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ENVS-221 FINAL EXAM > FINAL EXAM CHAPTERS > Flashcards

FINAL EXAM CHAPTERS Flashcards

1
Q

More energy-efficient building practices result in _______.

a) Increased energy costs.
b) Trapping the pollutants within.
c) Improving the environment.
d) Polluting the environment

A

b) Trapping the pollutants within.

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2
Q

Construction materials have changed significantly. These new materials often emit _______ into the indoor environment.

a) Volatile organic compounds (VOCs).
b) Formaldehyde.
c) Oxides of carbon (CO, CO2).
d) Environmental tobacco smoke.

A

a) Volatile organic compounds (VOCs).

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3
Q

It is generally accepted that there are greater risks linked to _______ than linked to pollution associated with ambient air or drinking water.

a) Volatile organic compounds (VOCs).
b) Environmental tobacco smoke.
c) Breathing indoor air contaminants.
d) Formaldehyde

A

c) Breathing indoor air contaminants

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4
Q

SBS stands for:

a) Safer Building Standards.
b) Standard Building Safety.
c) Sick Building Standards.
d) Sick Building Syndrome

A

d) Sick Building Syndrome

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5
Q

A complaint rate greater than _______ is necessary for a building to qualify for SBS.

a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 40%

A

b) 20%

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6
Q

One of the best known volatile organic compounds (VOCs) to the public is _______, which is generated by many sources, including particleboard and resins used as bonding agents.

a) Formaldehyde.
b) Oxides of carbon.
c) Environmental tobacco smoke.
d) Bioaerosols

A

a) Formaldehyde

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7
Q

The use of _______ was discontinued more than ten years ago because of anticipated toxic effects such as cancer.

a) Urea formaldehyde foam insulation.
b) Urea foam insulation.
c) Formaldehyde insulation.
d) Formaldehyde foam insulation

A

a) Urea formaldehyde foam insulation

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8
Q

Environmental tobacco smoke poses a serious secondary problem because these contaminants _______ and are readily _______ into the indoor air environment.

a) Get into the ventilation system, emitted.
b) Adsorb onto surfaces in the ventilation system, emitted.
c) Get into the ventilation system, re-emitted.
d) Adsorb onto surfaces in the ventilation system, re-emitted

A

d) Adsorb onto surfaces in the ventilation system, re-emitted

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9
Q

Radon enters buildings through _______, _______, or by diffusion from construction materials.

a) Cracks in the foundation, well water.
b) Pores in the foundation, the water supply.
c) Cracks and pores in the foundation, the water supply.
d) Cracks and pores in the foundation, well water.

A

c) Cracks and pores in the foundation, the water supply.

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10
Q

Inhalation of radon decay products is a health risk resulting primarily in:

a) Little information is available on the adverse health effects of inhalation radon decay products inhalation.
b) Lung cancer.
c) Irritation, headaches, fatigue and concentration difficulties.
d) Drowsiness, nausea, headaches and some respiratory ailments

A

b) Lung cancer.

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11
Q

A hazard that specifically applies to confines spaces is:

A

is more difficult to rescue someone in an emergency

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12
Q

Using the Alberta OH&S regulations as an example, whenever a worker is inside a confine space:

A

Another person must be assigned to communicate with and visually check the worker.

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13
Q

When entering any confine space, it is good practice to:

A

Plan the entry using a confined space entry checklist

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14
Q

An open trench is considered to be a confined space?

A

True

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15
Q

What is a confined space?

A

Confined spaces are generally restricted spaces that do not have natural ventilation because of materials, bulkheads or equipment.

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16
Q

What is the minimum air percentage required in order to work in a confined space?

A

The oxygen levels must be between 19.5% and 23%.

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17
Q

What are the three means of managing a hazardous atmosphere?

A

ventilation, purging and inerting.

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18
Q

Regarding confined space work, an employer must ensure that…..

A

a safe means of entry and exit is available to all workers required to work in a confined space and to rescue personnel attending to the workers

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19
Q

How long confined space entry permits are valid for?

A

one time only

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20
Q

The employer is responsible for maintaining all records of confined space entries, training and emergency plans for___________ if there were no problems. If a problem did occur in the space, the records must be kept on file for________.

A

one year no problems

two years with problems

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21
Q

Requires employers to have a written code of practice governing the practices and procedures to be followed when workers enter or work in a confined space.

A

OH&S Code, part 5

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22
Q

Before entering a confined space, the atmosphere must be tested to ensure the workers are protected using typically this device.

A

four-head gas monitor

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23
Q

What type of gases is the four-head gas monitor testing for?

A

oxygen levels, flammable gases, toxic gases and hydrogen sulphide.

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24
Q

before servicing, repairing, calibrating or releasing jams of materials take place the equipment must…

A

be shut down, isolated and de-energized (locked out)

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25
Q

What is the name of this administrative control used to ensure equipment has any and all potential energy sources immobilized while workers are in a position to be harmed by the release of that energy.

A

Hazardous energy control programs (lock out/tag out)

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26
Q

What is Hazardous energy?

A

any form of energy that could cause injury or death due to the unintended motion of equipment energizing, starting-up or releasing such stored or residual energy in machinery, equipment, piping, pipelines or process systems.

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27
Q

This type of energies are considered as hazardous energy….

A

electrical, potential, thermal, kinetic, chemical and radiation.

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28
Q

Are also considered as hazardous energy in the environment…

A

extreme heat or cold, rain, snow, high winds or wildlife

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29
Q

Part 15 of the OHS Code covers

A

Managing the Control of Hazardous Energy

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30
Q

Regarding handling hazardous equipment….

A

It is the responsibility of the employer to develop and implement procedures and controls to ensure the work is performed safely.

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31
Q

it is responsible for reading and understanding the procedures and for their implementation?

A

The worker

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32
Q

Whose directly involve in in the performance of the work on the isolated equipment according to the Code?

A

employers, supervisors and authorized workers

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33
Q

is a technique used to prevent the release of hazardous energy?

A

Lock out

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34
Q

is a technique used to identify the persons who performed the lockout and to control the application or removal of the lockout.

A

Tag out

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35
Q

it is a locking device that is identified with a worker and can only be locked or unlocked by that worker

A

A personal lock

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36
Q

devices used to hold an item in position relative to something else?

A

Restraints

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37
Q

devices used to prevent items from falling. Examples include jack stands and saw horses.

A

Supports

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38
Q

it is most common method of isolation is

A

Lock out Tag out system

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39
Q

When to Use LO/TO (lock out-tag out) sytems?

A

When equipment or machinery is scheduled for maintenance.

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40
Q

In the event that more than one worker is working on the equipment_______?

A

each worker must place his or her personal lock on the lockout device when they are present

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41
Q

it is important that the machinery or equipment be continuously locked out in case of?

A

the isolated equipment must be carried over beyond one shift

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42
Q

Isolation of equipment must be recorder in_______ to keep a record but also to maintain a safely working place

A

Log books

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43
Q

Incidents can be divided into two categories

A

Near miss event and Accidents

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44
Q

why Incident investigations are carried out for?

A

to ensure that all causes are identified and that corrective action is taken to prevent the occurrence of similar events.

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45
Q

When injuries and accidents are required to be reported under the Alberta OHS Act?

A

death or worker being admitted to a hospital for more than two days

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46
Q

how long employer has to keep record of injuries happened at the work place?

A

Three years

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47
Q

Requires that both the employer and the worker complete certain forms when a worker is injured on the job

A

Workers Compensation Board ( WCB )

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48
Q

What is the greatest obstacle to reporting accidents?

A

Fear of blame or punishment.

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49
Q

During an investigation, the officer is allowed, under the Act, to:

A

make copies of documents and seize or take samples of any substance, material, product, tool, appliance or equipment that was present at, involved in or related to the incident being investigate

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50
Q

what cannot be used against workers in a court of law, except to prove perjury.

A

Statements given to an OH&S officer

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51
Q

When an incident occurs, what is need to be done first?

A

first priority is the care of any injured workers and the removal of all hazards to investigators

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52
Q

To conduct a thorough investigation, investigators….

A

require a digital camera, notebook, pen, pencil, tape measure, investigation form and pertinent safety equipment.

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53
Q

Although environmental activities are controlled in part by economic and regulatory considerations, humans have a fundamental need to do the right thing.

a) True.
b) False.

A

a) True.

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54
Q

The concept of ________________ may be the primary reason for problems encountered with environmental management philosophies.

a) Dominion over natural resources.
b) Lack of regulations.
c) Too many regulations.
d) Stewardship

A

d) Stewardship

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55
Q

An important development was the evolution of __________________, in which the common good or benefit to the general public became a priority.

a) Human action.
b) The ethics of the commons.
c) Ethics.
d) Reasonable care

A

b) The ethics of the commons.

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56
Q

Two examples of environmental ethical dilemmas are whether to use a styrofoam or ceramic cup, and whether zero discharge strategies should be forced on industry.

a) True.
b) False

A

a) True.

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57
Q

Which ethical strategy listed below is used by industry?

a) Act in the environment’s best interest.
b) Establish ISO standards.
c) Demonstrate due skill.
d) Demonstrate diligence and skill

A

d) Demonstrate diligence and skill

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58
Q

Industry associations have developed strategies and guiding principles for dealing with environmental issues. An excellent example is the Responsible Care Program prepared by the Canadian Chemical Producers Association.

a) True.
b) False.

A

a) True.

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59
Q

The concept of due diligence means ______________________ to comply with required standards and regulations.

a) Doing everything possible.
b) Paying taxes.
c) Conducting environmental sampling.
d) Doing everything reasonable

A

d) Doing everything reasonable

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60
Q

In addition to intense dialogue, some degree of non-compromise is necessary to solve most ethical and moral questions.

a) True
b) False

A

a) True

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61
Q

What is an environmental audit?

a) Environmental audits are common, systematic procedures for plant activities to follow and relate to compliance with prevailing environmental regulatory requirements and accepted management practices and procedures.
b) Environmental audits are common, systematic procedures for documenting plant activities and how they relate to compliance with prevailing environmental regulatory requirements and accepted management practices and procedures.
c) Environmental audits are arbitrary procedures for documenting companies’ activities and how they relate to compliance with prevailing environmental regulatory requirements and accepted management practices and procedures.
d) Environmental audits are common, systematic procedures for documenting companies’ activities and how they relate to compliance with prevailing environmental regulatory requirements and accepted management practices and procedures.

A

b) Environmental audits are common, systematic procedures for documenting plant activities and how they relate to compliance with prevailing environmental regulatory requirements and accepted management practices and procedures.

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62
Q

What does EPEA stand for?

a) Environmental Protection and Energy Act.
b) Environmental Protection and Enhancement Act.
c) Environmental Protection and Energy Association.
d) Environmental Protection and Enhancement Association

A

b) Environmental Protection and Enhancement Act

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63
Q

Which part of the EPEA deals with the release of substances?

a) Part 1.
b) Part 4.
c) Part 8.
d) Part 7

A

c) Part 8.

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64
Q

Release is described by many terms in legislation. A release of a substance into the environment must be reported if the substance:

a) Is above 1 ppm.
b) Contains DDT or PCBs.
c) May have a deleterious effect on fish or nematode bioassays.
d) Is thought to have a significant adverse impact on the environment

A

d) Is thought to have a significant adverse impact on the environment

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65
Q

Failing to comply with reporting legislation endangers:

a) Fish.
b) Human health and safety.
c) The environment.
d) Fresh water supplies

A

b) Human health and safety.

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66
Q

Failure to comply with reporting legislation may result in liability to:

a) You.
b) Your workplace.
c) Your management.
d) All of the above.

A

d) All of the above.

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67
Q

When a leaking underground storage tank poses a safety hazard, PEA comes into play and not the Alberta Fire Code.

a) True.
b) False.

A

b) False.

68
Q

Failing to submit the reports required for project approval constitutes an administrative penalty.

a) True.
b) False.

A

a) True.

69
Q

Regulatory offences that violate the environment are called “quasi-criminal” and are based on which two criteria?

a) Criminal and civil.
b) Administrative and intentional.
c) Knowingly and intentional.
d) Intentional and unintentional

A

d) Intentional and unintentional

70
Q

Failure to comply with an EO is considered a contravention of the AEPEA and may lead to prosecution.

a) True.
b) False

A

a) True.

71
Q

Enforcement actions under the CEPA can be used for which of the following:

a) To provide compensation for damage done to the environment.
b) To levy a fine or penalty for non-compliance.
c) To prescribe actions to be taken to achieve restoration.
d) All of the above.

A

d) All of the above.

72
Q

three cycles that occur on Earth:

A

The air cycle
The water cycle
The soil cycle

73
Q

Air is a mixture of what gases?

A

Nitrogen 78%

Oxigen 21%

74
Q

human’s body weight is_____water

A

70%

75
Q

It is the study of plants and animals in relation to their environment

A

Ecology

76
Q

The three major components in Ecology are?

A

producers, consumers and inactive organic matter

77
Q

It is the pattern of feeding relationships in an ecosystem?

A

Foodweb

78
Q

It is the pattern of feeding relationships in an ecosystem?

A

Food webs

79
Q

What is Sound?

A

is a variation of pressure that can travel through air, liquids and solids

80
Q

The human ear can detect sounds as low as?

A

0.00002 Pa or 0.0002 microbars.

81
Q

which scale is use to measure sound?

A

Decibel

82
Q

The most common weighted scale for weighing sound is?

A

dBA

83
Q

materials that give the best transmission of sound

A

Homogeneous

84
Q

materials that tend to act as barriers to the transmission of sounds are

A

Non-Homogeneous

85
Q

can be defined as unwanted sounds that are offensive, annoying or harmful and also considered an environment pollutant?

A

Noise

86
Q

What is the maximum exposure limit at work for 8hrs?

A

85 dBA

87
Q

identifying the source of unwanted sound and the destination you want to protect is called?

A

Sound reduction

88
Q

What is the best thing to do Noise Control

A

1) Reduce the amount of noise that is given off at its source.
2) Provide a barrier to the sound between the source and the destination

89
Q

Sound can be attenuated (dampened) by two basic methods:

A

Reflected and Absorbed

90
Q

types of sound dampers?

A

panels, double-brick walls packed with sand, wall construction, Mufflers, Ducting and Intake silencers

91
Q

Outdoor sound dampening can be…..

A

Earth berms or sound fences and Rows of trees

92
Q

It is an effective means of combating thermal pollution

A

Cooling ponds

93
Q

Cooling towers are classified as…

A

Natural draft and Mechanical draft.

94
Q

they cause water pollution when the recycled water is discharged, whether partly or totally.

A

Cooling Towers

95
Q

It ensures that anyone over the age of 18 in Alberta can lodge a complaint against a facility or plant, and as a result, it must be investigated.

A

“Whistleblower” legislation (EPEA)

96
Q

very fine powdery material that can vary in size from submicron to relatively coarse material.

A

Fly ash

97
Q

Equipment use to collect fly ashes

A

Bag filter or Bag House, Baffle, centrifugal

98
Q

Dust collector used where the size of the particulates are unable to be separated through normal gravitational or centrifugal forces.

A

Wet collectors or Scrubbers

99
Q

it can be up to 99.9% efficient in reducing the fly ashes from flue gases.

A

The electrostatic precipitator

100
Q

This process ensures that no particulate matter atmospheric pollution results

A

mechanical or electrical collectors or through a combination of both.

101
Q

Another effective method of disposal the fly ash is

A

Sell it to the concrete industry or bury it in Engineered Landfills

102
Q

most common causes of equipment failure are?

A

Corrosion, Over-pressuring, Incorrect Material Selection, Mechanical and Physical Stresses, Inadequate Maintenance.

103
Q

It is important to______ to avoid failure that can result in major incidents as well as work downtime

A

daily routine checks

104
Q

What controls can be done for minimizing equipment failures?

A

Engineered designs and codes
Regular inspections
Routine preventative maintenance
Routine laboratory analysis

105
Q

Sometimes equipment failure can be blamed on loss of wall thickness.

a) True.
b) False

A

a) True

106
Q

Corrosion often causes equipment failure because:

a) Cracks and fissures decrease in size.
b) Material strength is reduced.
c) Material electrical property changes reduce corrosion.
d) Materials are caused to vibrate

A

b) Material strength is reduced.

107
Q

Cracks and fissure development in the sidewall of a vessel are simply the result of old age and have nothing to do with corrosion.

a) True.
b) False

A

b) False

108
Q

Which of the following causes the corrosion process?

a) Chemical/electrochemical reactions.
b) Decrease in wall thickness.
c) Minimizing temperature and pressure loads.
d) Adding more material than required to design a vessel

A

a) Chemical/electrochemical reactions.

109
Q

The concept of over-pressuring means that:

a) The vessel’s sides have split, emptying the vessel’s contents into a sewer.
b) The atmospheric pressure increased.
c) The vessel’s pressure relief safety valve released, thereby using a safety feature to minimize release of the vessel contents into a sewer.
d) A proposal is made to raise the process pressure in order to increase production.

A

d) A proposal is made to raise the process pressure in order to increase production.

110
Q

A pressure relief valve is used on a pressure vessel to guard against:

a) High vessel flow rates.
b) High temperatures.
c) High internal pressures.
d) High atmospheric pressure

A

c) High internal pressures.

111
Q

When a material is used that is not compatible with the service, failure is likely to occur.

a) True.
b) False.

A

a) True.

112
Q

Why would you use engineered designs and codes to build plants?

a) To operate in an environmentally sound manner.
b) To minimize hazards, maximize safety and operate in an environmentally sound manner.
c) To operate in a safe manner.
d) To meet governmental regulations

A

b) To minimize hazards, maximize safety and operate in an environmentally sound manner.

113
Q

One form of design control for underground steel pipelines is:

a) To install thicker walled pipe.
b) To install cathodic protection.
c) To install plastic valves.
d) To install iron pipe.

A

b) To install cathodic protection

114
Q

Changes in equipment integrity and the trend of the changes are tracked through:

a) These cannot be tracked.
b) Visually inspecting the equipment every hour.
c) Regular inspections using a variety of techniques.
d) None of the above

A

c) Regular inspections using a variety of techniques.

115
Q

The old motto concerning pollution was:

a) Evolution is the solution to pollution.
b) Distillation is the solution to pollution.
c) Dilution is the solution to pollution.
d) Institution is the solution to pollution.

A

c) Dilution is the solution to pollution.

116
Q

Major industries, in seeking to comply with government standards, are using engineering criteria that are broadly classed as:

a) Plant optimization, Emission control, Closed-loop effluent scrubbers
b) Plant scrubbers, Emission optimization, Closed-loop effluent control
c) Plant optimization, Emission scrubbers, Closed-loop effluent control
d) Plant control, Emission scrubbers, Closed-loop effluent optimization

A

c) Plant optimization, Emission scrubbers, Closed-loop effluent control

117
Q

Closed-loop control means that:

a) Very little is emitted into the atmosphere or watershed.
b) Emitted into the atmosphere or watershed are controlled.
c) Emissions into the atmosphere and watershed are treated and neutralized.
d) Nothing is emitted into the atmosphere or watershed

A

d) Nothing is emitted into the atmosphere or watershed

118
Q

The concept of responsible care extends beyond the aesthetic aspects of the environmental impact to the ________ and to ensuring that the industry’s operations are integrated with the _______.

a) Preservation of local habitat for wildlife; goals of the community.
b) Restoration of local habitat for wildlife; community.
c) Restoration of local habitat for wildlife; goals of the community.
d) Preservation and restoration of local habitat for wildlife; goals of the community.

A

d) Preservation and restoration of local habitat for wildlife; goals of the community.

119
Q

Power plants generate a number of gaseous and particulate emissions. Nitrogen oxide concentrations are directly related to flame ______ and reduction of excess ________.

a) Temperature; air.
b) Height; fuel.
c) Temperature; fuel.
d) Temperature; ignition source

A

a) Temperature; air.

120
Q

There are several means of controlling particulate emissions. High efficiencies above 99% can be achieved with the use of ______.

a) Fabric filters.
b) Fly ash filters.
c) Ash filters.
d) Fly ash fabric filters

A

a) Fabric filters.

121
Q

There are four key steps involved in operating electrostatic precipitators. Which of the following is not considered a key step?

a) Use of an intense electromagnetic field.
b) Entrained particles become electrically charged.
c) Negatively charged particles are attracted to collecting electrodes (+ground).
d) Collected dust is rapped off the electrodes into hoppers.

A

a) Use of an intense electromagnetic field.

122
Q

Which of the following gaseous pollutants is very explosive? If allowed to collect in the boiler passes and form a stagnant pocket, it takes only a source of ignition to cause a furnace explosion. The gas is:

a) Nitrous oxides (NOX).
b) Sulphur dioxide (SO2).
c) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).
d) Carbon monoxide (CO).

A

d) Carbon monoxide (CO).

123
Q

When the carbon element is not completely burned, it is likely that the following element is not completely burned either.

a) Hydrogen (H2).
b) Nitrous oxides (NOX).
c) Sulphur dioxide (H2S).
d) Fly ash

A

a) Hydrogen (H2).

124
Q

Carbon monoxide is a product of ______.

a) Surplus of oxygen in the boiler furnace.
b) Complete combustion in the boiler furnace.
c) Incomplete combustion the boiler furnace.
d) Incomplete combustion the plant’s furnace

A

c) Incomplete combustion the boiler furnace.

125
Q

The decaying matter in soil is called _____.

a) Nutrients.
b) Humus.
c) Topsoil.
d) Colloids

A

b) Humus.

126
Q

Soil is a dynamic system involving several components, such as:

a) Mineral particles and moisture.
b) Mineral particles, moisture and detritus.
c) Mineral particles, moisture, and plant and animal wastes.
d) Mineral particles, moisture, plant and animal wastes and soil organisms that feed on those plant and animal wastes

A

d) Mineral particles, moisture, plant and animal wastes and soil organisms that feed on those plant and animal wastes

127
Q

The following two categories make up the organic portion of the soil:

a) Mineral particles, moisture.
b) Mineral particles, plant and animal wastes (detritus).
c) Plant and animal wastes, soil organisms that feed on plant and animal wastes.
d) Mineral particles, plant and animal wastes

A

c) Plant and animal wastes, soil organisms that feed on plant and animal wastes.

128
Q

The lithosphere is ______.

a) The earth’s soil and rock.
b) Part of the earth.
c) The earth’s soil.
d) The earth’s crust.

A

a) The earth’s soil and rock

129
Q

The production of one inch of soil from bedrock and biomass (living matter) may take centuries.

a) True.
b) False.

A

a) True.

130
Q

Humus provides _______ and gives the soil a sponge-like nature to help retain _____. Soils with large amounts of humus are _____ and are often used as _____.

a) Water, nutrients, full of organic matter, fertilizer.
b) Nutrients, water, black, topsoil.
c) Water, nutrients, black, topsoil.
d) Nutrients, water, full of organic matter, fertilizer.

A

b) Nutrients, water, black, topsoil

131
Q

The texture of soil is generally referred to as:

a) Either fine or coarse.
b) Fine.
c) Coarse.
d) Nutrient-rich

A

a) Either fine or coarse.

132
Q

This is the top layer, which is composed of fresh and decaying plant litter and top soil.

a) “A” Horizon.
b) “B” Horizon.
c) “C” Horizon.
d) Bedrock.

A

a) “A” Horizon.

133
Q

This is sometimes called the subsoil. Leached minerals from the topsoil are deposited in this layer.

a) “A” Horizon.
b) *“B” Horizon.
c) “C” Horizon.
d) Bedrock

A

b) *“B” Horizon.

134
Q

This is the parent material from which the other two layers are formed and is comprised of weathered parent rocks from which the soil in the other horizons originates.

a) “A” Horizon.
b) “B” Horizon.
c) “C” Horizon.
d) Bedrock

A

c) “C” Horizon

135
Q

The cleanup of severely contaminated soils at closed or abandoned manufacturing facilities and waste sites is known as

A

soil or site remediation

136
Q

Unstable nuclei undergo which natural process?

a) Attracting particles.
b) Ejecting molecules.
c) Emitting radiation.
d) Attracting molecules

A

c) Emitting radiation.

137
Q

What are atoms called that have the same number of protons, but a different mass number?

a) Substances.
b) Ions.
c) Isotopes.
d) Molecules

A

c) Isotopes.

138
Q

Carbon 14 is ___________ of carbon12.

a) An isotope.
b) A reactant.
c) A compound.
d) An element

A

a) An isotope.

139
Q

Alpha emission are extremely dangerous if they are:

a) Seen.
b) Inhaled.
c) Touched.
d) Ingested

A

b) Inhaled

140
Q

________ is an alpha emitter and known as the most __________ substance on earth.

a) Carbon14, explosive.
b) Plutonium239, toxic.
c) Plutonium239, reactive.
d) Carbon14, reactive

A

b) Plutonium239, toxic.

141
Q

All heavy elements with an atomic number above 82 are__________ and slowly transmute back into ___________.

a) Unstable, lead.
b) Stable, helium.
c) Explosive, plutonium.
d) Toxic, mercury

A

a) Unstable, lead.

142
Q

The half-life of a radioactive atom indicates:

a) Its desire to react.
b) Its radioactive dating.
c) How fast or slow it decays.
d) It’s ionizing ability

A

c) How fast or slow it decays.

143
Q

Since the rate is constant for each radioactive isotope, they act like precision clocks and can therefore be used in:

a) Radioactive dating.
b) Reaction decay.
c) The inhalation rate for certain isotopes.
d) All of the above.

A

b) Reaction decay.

144
Q

Radiation affects living tissue differently, depending on the type of radiation. The unit Sievert was created to equalize the effects of different radioactive emissions.

a) True.
b) False.

A

a) True.

145
Q

In terms of nuclear safety, the concern is with which of the following?

a) High levels of radiation.
b) Radiation decay rates.
c) Radioactive dating.
d) Cumulative exposure

A

a) High levels of radiation.

146
Q

Select from the following, the acceptable ways to dispose of radioactive material:

a) Landfill.
b) A landfill far away from drinking water and farms.
c) Ship the radioactive device to the CNSC.
d) Ship the radioactive device to the CNSC, once you have the go-ahead to do so from CNSC officials.
e) Ship the radioactive device to the manufacturer, once receiving specific instructions.
f) Ship to a disposal site.
g) Ship to a licensed disposal site, once receiving specific instructions

A

e) Ship the radioactive device to the manufacturer, once receiving specific instructions

147
Q

Which of the following wastes, generated by commercial establishments, are excluded from the regulations?

a) Flammable solids
b) Bio-hazardous wastes
c) Farm waste
d) Hazardous wastes

A

d) Hazardous wastes

148
Q

Energy recovery is achieved by the conversion of waste to energy by high-temperature combustion.

a) True
b) False

A

a) True

149
Q

Environmental samples need to be analyzed as soon as possible after collection because:

a) pH changes are not important to note.
b) No preservatives are needed.
c) It’s important to minimize the loss of volatile components

A

c) It’s important to minimize the loss of volatile components

150
Q

Under the waste control regulations, certain substances are not wastes. Which of the following are excluded from the regulations?

a) Waste generated during an emergency clean-up
b) Farm waste
c) Domestic sewage
d) Hazardous recyclables
e) All of the above

A

e) All of the above

151
Q

When wastes are shipped off-site for treatment or disposal they must be accompanied by a special bill, called a:

a) Way bill
b) Consignment manifest
c) Waste document
d) Waste manifest

A

d) Waste manifest

152
Q

The practice of managing biomedical waste indicates that the acceptable treatment or disposal of human and animal anatomical waste is:

a) Steam autoclave
b) Landfill
c) Chemical decontamination
d) Incineration
e) Sewer

A

d) Incineration

153
Q

One of the criteria for classifying hazardous wastes is:

a) A foul odor.
b) Its physical state.
c) That it has a neutral pH of 7 and is deemed innocuous.
d) That the material is a specific listed waste that is considered under the legislation to be potentially hazardous

A

d) That the material is a specific listed waste that is considered under the legislation to be potentially hazardous

154
Q

During hazardous waste treatment, the most effective reduction in waste volume is through:

a) Biological treatment
b) Thermal treatment
c) Chemical treatment
d) Physical treatment

A

b) Thermal treatment

155
Q

An emergency response plan forms an integral part of a waste management program. A key step in effective spill response would be:

a) Dilute and wash spill away.
b) Don’t bother to inform anyone.
c) Identify and contain the material.
d) Ignore restoration of the spill site

A

c) Identify and contain the material.

156
Q

Each hazardous waste producer, carrier and receiver must obtain a PIN (Personal Identification Number) from Alberta Environment.

a) True
b) False

A

a) True

157
Q

The problem with carbon dioxide as a pollutant is its ability to:

a) Act as a base and to remove acids.
b) Trap heat.
c) Act as a plant respiration product.
d) All of the above

A

b) Trap heat

158
Q

Acid rain and acid deposition result from which air pollutant(s)?

a) Chloroflurocarbons (CFCs).
b) Ozone (O3).
c) Nitrogen oxides (NOX).
d) Oxygen (O2).
e) Sulphur dioxide (SO2).
f) Argon

A

c) Nitrogen oxides (NOX).

159
Q

Acid deposition on lakes and rivers causes:

a) All processes to become zero emission discharge standards.
b) Metals to leach from the soil and impair animal and fish life.
c) Nothing, because companies can no longer emit acid-type stack gases.
d) Microscopic life to die.
e) The elimination of all super stacks.
f) More resilient fish to be introduced into water ecosystems near problem areas.

A

b) Metals to leach from the soil and impair animal and fish life.

160
Q

In the lower atmosphere, chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are more effective than carbon dioxide (CO2) as a greenhouse gas. How much more effective are CFCs than CO2?

a) 100 times more effective.
b) 1,000 times more effective.
c) 10,000 times more effective.
d) 100,000 times more effective

A

b) 1,000 times more effective.

161
Q

Water vapour is not itself a greenhouse gas, but it amplifies the effect of greenhouse gases.

a) True.
b) False

A

a) True.

162
Q

The conversion of nitrogen in the air to one of the nitrogen oxide gases is very dependent on:

a) Gas volume.
b) Pressure.
c) Temperature.
d) Concentration of oxygen

A

c) Temperature.

163
Q

The ideal environmentally friendly fuel is:

a) Explosive.
b) Water.
c) Hydrogen.
d) Vapour

A

b) Water.

164
Q

The product of combustion of the ideal environmentally friendly fuel is:

a) An explosive hazard.
b) Water vapour.
c) Hydrogen.
d) A water hazard

A

c) Hydrogen

165
Q

Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are being phased out for a number of reasons. What is the most important reason in this list?

a) To appease the Green lobby.
b) Because atmospheric reactions deplete the ozone concentration, thereby allowing more UV radiation to strike the Earth’s surface.
c) They react with ultraviolet radiation, thereby allowing them entrance into the Earth’s atmosphere

A

c) They react with ultraviolet radiation, thereby allowing them entrance into the Earth’s atmosphere

ENVS-221 FINAL EXAM (1 decks)

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