is 6 carbons from omega end

242
Q

What are omega 9 fatty acids?

A

When the first double bond is 9 carbons away from omega end

243
Q

What are some of the sources of omega 3 fatty acids?

A

Salmon, herring, mackerel, canola oil, eggs, walnuts, sardines

244
Q

What are the 2 essential fatty acids?

A

Linolenic acid and alpha-linolenic acid

245
Q

What is an example of a non-essential fatty acid?

A

Gamma-linoleic acid

246
Q

What is the condition from not eating enough essential fatty acids?

A

Essential fatty acid deficiency

247
Q

What are the major symptoms from essential fatty acid deficiency?

A

reproductive failure, skin abnormalities, kidney/liver disease, growth/vision impairments

248
Q

What is glycerol (in terms of triglyceride)?

A

the backbone that holds fatty acids together

249
Q

Is glycerol fat or water soluble?

A

Water

250
Q

Which organ is responsible for cholesterol production?

A

liver

251
Q

What is the substance most similar to cholesterol found in plants?

A

Sterols

252
Q

Why do we need cholesterol?

A

We use it for normal metabolism, normal cell membrane function, production of bile acids, sex hormones

253
Q

What is a phospholipid?

A

It is very similar to a triglyceride but one of the fatty acids is replace with phosphate

254
Q

What allows fat to be emulsified?

A

Bile Acids

255
Q

What would happen if fats were not emulsified?

A

The fat would not be able to interact with the enzymes in the gut