Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BIO 102 FINAL > FINAL EXAM BIO 102 > Flashcards

FINAL EXAM BIO 102 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Adaptive radiation can best be defined as the ability of a population

A

A. to evolve a phenotype that helps them adapt to a new environment.

B. with a specific adaptation to find new environments.

C. to migrate to a better environment.

D. to undergo speciation in response to new or changing environments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The first important step leading to life on Earth was most likely the formation of

A

A. Membrane enclosed structures
B. Oxygen
C. Organic molecules
D. Carbon dioxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What must occur in order for natural selection to occur in an “RNA world”?

A

A. RNA must encode proteins.

B. RNA molecules must undergo mutations.

C. RNA molecules must replicate.

D. Both b and c.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following is not one of the four Oparin gases included in Stanley Miller’s experiment?

A

A. Ammonia

B. Oxygen

C. Hydrogen

D. Methane

E. Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What occurs during a lysogenic infection?

A

A. Viral particles attach, but do not penetrate a host cell.

B. Viral particles fill a host cell and cause it to burst.

C. Viral genetic material inserts into the host DNA.

D. The viral prophage DNA is packaged into a capsid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the cell wall of a Gram negative cell made of?

A

A. Peptidoglycan

B. Pectin

C. Glycocalyx

D. Plasmids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of these is a distinguishing characteristic between the domains Bacteria and Archea?

A

A. Their size

B. Their use of chlorophyll for photosynthesis

C. Their ability to grow at high temperatures

D. The presence of membrane-bounded organelles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

An important component of maintaining a successful aquarium is biological filtration. Bacteria such as Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter colonize filters and use inorganic salts and inorganic carbon dioxide for their energy needs. Based on this, these bacteria are ___________.

A

A. Heteroautotroph

B. Chemoautotrophic

C. Chemoheterotrophic

D. Photoheterotrophic

E. Photoautotrophic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Kingdom Protista?

A

A. All are single celled

B. Cells contain membrane-bounded organelles

C. Cells contain a nucleus

D. Most are aerobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What form of motility is associated with amoebas?

A

A. Flagella

B. Cilia

C. Pseudopods

D. Kinetoplasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How are fungi similar to animals?

A

A. They have a cell wall made of chitin.

B. They store energy in the form of glycogen.

C. They are predominantly haploid organisms.

D. Both a and b.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a lichen?

A

A. A type of photosynthetic fungus

B. A combination of a fungus and an alga or cyanobacterium

C. A combination of two phyla of fungi

D. A combination of a fungus and a root

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following beneficial products are produced by Ascomycetes?

A

A. penicillin

B. fermentation yeasts

C. truffles

D. All of the above are products of Ascomycetes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following is not a rationale for scientific classification?

A

A. Assist in determining a molecular basis for heredity

B. Increase the complexity of taxonomic systems

C. Organize and understand the behavior of organisms

D. Represent similarities and proposed relationships

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The presently implemented system of naming organisms is:

A

A. Referred to as binomial nomenclature

B. A two-part system

C. A six kingdom system

D. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The presently used three domain system differentiates between

A

A – Monera, Archaebacteria, and prokaryotes

B – Prokaryotes and organisms without their DNA in a centralized nucleus

C – Eukaryotes and organisms without their DNA in a centralized nucleus

D – none of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

While nomenclature refers to naming, systematics implies:

A

A – Dissimilar comparative homologies

B – Direct linkage within a cladogram

C – Evolutionary relationships

D – Dissimilar molecular clocks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Archaebacteria have ____________________________ within their genome, unlike eubacteria.

A

A – r RNA subunits

B – Peptidoglycan in cell walls

C – Introns

D – Membrane – bound organelles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The success of eubacteria is based largely on their ______________________.

A

A – Spherical body shape

B – Metabolic diversity and reproductive strategies

C – Ability to endure extreme environmental conditions

D – Their eukaryotic characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Plasmids are circular DNA molecules associated with _____________________.

A

A – Prokaryotic fission

B – Recombination during meiosis

C – Transformation

D – Conjugation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of protistans?

A

A – They have a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles

B – They have proteins associated with their DNA

C – They may contain chloroplasts

D – They divide only by mitosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

_____________________________ are a type of antigen-containing preparation introduced into the body to prime the immune system to recognize the threat before actual infection.

A

A – Medicines

B – Vaccines

C – Treatments

D – Strands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

____________________________ are an important source of the commercially important algin used in cosmetics, paints, and ice cream.

A

A – Chlorophyta

B – Rhodophyta

C – Fucoxathin

D – Phaeophyta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The cell walls of Fungi contain _____________________________.

A

A – Structurally cross-linked polysacchrides

B – Chitin

C – Tertiary proteins

D – Xylem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Lichen and mycorrhizae represent what type of symbiotic relationship?

A

A – Parasitic

B – Commensalistic

C – Ammensalistic

D – Mutualistic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Fungi obtain nutrients through what unique process?

A

A – Extracellular digestion

B – Phagocytosis

C – Apoptosis

D – Osmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The main body of a mushroom is _________________________.

A

A – The aboveground fruiting body

B – The belowground hyphae

C – A diploid structure

D – Prokaryotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Fungi reproduce by what means?

A

A – Sexually

B – Asexually

C – Transduction

D – Both A & B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Many organic compounds essential for life, such as amino acids and nucleotides, do NOT assemble spontaneously in the presence of

A

A – high concentrations of hydrogen

B – low concentrations of carbon dioxide

C. high concentrations of oxygen

D. nitrogen

E. hydrogen sulfide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The 1953 demonstrations by Stanley Miller entailed a chamber which contained gases intended to simulate the atmosphere of the early Earth. Which of the following gases was not included?

A

A – carbon dioxide

B – methane

C – ammonia

D – water vapor

E – hydrogen gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

31) Aerobic respiration became established as a result of the evolution of

A

A – the first proto-cells

B – the first true cells

C – Metabolism

D – the cyclic pathway of photosynthesis

E – the noncyclic pathway of photosynthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Of all living organisms, prokaryotes are the

A

A – smallest

B – most abundant

C – most metabolically diverse

D – most widespread

E – all of these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Gram positive bacteria react to the presence of ____________________ and appear ____________ under the microscope.

A

A – oxygen; pink

B – a chemical stain; purple

C – light; purple

D – a chemical stain; pink

E – light; pink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which of the following allow bacteria to conjugate?

A

A – flagella

B – pores

C – slime capsules

D – pili

E – glycocalices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

All Gram negative bacteria produce

A

A – exotoxins only

B – endotoxins only

C – exotoxins and endotoxins

D – neurotoxins

E – bile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

RNA viruses can use their RNA as templates to produce DNA because they carry ______________________ enzymes.

A

A – reverse transcriptase

B – restriction

C – endonuclease

D – polymerase

E – ligase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Bovine spongiform encephalopathy and the human variant (vCJD, variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease) are likely caused by

A

A – bacteria

B – viruses

C – fungi

D – prions

E – a currently unidentified agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

__________________ produce various neurotoxins which have been linked to fish kills and red tides.

A

A – dinoflagellates

B – foraminiferans

C – yeasts

D – Oomycotes

E – prions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Have you enjoyed Bio 102 so far?????

A

A. Yes, very much so

A. No, I have yet to learn anything new

A. The jury is still out. I will let you know later.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
  1. The main vegetative parts of plants include:
A

A. Roots, flowers, and stems

B. Fruits, flowers, and leaves

C. Roots, stems, and leaves

D. Stems, roots, flowers, leaves, and fruits

E. Flowers and fruits only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
  1. The primary root of a plant that enlarges and persists throughout the life of the plant is:
A

A. A fibrous root

B. A companion root

C. Rhizome

D. Stolon

E. A taproot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q
  1. Stems that coil around surrounding objects for support are:
A

A. Rhizoids

B. Tendrils

C. Stolons

D. Rhizomes

E. Tubers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
  1. The source of a plant’s new cells is a type of plant tissue called its:
A

A. Tracheid

B. Meristem

C. Protostem

D. Cortex

E. Mesophyll

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q
  1. The type of plant cell that provides rigid support and is dead at maturity is a:
A

A. Sclerenchyma cell

B. Sieve tube cell

C. Parenchyma cell

D. Collenchyma cell

E. Guard cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
  1. Conducting cells in xylem are:
A

A. Sieve tube elements

B. Tracheids

C. Tracheids and vessel elements

D. Vessel elements

E. Tracheids and sieve tube elements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q
  1. A collective term for all plant tissues outside the vascular cambium is:
A

A. Mesophyll tissue

B. Bark

C. Leaf

D. Wood

E. Cork cambium

47
Q
  1. You drive a nail into a tree that is 10 feet tall, so that 5 inches of the nail are showing. You come back 10 years later. The tree is now 30 feet tall and only 3 inches of the nail are showing. This is because the tree grows out from the _______.
A

A. Lateral meristem

B. Apical meristem

C. Intercalary meristem

D. Root tip

E. Node

48
Q
  1. On a hot sunny day, which of the following would help protect a plant from water loss?
A

A. Cuticle and stomata

B. Cuticle

C. Stomata

D. Cuticle and phloem

E. Phloem and stomata

49
Q
  1. One way to kill a tree is to girdle it by cutting a groove a centimeter into the bark all around the trunk of the tree. The tree will typically survive that growing season, but will die over the winter. Which of the following is the best explanation for this observation?
A

A. The phloem was cut, so water and nutrients cannot be taken up to the leaves

B. The xylem was cut, so sugars cannot be transported to the roots

C. The xylem was cut, so water and nutrients cannot be taken up to the leaves

D. Cutting the bark allows access to pathogens that kill the tree

E. The phloem was cut, so sugars cannot be transported to the roots

50
Q
  1. Angiosperms owe their widespread distribution to their production of pollen, seeds and flowers. Why is the production of flowers an advantage?
A

A. It allows fertilization in the absence of water

B. It is necessary for sexual reproduction

C. It promotes pollination

D. It allows fertilization in moist areas

E. It protects and nourishes the embryo

51
Q
  1. In all major groups of multicellular organisms _______________ produces the cells that begin the haploid generation, and _________________ unites the gametes to begin the diploid generation.
A

A. Mitosis, pollination

B. Meiosis, fertilization

C. Pollination, fertilization

D. Fertilization, meiosis

E. Fertilization, mitosis

52
Q
  1. The portion of a flower that receives the pollen is the:
A

A. Style

B. Anther

C. Ovary

D. Stigma

E. Sepal

53
Q
  1. A tissue that is formed from a triploid nucleus and that stores food for the developing plant embryo is the:
A

A. Endosperm

B. Endoderm

C. Mesosperm

D. Mesoderm

E. Microspore

54
Q
  1. The plant hormone that triggers the withering of petals and stamens and promotes fruit ripening is:
A

A. Abscisic acid

B. Cytokinins

C. Gibberellins

D. Jasmonic acid

E. Ethylene

55
Q
  1. A directional response to touch exhibited by plants is called:
A

A. Thigmotropism

B. Gravitropism

C. Phototropism

D. Organotropism

E. Chemotropism

56
Q
  1. If a gardener cuts the apical meristem of a plant, lateral buds begin to grow which causes a bushier shape to develop. This is because the apical meristem normally secretes auxins that do which of the following?
A

A. Stimulate the growth of lateral buds

B. Suppress the growth of the apical meristem

C. Stimulate the growth of the apical meristem

D. Suppress the growth of lateral buds

E. Stimulate the growth of roots

57
Q
  1. The bacterium Rhizobium:
A

A. Triggers the development of root nodules in legumes

B. Enter plants through the root hairs

C. Live symbiotically within plant cells

D. Break the triple covalent bond in N2

E. All are correct

58
Q
  1. The attraction of a molecule to another type of substance is:
A

A. Adhesion

B. Hydrolysis

C. Condensation

D. Cohesion

E. Evaporation

59
Q
  1. During drought stress a plant hormone called _____________________ causes the stomata of a plant’s leaf to close.
A

A. Abscisic acid

B. Estrogen

C. Ethylene

D. Malic acid

E. Cuprous oxide

60
Q
  1. Scientists measured the pressure in the xylem of redwood trees at different heights and found that the higher they made their measurements, the lower the pressure. They extrapolated this to a pressure of zero, and concluded that the tallest a tree could grow is 122-130 meters. The tallest know tree on Earth is 112.7 meters. Which of the following most likely limits the height of trees?
A

A. The amount of transpiration in leaves

B. The amount of photosynthesis in leaves

C. The amount of energy needed to pump water to the tops of the trees

D. The strength of water cohesion

E. The ability to take up CO2

61
Q
  1. Carnivorous plants like Sarracenia purpurea are which of the following?
A

A. Producers and detritivores

B. Producers

C. Producers and consumers

D. Consumers

E. Detritivores

62
Q
  1. The substance that strengthens and supports cell walls allowing plants to grow tall and upright is:
A

A. Algin

B. Agar

C. Chlorophyll

D. The carotenoids

E. Lignin

63
Q
  1. A plant embryo (young sporophyte) packaged with a food supply in a tough outer coat is a:
A

A. Gemmae

B. Pollen grain

C. Seed

D. Sperm

E. Fruit

64
Q
  1. The adaptations that are most responsible for gymnosperms and angiosperms being able to live and reproduce in much drier habitats than bryophytes and plants such as club mosses are:
A

A. The production of spores and gemmae

B. The production of seeds, spores, and fronds

C. The production of vascular tissue, spores, fronds, and gemmae

D. The production of pollen grains and seeds

E. All of these are correct

65
Q

1.) Which of the following is/are NOT associated with coelomate ancestry?

A

A. Mollusks

B. Roundworms

C. Echinoderms

D. All of the above

E. A & B

66
Q

2.) If an organism lacks mesoderm then it cannot form which type of tissue?

A

A. Skin

B. Digestive Tract

C. Nervous Tissue

D. muscle
67
Q

3.) Which animal phylum has bilateral symmetry but an incomplete digestive tract?

A

A. Porifera

B. Platyhelminthes

C. Nematoda

D. Cnidaria
68
Q

4.) From an evolutionary perspective, which was the first phylum to exhibit a complete gut?

A

A. Nematoda

B. Platyhelminthes

C. Cnidaria

D. Mollusca

69
Q

5.)The free-swimming stage of the cnidarian life cycle is referred to as a ___________________ while the sessile stage is called a ________________.

A

A. polyp, medusa

B. polyp, madroporite

C. medusa, polyp

D. anthozoan, schyphozoan

70
Q

6.)Which of the following do NOT possess a brain?

A

A. Annelida

B. Echinodermata

C. Arthropods

D. Rotifers

E. All of the above

71
Q

7.) What is a water vascular system?

A

A. A network of canals that enables echinoderms to move

B. The circulatory system of an echinoderm

C. The excretory system of an echinoderm

D. All of the above
72
Q

8.)Earthworms use ______________________, while crayfish use _______________________ to grind food.

A

A. crop, gizzard

B. gastric mill, pharynx

C. muscles, teeth

D. gizzard, gastric mill

73
Q

9.) Which of the following is/are not members of Urochordata?

A

A. Amphibians

B. Salps

C. Tunicates

D. Lancelets

E. A & D

74
Q

10.) What is a notochord?

A

A. The spine of a chordate animal

B. The segments of the chordate body plan

C. A type of germ layer

D. A fibrous rod that runs down the back of a chordate.
75
Q

11) Coelocanthes are ____________________________.

A

A. Ray-finned fishes

B. Lobe-finned fishes

C. Lung fishes

D. Amphibians

76
Q

12.) Which of the following is not an extant reptiles group?

A

A. Tuataras

B. Crocodilians

C. Snakes

D. All of the above are extant

77
Q

13.) The largest order of living reptiles include the:

A

A. Snakes and lizards

B. Turtles

C. Crocodiles and alligators

D. Toads and frogs

78
Q

14.) Eutherians are:

A

A. Egg-laying mammals

B. Pouched mammals

C. Placental Mammals

D. Marsupials

79
Q

15.) How are birds, reptiles, and mammals similar?

A

A. They all have an amnion

B. Their body coverings are made of keratin

C. They are craniates

D. All of the above
80
Q

16.) Which of the following statements is false?

A

A. The development of a coelom was necessary before organisms could develop a large size.

B. Organisms with radial symmetry developed into the ultimate predators.

C. Segmentation allows increasing specialization of body parts.

D. The development of a complete digestive tract allows the specialization of regions to carry out a variety of functions.

E. none of these are false.

81
Q

17.) Unlike many other animals, sponges lack

A

A. a digestive tract.

B. a symmetrical body plan.

C. nerve cells

D. larvae.

E. all of these except larvae.

82
Q

18.) Which of the following is an example of a cartilaginous fish?

A

A. Eel

B. Trout

C. Shark

D. Hagfish
83
Q

19.) All except which of the following has a circulatory system?

A

A. insects

B. earthworms

C. crayfish

D. flukes

E. flukes and insects

84
Q

20.) Why is it important for amphibians to live in a moist habitat?

A

A. To promote gas exchange across their skin

B. To maintain their eggs

C. To maintain their buoyancy

D. Both A and B
85
Q

21.) The feeding habits of lampreys are best described as

A

A. suspension feeders

B. predatory

C. parasitic

D. scavenging

E. all of these

86
Q

22.) The most primitive but still existing, vertebrates are members of the taxon

A

A. Agnatha

B. Amphibia

C. Chondrichthyes

D. Aves

E. Osteichthyes

87
Q

23.) The first group to exhibit the amniotic egg was

A

A. Aves

B. Amphibia

C. Reptilia

D. Osteichthyes

E. Mammalia

88
Q

24.) Which of the following statements about the placenta is false?

A

A. It nourishes the young in the uterus.

B. It is entirely a maternal structure.

C. Nutrients pass to the fetus.

D. It promotes faster growth than does the pouch of marsupials.

E. It cleans the fetal blood of impurities.

89
Q

25.) Which group of mammals lays eggs?

A

A. Monotremes

B. Marsupials

C. Placental mammals

D. Both A and B
90
Q

1.) All of the following are functions of epithelial tissue except:

A

A) Forms glands.

B) Nutrient absorption. 

C) Covers organs and lines body cavities. 

D) Provides insulation.
91
Q

2.) Which of the following is not correctly matched?

A

A) skeletal muscle – multinucleate

B) neuroglia – supports neurons 

C) smooth muscle – lines intestinal tract 

D) neurons – cells that receive, transmit, and process information 

E) cardiac muscle – multinucleate and under voluntary control
92
Q

3.) In a homeostatic system where the body is responding to changes in temperature, which of the following is an example of an effector?

A

A) Receptors on the skin’s surface that detect temperature.

B) Muscle cells that contract to release heat when the temperature decreases. 

C) The brain which signals the muscles to start contracting. 

D) The firing of an action potential by the optic nerve.
93
Q

4.) A common property of all types of connective tissue is the

A

A) formation of solid or semi-solid arrangements of cells.

B) production of collagen. 

C) arrangement of cells in an extracellular matrix. 

D) arrangement of cells into multiple layers.
94
Q

5.) Blood is an example of what type of tissue?

A

A) Epithelium

B) Nervous 

C) Connective 

D) Muscle
95
Q

6.) Which class(es) of neuron would you expect to find in the peripheral nervous system?

A

A) Interneurons

B) Sensory neurons 

C) Motor neurons 

D) Both b and c
96
Q

7.) What is the likely effect of a loss of myelin along an axon?

A

A) It causes the action potential to speed up because more of the membrane is exposed.

B) It causes the action potential to slow down. 

C) It speeds up the transport of the sodium and potassium across the membrane. 

D) It increases the size of the action potential.
97
Q

8.) Which type of nervous system would be responsible for a rapid heart beat?

A

A) Autonomic

B) Sympathetic 

C) Parasympathetic 

D) Both a and b
98
Q

9.) During an action potential, which of the following occurs?

A

A) K+ rushes into the cell.

B) Na+ rushes out of the cell. 

C) Na+/K+ pump actively transports ions across the cell membrane. 

D) Both hyperpolarization and depolarization of the cell membrane occurs.
99
Q

10.) Which of the following is not essential in a reflex arc?

A

A) sensory neuron

B) motor neuron 

C) interneuron 

D) effector
100
Q

11.) How would your vision be affected if you only possessed rods?

A

A) There would be no effect—your vision would be normal.

B) You would only perceive the color red. 

C) You would only perceive black and white—no colors.
101
Q

12.) The region of the ear associated with the sense of balance is the

A

A) semicircular canals.

B) cochlear canal . 
C) basilar membrane. 

D) auditory canal.
102
Q

13.) A young boy wears a tie for the first time to his uncle’s wedding. When his mother first sets the tie in place he complains that it is too tight and he feels like he is choking. However, half an hour later, he is playing with his cousins and no longer notices the tie around his neck. This is an example of:

A

A) a graded potential

B) signal transduction 

C) threshold potential 

D) sensory adaptation
103
Q

14.) What is the optic nerve?

A

A) A single optic ganglion.

B) Many light receptors that work to integrate the signal. 

C) Axons of many rod and cone cells. 

D) Axons of interneurons of the retina.
104
Q

15.) Which of the following is incorrectly paired?

A

A) auditory canal – sound and pressure waves

B) middle ear – amplify sound 

C) hair cells – release neurotransmitter 

D) semicircular canal – equilibrium

E) auditory nerve – tectorial membrane

105
Q

16.) Which cell type is most likely to cause the bone loss associated with osteporosis?

A

A) Osteoblasts

B) Osteocytes 

C) Osteoclasts 

D) Both a and b
106
Q

17.) The functional/contractile unit of muscle is made up of what type of cells?

A

A) Sarcomeres

B) Myofibrils 

C) Myomeres 

D) Muscle fibers
107
Q

18.) What is the source of energy for muscle contraction?

A

A) ATP

B) Acetylcholine 

C) Creatine phosphate

D) Calcium
108
Q

19.) As a muscle contracts, _____________________.

A

A) the z line lengthens

B) overlap between myosin and actin filaments increases 

C) overlap between myosin and actin filaments decreases 

D) myosin filament becomes thicker as it shortens
109
Q

20.) Which of the following is incorrectly paired?

A

A) ATP – provides energy for contraction

B) calcium – binds to protein on actin filament forming a crossbridge 

C) acetylcholine – transmits signal from nerve to muscle 

D) endoplasmic reticulum – releases calcium ions into cytoplasm
110
Q

21.) What is the advantage of a four-chambered heart?

A

A) It can support blood flow through a larger organism.

B) It separates the blood from the pulmonary and systemic circulation. 

C) It enhances the mixing of blood from the pulmonary and systemic circulation. 

D) Both a and c.
111
Q

22.) Which chamber of the heart collects the oxygenated blood from the lungs?

A

A) Left atrium

B) Left ventricle 

C) Right atrium 

D) Right ventricle
112
Q

23.) Which type of blood vessel uses a thick layer of smooth muscle contractions to control blood flow?

A

A) A capillary

B) A venule 

C) A vein 

D) An arteriole
113
Q

24.) Which type of blood cell is responsible for clot formation?

A

A) Red blood cells

B) White blood cells 

C) Plasma 

D) Platelets
114
Q

25.) Which is the most prevalent molecule in blood plasma?

A

A) red blood cells

B) water 

C) white blood cells 

D) salts

BIO 102 FINAL (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions