Final Exam Flashcards
1
Q
A client is on long-term bed rest. Which condition does the nurse recognize as a risk to the client due to immobility?
A
Venous stasis
2
Q
A bedridden client has frequent gastrointestinal reflux. For which condition does the nurse assess?
A
Aspiration Pneumonia
3
Q
A nurse is providing care for a client who is prescribed to be on strict bed rest. Which intervention is best for the nurse to utilize in order to recognize a complication of immobility?
A
Frequent assessment of the client’s skin
4
Q
A client is hospitalized due to complications of immobility. The laboratory results indicate the client has developed septicemia. Which factor does the nurse recognize as causing septicemia?
A
Open pressure injury
5
Q
A client who is on prolonged bed rest develops kidney stones. Which factor does the nurse associate with the development of kidney stones?
A
Increase in parathyroid hormone
6
Q
The nurse is providing care for a client who is experiencing prolonged bed rest. Which change in cardiac function does the nurse anticipate?
A
Increase in heart rate
7
Q
A nurse is assessing the sleep history of different clients for OSA. Which client does the nurse recognize as exhibiting signs of OSA?
A
The client with excessive daytime sleepiness, snoring, and repetitive pauses in breathing during sleep.
8
Q
A client is on prolonged bed rest. To which psychological changes will the client be susceptible?
A
Increased anxiety, mood swings, and altered tactile responses
9
Q
Which gastrointestinal change does the nurse expect in clients on bed rest?
A
Slowed peristalsis, diminished appetite, and decreased abdominal and pelvic muscle strength.
10
Q
A client has a pigmented rash on the sun-exposed areas of their skin. The nurse recognizes which nutrient deficiency causing this condition?
A
Niacin
11
Q
Which nutrient deficiency causes beriberi?
A
Thiamin
12
Q
A client displays behaviors that involve a desire for perfection and success in academics, psychiatric characteristics of being socially isolated and emotional, and having a severely restricted diet. Which possible eating disorder does the nurse associate with this client?
A
Anorexia nervosa
13
Q
The nurse is preparing a class for women aimed at weight management. Which percentage of body fat does the nurse cite as being acceptable in women?
A
25% - 31%
14
Q
What is the percentage of body fat for a man to be considered obese?
A
30%-40%
15
Q
An adolescent client who is within the normal weight range admits to using laxatives and diuretics. The client displays increased symptoms of depression and report a sore throat and tooth decay. Which question does the nurse as the client to evaluate if the client is experiencing bulimia nervosa?
A
“Do you engage in self-induced purging?”
16
Q
How to calculate a BMI
A
BMI= weight in lbs x 703/ (height in inches)squared
ex. 258lb pt whose 5ft 4
(258x703) / (64x64) = 44.3
17
Q
Changes in levels of which electrolyte can reduce the body’s response to cardiac drugs?
A
Calcium
18
Q
An adult client who has hypervolemia reports a headache, muscle cramps, and vomiting. The nurse
notices confusion. Which condition has the client developed?
A
Hyponatremia
19
Q
The nurse is providing care for a client in chemotherapy. The client is experiencing nausea and
vomiting and reports numbness and tingling around the mouth. Before notifying the health-care
provider, which is the most important assessment for the nurse to perform?
A
Perform a chvostek’s and trousseau’s test
20
Q
The nurse is providing care for a client who reports severe vomiting and diarrhea for 4 days. Clinical
manifestations and laboratory results indicate the client has hypokalemia. Which is the daily
potassium requirement of humans for optimal cell functioning?
A
40 to 50 mEq
21
Q
A client is on digitalis, and the laboratory results show that the client is hypokalemic. Which effect
does hypokalemia have on the drug administered?
A
I can cause digitals toxicity
22
Q
A health-care provider prescribes IV potassium infusion for a hypokalemic client who is NPO
(nothing by mouth). Which intervention by the nurse is correct when administering IV potassium?
A
Validate the preparation of diluted IV potassium solution
23
Q
The nurse suspects a client has pseudohypocalcemia. Which laboratory result does the nurse monitor
as a probable cause of this condition?
A
Hypoalbuminemia
24
Q
Which condition is called hypocalcemia?
A
Serum Calcium less than 8.5mg/dL
25
ABG Normal Ranges
```
ROME
Ph 7.35-7.45
PO2 75-100
PCo2 35-45
Hco3 22-26
```
26
The nurse is analyzing an arterial blood gas report of a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease and respiratory acidosis. Which compensation mechanism is likely to occur?
The kidneys will retain bicarbonate.
27
The nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with renal failure. Which mechanism of
compensation for the acid–base disturbance does the nurse recognize in the client?
The client breathes rapidly to eliminate carbon dioxide.
28
A nurse is caring for a client who is anxious and dizzy after a traumatic experience. The arterial
blood gas findings include a pH level of 7.48, the partial pressure of oxygen at 110, partial pressure of
carbon dioxide at 25, and bicarbonate at 2D. Which initial intervention does the nurse implement?
Encourage the client to breathe into a paper bag
29
An unconscious client is brought to the hospital. The client’s arterial blood gases show a pH greater
than 7.45 and a bicarbonate level of 36 mEq/L. Which acid–base imbalance has the client
developed?
Metabolic alkalosis
30
An older adult client is exhibiting lethargy, confusion, and a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute.
The nurse sees that the last dose of medication administered through a client-controlled analgesia
pump was within the last 30 minutes. Which acid–base disorder might the client have developed?
Respiratory acidosis
31
Which factor does hyperventilation of the lungs increase?
Blood PH
32
The nurse is providing care for a client with an undiagnosed illness. Calculations of the anion gap
indicate an elevation, and the client is identified as being positive for metabolic acidosis. Which
question does the nurse ask the client?
“Are you taking regular doses of aspirin?”
33
The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client, which are blood pH 7.36, PCO2 48 mm Hg,
PO2 96 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L, and SaO2 98% on room air. Which condition does the nurse
recognize based on the displayed values?
Hypercapnia
34
Which is an acidic pH of blood?
6
35
Which condition develops due to metabolic acidosis with an elevated anion gap?
Ketoacidosis
36
. A client who is taking a licensure examination is nervous and breathing rapidly in the examination
hall. Which acid–base imbalance is the client at risk for developing?
Respiratory alkalosis
37
A comatose client’s blood pH is 7.1, partial pressure of carbon dioxide is 16 millimeters of mercury,
and bicarbonate concentration is 5 milliequivalent/liter. Which acid–base imbalance has the client
developed?
Metabolic acidosis
38
. Which is a physical assessment finding of respiratory acidosis?
Cyanosis
39
The nurse is providing care for a client experiencing respiratory acidosis. The health-care provider
prescribes that the client be placed on mechanical ventilation and be administered sodium
bicarbonate. Which understanding does the nurse have regarding the prescribed treatment?
Kidney compensation for acidosis is a slow process
40
A client reports a persistent cough. The nurse suspects the client may have developed tuberculosis
(TB). Which diagnostic test does the nurse expect the primary health-care provider to prescribe to
confirm this condition?
X-ray of the lungs
41
The nurse is reviewing the complete blood count of a client who presents with fever. The white
blood cell count of the client is 15,000 cells/mL. Which condition has the client developed?
Leukocytosis
42
A client develops an infection after dental implant surgery. Which condition is the client likely to
develop if the infection is left untreated?
Septicemia
43
An older adult client is receiving care for a stage IV pressure injury. The client is below normal
weight, has an oxygen saturation of 90%, and has a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which
nursing intervention does the nurse include in the client’s plan of care?
Implement a schedule for repositioning
44
The nurse recognizes which physiologic manifestation of acute inflammation?
The predominance of neutrophils
45
A registered nurse is teaching a client about the effects of nutrition on wound healing. Which
a statement made by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
“I will need dietary supplements for healing.”
46
A nurse is teaching a client with a decubitus ulcer about the nutrients required for wound healing.
Which statement made by the client indicates effective learning?
“Consuming orange juice will improve wound healing.”
47
Which component of the blood does the nurse associate with surrounding and consuming foreign
material?
White blood cells
48
A client was brought to the hospital with wounds sustained from a bicycling accident. Which initial
clinical intervention does the nurse carry out to facilitate optimal wound healing?
Irrigating vigorously
49
Which is a key symptom of meningitis when the nurse is assessing a client suspected of the
condition?
Nuchal rigidity
50
Which is the diagnostic goal for malaria considering that the pathogen multiplies in the red blood
cells (RBCs)?
Identify specific antibodies
51
Which symptom does the nurse specifically expect in a client diagnosed with variant
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?
Problems with hearing, seeing, and smelling
52
Which is the predominant immunoglobulin produced after a host’s re-exposure to an antigen?
Immunoglobulin G (IgG)
53
A 27-year-old client is pregnant. The blood group of the client and the fetus are incompatible. Which
antibodies produced by the mother against the fetus’s blood cells do not affect the fetus?
Immunoglobulin M (IgM)
54
The nurse is providing care for a client who is recovering from hepatitis A. The nurse is aware that
which immunity is developed by the client after experiencing this illness?
Active acquired adaptive immunity
55
Which is an example of passive acquired adaptive immunity?
Newborns receiving immunity through breast milk
56
The nurse is aware immunoglobulin A (IgA) is mostly found in which body fluid?
Tears
57
A registered nurse is teaching nursing students about passive acquired adaptive immunity. Which
statement made by a student nurse indicates the need for additional learning?
It is activated after the administration of a vaccine.”
58
A registered nurse is teaching a student nurse about assessing the results of a Mantoux test
administered to an adolescent client. The results exhibit a 5-mm tissue induration. Which statement
made by the student nurse indicates effective learning?
“The client has had an exposure to TB.”
59
A nurse is assessing four clients who are suspected of having systemic lupus erythematosus. Which
client, does the nurse recognize as having developed the disease?
Client 1 - Fever, butterfly rash on face, and joint inflammation
60
. A nurse is reviewing the prescriptions of four clients in the hospital. Comparing the effects of the
medications prescribed to the clients, the nurse identifies which client is most likely being treated for
the systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
Client 2- Hydrocortisone, hydroxychloroquine, and methotrexate
61
A client with scleroderma reports painful ulcers on the knees. Which condition does the nurse
recognize?
Calcinosis
62
The nurse is preparing a community presentation for clients about autoimmune disease. Which
disease does the nurse use as an example in the presentation?
RA
63
Which characteristic does the nurse associate with secondary polycythemia?
High erythropoietin level
64
The nurse is providing care for an African American client who is a carrier of the sickle cell anemia
(SCA) trait. The client carries a small amount of Hgb S and is usually asymptomatic for the disease.
Which question does the nurse ask the client to determine the cause of current manifestations of the
condition?
“Which stressors are currently in your life?”
65
A school-age client with sickle cell anemia experiences vaso-occlusive episodes. Which is the
the primary nursing objective while caring for this client?
Managing pain
66
The nurse is providing care for a client with chronic anemia. The client states, “Why don’t they just
give me transfusions when I need them?” Which factor does the nurse consider before giving the
client a response?
Slow blood loss requires iron, vitamin B12, and folic acid.
67
An adult client tells a nurse about siblings with sickle cell anemia. The client’s greatest concern is
about offspring being affected by the disease in the future. Which is the most appropriate advice the
nurse provides to the client?
“You and your partner need to seek genetic counseling."
68
The nurse is caring for a client who reports severe bleeding. The primary health-care provider
prescribes a diagnostic test that would measure the time taken for the blood to clot and examine the
extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Which diagnostic test does the nurse expect to be
performed?
Prothrombin time test
69
A client reports shortness of breath and severe pain in the back, chest, and muscles. Which condition
does the nurse recognize as a possible diagnosis for the client?
DIC
70
Which statement made by an attending nursing staff member indicates effective learning about the
coagulation factors and intrinsic pathway?
“The clotting time is measured by activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).”
71
Which is a supportive treatment for a client with disseminated intravascular coagulation?
Transfuse fresh frozen plasma
72
A nurse hears a bruit while assessing the carotid artery of a client. Which is the most probable reason
behind the bruit?
Turbulent blood flow in the artery
73
The registered nurse is teaching staff nurses the relationship between cardiac output (CO), blood
pressure (BP), and peripheral vascular resistance (PVR). A nurse is asked to recap the mathematical
equation that relates the three factors. Which equation provided by the nurse indicates the need for
further teaching?
“PVR / CO = BP”
correct equation is CO x PVR = BP
74
Which is a risk factor for hypertension?
Insufficient vitamin D in the diet
75
A registered nurse is preparing an in-service education session for nursing staff about the diagnostic
tests for cardiovascular diseases (CVDs). Which information does the nurse correctly include?
Hypothyroidism is a risk factor for atherosclerosis.
76
A client presents to the emergency room with reports of severe back pain described as a ripping
sensation. Further assessment reveals a different blood pressure in the right arm than in the left arm
of 20 mm Hg, generalized pallor, and tachycardia. Which possible condition causes the nurse to
immediately notify the health-care provider?
. Aortic dissection
77
The nurse is providing teaching to a client diagnosed with hypertension. When the nurse presents
information about smoking cessation, the client states, “I don’t plan to quit unless someone
convinces me of the connection between smoking and high blood pressure.” Which information does
the nurse present?
Nicotine increases blood pressure by causing vasoconstriction
78
Which is the most common type of vasculitis of small-sized arterioles?
Raynaud's disease
79
The nurse is providing care for a client with chronic hypertension who presents with chest pain. The
client is diagnosed with left ventricular hypertrophy. Which manifestation of the condition accounts
for the client’s symptoms?
An extra supply of coronary artery blood flow is unavailable.
80
An older adult client presents with complaints of crushing pain on the left side of the chest. After the
client is examined, it is found that the client has unstable angina. Which intervention to reduce the
pain is appropriate for the client?
Administering nitroglycerin
81
The nurse is presenting teaching to a client with stable angina. Which information is vital for the
nurse to teach and validate?
Consider angina pain that is more severe than usual to be a medical emergency
82
A client whose neck vein has bulged presents with a sharp pain in the chest. The electrocardiogram
shows an elevated ST segment, and the laboratory report shows an increase in the serum creatinine
and blood urea nitrogen. Which condition has the client developed?
Pericarditis
83
A client visits the hospital with chest pain, and the vital signs are 101.5°F body temperature and
125/85 mm Hg blood pressure. The echocardiogram of the client shows valve perforation, and a new
regurgitant murmur is heard during chest auscultation. Which condition has the client developed?
Infective endocarditis
84
A nurse is caring for a client with infective endocarditis. Which is the specific nursing intervention
for this client?
Administering ampicillin
85
A client is experiencing chest pain. On examination, a scratchy sound is heard through the
stethoscope. Which intervention does the nurse initiate?
Administering glucocorticoids
86
A client reports myalgia and fever. On physical examination, an S3 gallop rhythm was heard through
the stethoscope, and the client is diagnosed with myocarditis. For which reason is the client
prescribed angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors?
To treat heart failure
87
A client is experiencing severe chest pain unrelieved by nitroglycerine. Which diagnostic testing
supports the possibility of a myocardial infarction instead of unstable angina?
Blood tests indicate the elevation of specific enzymes
88
Which condition is characterized by the deposition of immune complexes, causing inflammation and
fluid accumulation in the pericardial sac?
Dressler’s syndrome
89
The nurse is assessing a client with pericarditis. Which assessment findings indicate pericarditis?
Muffled or distant heart sounds, Pericardial friction rub
| and Dyspnea
90
The nurse is caring for four clients with chest pain. Which client is treated for infective endocarditis?
The client with a dental implant and pacemaker
91
A middle-aged adult is diagnosed with Class III (moderate) heart failure. In which way is Class III
heart failure different from other classes of heart failure in the client, according to the New York
Association of Classification of Heart Failure?
The client with Class III (moderate) heart failure will have fatigue, palpitations, or
dyspnea while doing less-than-normal physical activities.
92
In which manner does the heart function when a client is diagnosed with heart failure?
The contractility and stroke volume decrease.
93
In which way is chronic heart failure different from acute heart failure?
Chronic heart failure gradually develops over a long period.
94
The registered nurse is reviewing information with coronary staff nurses about the
renin-angiotensin–aldosterone system (RAAS). Which statement made by an attending nurse
indicates understanding?
“RAAS is a mechanism that regulates arterial blood pressure.”
95
The nurse is reviewing instructions with a client being discharged home after experiencing heart
failure. When reviewing medications, the client asks about the addition of captopril to the previous
medication regimen. Which action of captopril will the nurse explain to the client?
Captopril lowers resistance against the left ventricle.
96
An older adult client presents with swollen ankles and fingers and reports that low-level activity
causes fatigue and heart palpitations. The client is diagnosed with heart failure. Which symptom
indicates the client’s condition is considered to be a Class III, moderate heart failure?
Dyspnea
97
At which intercostal space does the nurse place the stethoscope for auscultation of the pulmonic
valve?
The second intercostal space in the left sternal border
98
The registered nurse is teaching a client about medical treatment to prevent thromboemboli. Which
response by the client indicates effective learning?
“Anticoagulants work to prevent clotting.”
99
In which manner does the nurse document a client’s heart murmur that begins just before S2 and ends
at S2
Late systolic
100
The nurse evaluates a client’s heart murmur and determines the murmur to be loud. In which manner
does the nurse rate the heart murmur?
6/6
101
A left ventricular impulse is seen through the chest wall of a client. On palpation, a diastolic thrill is
palpated along the left sternal border, and a systolic thrill is palpable in the jugular notch. To which
pathological condition are these symptoms attributed?
Aortic valve insufficiency
102
. The nurse is auscultating a client’s heart sounds and notices a murmur. Which differentiates a heart
murmur that is caused by mitral valve stenosis from one that is caused by other mitral valves
disorders?
Opening snap followed by a diastolic murmur
103
While evaluating a client for a heart murmur, the nurse auscultates the murmur with the bell of a
stethoscope. For which type of heart murmur is the nurse assessing?
A low-pitched murmur
104
In which manner does the nurse distinguish a grade 5 heart murmur from a grade 6 heart murmur?
A grade 5 heart murmur may be heard when a stethoscope is partly off the chest
wall, whereas a grade 6 heart murmur is heard when a stethoscope is completely
off the chest wall.
105
. Which does the nurse hear when auscultating heart sounds in a client who has hypertrophic
cardiomyopathy?
A harsh, diamond-shaped systolic murmur
106
The nurse is caring for a client with aortic valve stenosis and ineffective diuretic treatment. The
client is not a candidate for surgery. Which procedure is likely to be prescribed for the client next?
Percutaneous aortic balloon valvuloplasty
107
The nurse is providing care for an older adult client after a left knee joint replacement. The client is
resisting offers for frequently assisted ambulation. Which manifestation during assessment causes the
nurse to suspect the formation of a deep venous thrombus?
Palpable warmth over a leg vein
108
A client with left lower extremity swelling and tenderness along a vein has to be assessed to rule out
deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which criteria would rule out DVT?
A negative D-dimer assay and Wells criteria score of less than 2
109
What is the purpose of a Greenfield filter?
To prevent a blood clot from traveling
110
A client reports to the hospital with a swollen mass on the left leg. Physical examination reveals that
the swollen mass is red, tender, and is textured like a rope. A review of the client’s records shows that
the client has recently undergone orthopedic surgery on the right leg. Which condition has the
client developed?
Deep venous thromboembolism (DVT)
111
Which drug administered to clients with deep venous thromboembolism (DVT) requires
international normalized ratio (INR) monitoring?
Warfarin
112
The nurse is providing care to a client diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) who is
prescribed anticoagulant therapy. The client asks the nurse about the reason for the medication.
Which condition does the nurse address as being a risk if the DVT is not treated appropriately?
Pulmonary embolism
113
The nurse is assessing four clients for deep vein thromboembolism (DVT). Which client does the
Does the nurse identify as being at risk of developing DVT?
The client with an elevated D-dimer level and a Well’s criteria score of 2
114
A nurse is reviewing the prescription records of four clients being treated for deep vein
thromboembolism (DVT). Which client needs a prothrombin time laboratory test to monitor the
therapeutic effects of the drug?
The client receiving warfarin (Coumadin)
115
Which unique respiratory infection is caused by a resilient bacterial organism that can remain
dormant in the body?
TB
116
Which pulmonary condition is caused by infiltration of bacteria, resulting in a localized area of
purulent inflammation, tissue necrosis, and a central area of liquefaction?
Lung abscess
117
While examining a client, the primary health-care provider finds the client has symptoms that
include cough, fever, sore throat, and general malaise. Physical assessment findings include mucus
production and rhonchi. Which treatment does the primary health-care provider administer to the
client?
Bronchodilator and antibiotics
118
The nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about acute sinusitis. Which statement by a student
indicates proper learning about sinusitis?
“Virus, bacteria, or both organism types may be responsible for acute sinusitis.”
119
During the assessment of a client’s physical findings, the nurse ascertains the client has red, swollen,
inflamed pharynx and tonsils. Which condition does the nurse suspect?
Epiglottitis
120
During the physical assessment of a client, the primary health-care provider observes facial pain.
The client states the pain gets worse when leaning forward. Which conclusion does the primary
health-care provider reach about the client’s diagnosis?
Sinusitis
121
In the prescribed care of a client, the nurse is aware of treatment involving decongestants,
antihistamines, saline sprays, and heated mists. Which condition does the nurse recognize as being
treated by these types of medications?
Sinusitis
122
The nurse is assigned to care for a client diagnosed with a lung abscess. Which information does the
nurse understand the origin and risk factors leading to lung abscess?
Staphylococcal endocarditis is a source of lung abscesses
123
A client admitted with a lung abscess has developed an area of pulmonary tissue necrosis. Which is
the most appropriate treatment to manage this complication?
Surgical treatment
124
The primary health-care provider prescribes decongestants for a client. Which condition is most
likely present?
Sinusitis
125
What is myringitis
Inflammation of the Otis media tympanic membrane
126
Which condition is also known as hypoventilation syndrome?
Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)
127
The nurse is providing care for a client with a clot that traveled to the pulmonary arterial circulation
and caused an obstruction of the arterial blood flow through the lungs. Which terminology does the
nurse use to document the condition?
Pulmonary embolism
128
A nurse suspects a client may have obstructive sleep apnea (OSA). Which diagnostic tool does the
nurse expect to be used?
Polysomnography
129
A middle-aged client presents with a cough producing large amounts of mucus. The client tells the
nurse, “I get this and keep it all winter. My wife says I cough until I turn blue.” With suspicion of
chronic bronchitis, which question does the nurse ask first?
“So, how many years have you had this problem?”
130
When viewing the recent chest x-rays of a client, the nurse finds nodules and honeycomb lung
patterns. The health-care provider points out the client’s previous chest x-ray report identifying
diffused “ground glass” markings in the lower lung fields. Which condition does the nurse conclude
from this information?
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
131
The nurse is advising a client about adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which statement
validates the nurse’s understanding of the disorder?
“ARDS causes multiple organ failure and critical illness.”
132
The nurse is teaching a client about obstructive sleep apnea (OSA). Which treatment, according to
the nurse, is most appropriate to keep the airways from closing?
CPAP
133
A client has a history of kidney stones and states, “My whole family has kidney stones.” Which is
the most likely reason for the client’s formation of renal calculi?
A genetic predisposition
134
. The nurse is reviewing the difference between acute kidney injury and chronic renal failure. Which
client, does the nurse identify as having chronic renal failure?
Diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus
135
Which statement made by a nurse pertains to the theory of protein deficiency as a possible cause of
the formation of renal calculi?
“There is a deficiency of the protein nephrocalcin, which inhibits stone formation.”
136
A client presents with a specific type of renal calculi that is not widely prevalent. The nurse knows
this client has been undergoing chemotherapy for the treatment of cancer. Which is an associated
characteristic of the type of renal calculi that is most likely to be present in this client?
High purine levels in the bloodstream
137
Which information does the nurse provide to a client regarding the rate of recurrence of urolithiasis
within 5 years after it occurs in a client for the first time?
35%
138
The nurse is providing care for a client with a spinal cord injury who is having difficulty urinating. If
the client is diagnosed with a calculi in the ureter, which type of stone does the nurse expect to be
present?
Struvite
139
The nurse is teaching an in-service to nurses about the epidemiology of lower urinary tract infections
(UTIs). Which statement made by an attending nurse indicates a need for clarification?
“Up to 40% of men in the United States, aged 20 to 40 years, have suffered a lower
UTI.”
140
Which statement about the pathophysiology of lower urinary tract infections (UTIs) is true?
Any obstruction of urinary outflow decreases the bladder’s resistance to bacterial
infection.
141
Which is a risk factor for both bacterial and fungal urinary tract infections (UTIs)?
Urinary catheters
142
Which type of stone, in the case of urolithiasis, is associated with indwelling catheters?
Struvite
143
. The nurse is preparing a client for urodynamic studies. Which information does the nurse tell the
client the study will provide?
Observes the actual process of voiding
144
The nurse is reviewing the pathology report on a kidney stone passed by a client. If the client’s stone
is identified as a cysteine stone, which type of client teaching does the nurse perform?
A genetic disorder
145
The nurse is reviewing the epidemiology of urolithiasis. Which conclusion drawn by the nurse indicates
the need for an additional review?
“The incidence of urolithiasis in women peaks in the late 50s.”
146
Which disorder does the nurse recognize as being caused by an increase in the hormones that are
secreted from the adrenal gland?
Cushing's syndrome
147
A client who underwent laryngotomy presented with depression, increased sensitivity to cold, and
constipation. On assessment, the nurse identifies the client with a puffy face and periorbital edema.
The blood report shows a high thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level. Which does the nurse
interpret from the findings?
The client has hypothyroidism
148
Which condition exhibits “moon facies” as a characteristic symptom?
Cushing’s syndrome
149
A client is being scheduled for thyroid testing. For which diagnostic test does the nurse prepare the
client for detecting hyperactivity of the thyroid gland?
Radioactive iodine scan
150
Which endocrine disorder involves treatment using antithyroid hormone medication such as
propylthiouracil (PTU)?
Graves’s disease
151
The nurse educator is reviewing treatment strategies that are beneficial to a client with
hyperparathyroidism with a group of staff nurses. Which statement by an attending nurse does the
nurse educator correct?
“The client is prescribed bisphosphonates stimulate osteoclast activity.”
152
Which value of cortisol levels does the nurse expect to find in the laboratory report of a client with
Cushing’s disease?
3.8 mcg/dL
153
The nurse finds the symptoms of thyroid dysfunction in a client are due to abnormal pituitary
activity. The client’s laboratory report shows a low TSH level, which supports the nurse’s finding.
Which type of endocrine disorder is likely to present in the client?
Secondary hypothyroidism
154
The nurse observes the final diagnosis of four clients in their case reports as given here. In which
client, does the nurse notice the presence of Chvostek’s sign and Trousseau’s sign?
The client diagnosed with hypoparathyroidism
155
The nurse reviews the laboratory reports of a client with diabetes mellitus and concludes that the
client has diabetic nephropathy. Which finding supports the nurse’s conclusion?
Albumin in urine
156
Which is the most common complication expected in clients with type 1 diabetes?
DKA
157
The laboratory report of a client shows arterial blood pH of 7.6, a blood glucose level of 650 mg/dL,
and a serum bicarbonate level of 17 mEq/L. Which conclusion does the nurse draw from these
laboratory findings?
The client has a hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome.
158
The nurse is teaching a group of staff nurses about managing hyperosmolar hyperglycemic
syndrome (HHS) in clients. Which response by an attending nurse indicates effective learning?
“Fluids are administered before administering IV insulin to the client.”
159
Which symptoms does the nurse observe in a client with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome?
Polyuria, confusion, polydipsia
160
A client diagnosed with dysmenorrhea is prescribed ibuprofen and hormonal contraceptives. Which outcome in the client indicates the effectiveness of the therapy?
No painful experience during the first 2 days of the menstrual period.
161
What are some possible causes of dysmenorrhea?
Endometrosis and prostaglandins
162
The registered nurse is teaching a client with dysmenorrhea about her treatment plan. Which
statement made by the client indicates the need for additional teaching?
“I should avoid the use of oral contraceptives.”
163
Definition of orchitis
Inflammation of testicles
164
A nurse observes that a newborn has an abnormally positioned urethral orifice of the penis. Which
disorder does the nurse suspect in the newborn?
Hypospadias
165
Which physical finding in a client will lead a nurse to suspect paraphimosis?
Permanent retraction of the foreskin behind the tip of the penis
166
While assessing an adolescent male client, the nurse finds erythema, swelling, and tenderness of the
scrotum. The client also reports the presence of pain. Which disorder does the nurse suspect in the
client?
Testicular torsion
167
While assessing a male client, a nurse observes swelling in the scrotum due to the collection of
serous fluid. Which condition does the nurse suspect in the client?
Hydrocele
168
The nurse is reviewing the medical records of a client who is pregnant and finds the client has a
Chlamydia infection. Which complication is the nurse aware of in the newborn if the client is not
treated?
Conjunctivitis
169
The nurse is reviewing the medical records of a client that indicates the presence of multiple clusters
of fleshy growths on the vagina. Which conclusion does the nurse interpret from these findings?
The client has condyloma acuminata.
170
When reviewing a pathology report, the nurse associates an identified pathogen with a certain
condition. Which microorganism does the nurse associate with inclusion conjunctivitis?
Chlamydia trachomatis
171
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After reviewing the laboratory reports for a client, the nurse finds the client has chronic pelvic
inflammatory disorder (PID). Which condition does the nurse recognize as a risk to the client?
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Inflammation of the fallopian tubes
172
A client is diagnosed with condyloma acuminata. Which test does the nurse expect to be most
beneficial to detect the viral genome?
Biopsy
173
After reviewing the medical records of a client, the nurse finds that the client was previously
diagnosed with mild salpingitis and later had tubal dysfunction. The nurse also finds strains of
Chlamydia in the client’s blood specimen. Which does the nurse interpret from these findings?
The client has silent pelvic inflammatory disease.
174
The nurse is preparing a client for a laparoscopic fundoplication. Reports on previously performed
endoscopy and barium tests are not yet available. On reviewing the medical history, the nurse notes
the client complains of dysphagia, substernal burning, and belching. Which condition does the nurse
expect to be identified in the client?
Hiatal Hernia
175
The nurse is assessing a client who reports nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and discomfort. The
nurse finds that the abdomen is firm and peristalsis is visible. The laboratory reports show electrolyte
imbalances. Which condition does the nurse anticipate in the client?
Pyloric stenosis
176
The health-care provider prescribes a fasting serum gastrin level test and a magnetic resonance
imaging (MRI) scan for symptoms of peptic ulcer. On reviewing the test reports, the nurse finds a
diagnosis of hypergastrinemia and a tumor. The nurse administers the prescribed proton pump
inhibitors. Which condition does the nurse identify?
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
177
A client is admitted into the emergency room with hematemesis; dark urine; and black, tarry feces.
On examination, the nurse finds that the client has weight loss and a distended abdomen. Which
condition does the nurse suspect in the client?
Esophageal varices
178
The nurse is providing care for a client in the emergency room with an initial presence of pain in the
abdomen. Assessment elicits the presence of rebound pain at McBurney’s point, an ultrasound is
positive for an inflamed appendix, and white blood cells (WBCs) are moderately elevated. Which
prescription does the nurse anticipate from the health-care provider?
Administer oral antibiotics and explain continued use at home
179
. The staff nurses are reviewing precautions to be taken while caring for a client with suspected need
of surgery for appendicitis. Which statement made by a nurse indicates understanding?
“The client is not given prediagnosis pain medications.”
180
Which part of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract is involved in the production of protective mucus?
Goblet cells
181
The nurse is preparing information for a client newly diagnosed with ulcerative colitis. Which
information is more likely associated with Crohn’s disease than with ulcerative colitis?
The patient is prone to anal fistula and fissure formation
182
The nurse reviews the colonoscopy report on a client. The nurse concludes that which disorder is
diagnosed by the presence of a “cobblestoning” appearance?
Crohn's disease
183
Upon physical examination, the nurse detects abdominal tenderness, increased bowel sounds
accompanied by signs of borborygmi, abdominal distension, and tympany on percussion. Which
diagnostic test distinguishes Crohn’s disease from ulcerative colitis in the client?
Colonoscopy
184
The nurse is reviewing the treatment plan for Crohn’s disease with staff nurses. Which statement
made by a nurse indicates understanding?
“Cholestyramine is prescribed to clients with the ileal disease.”
185
In a client diagnosed with large bowel obstruction, an abdominal x-ray is performed, which shows
the presence of free air under the diaphragm. After the diagnosis, the nurse initiates prophylactic
antibiotic therapy and fluid replacement therapy per the prescriptions of the health-care provider.
Which outcome in the client indicates the effectiveness of the therapy?
The client has normal levels of serum amylase
186
Which diagnostic test does the health-care provider order to get the most accurate information
related to appendicitis?
CT scan
187
The nurse is reviewing with a group of staff nurses the use of antibiotics in a client diagnosed with
appendicitis. Which statement made by a nurse indicates understanding?
“Antibiotics are administered before an operation and continued until 48 hours
after the operation.”
188
Which is a characteristic feature of ulcerative colitis?
Continuous areas of inflammation in the large intestine
189
The health-care provider asks a client to lie down facing upwards and flex the right thigh at the hip.
The client says, “I cannot do this. This position is hurting my abdomen.” Which sign of appendicitis
does the nurse recognize in this client?
Psoas sign
190
While assessing a client who has liver dysfunction, the nurse finds the client has shifting abdominal
dullness. Which condition does the nurse suspect in the client?
Ascites
191
The nurse is providing care for a client with suspected gallbladder disease. Assessment by the nurse
reveals jaundice, dark-colored urine, and upper right quadrant abdominal pain. Based on the
assessment findings, which is the most likely cause of the client’s condition?
A gallstone lodged in the common bile duct
192
A physical examination of a client elicits the Cullen sign and Grey-Turner sign. Which condition
does the nurse suspect in the client?
Acute pancreatitis
193
The nurse is assessing a client with episodic abdominal pain, constipation, and flatulence. Upon
physical assessment and review of the laboratory findings, the nurse concludes the client has
jaundice and elevated serum amylase. Which condition does the nurse suspect in the client?
Chronic pancreatitis
194
The nurse finds increased glucose levels in a client with chronic pancreatitis. Which does the nurse
interpret from the finding?
The client’s beta cells are damaged
195
The nurse instructor is teaching a group of nursing students about the pathophysiology of
cholecystitis. The nursing instructor asks, “What happens during chronic cholecystitis?” Which
statement by a student nurse indicates effective learning?
“The gallbladder becomes thickened and functions poorly.”
196
A client is brought to the hospital because of severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. The
client reports increased pain in the abdomen and in the epigastric region radiating to the back when
lying supine. During physical assessment, the nurse finds the client has fever and hypotension.
Which condition does the nurse suspect from these findings?
The client has acute pancreatitis.
197
A nurse is caring for a client with cholecystitis and diagnosed with pruritus. Which medication does
the nurse expect the health-care provider to prescribe for the client?
Cholestyramine (Questran)
198
The nurse is preparing teaching material to present to a community group about the common risk
factors for cholecystitis. Which factor does the nurse include for female attendees?
Incidence of multiple pregnancies
199
The nurse is reviewing anatomy and physiology with staff nurses. Which structure does the nurse
identify as being at risk for choledocholithiasis?
Common bile duct
200
The nurse is reviewing both the functions and dysfunctions of the pancreas. Which diagnosis related
to pancreatic dysfunction is the greatest risk to the client with chronic pancreatitis?
Gland destruction
201
The nurse is providing care for a client admitted with a diagnosis of cerebrovascular accident. The
client exhibits left-side deficits, memory deficits, and emotional breakdowns coupled with
aggressive behaviors. Which area does the nurse identify as being affected based on assessment
findings?
Frontal lobe
202
The nurse finds that a client has motor and sensory loss on the right side of the body. The diagnostic
tests reveal ischemia and the confirmation of an ischemic stroke. Which additional finding indicates
the client has ischemia in the left hemisphere?
Speech problem
203
The nurse is assessing a client with a diagnosis of a cerebrovascular accident. The client is not able to
determine the relationship between designated body parts and other body parts, which the nurse
records as proprioception. Which lobe of the cerebrum does the nurse determine is involved?
Parietal lobe
204
The nurse is examining a client involved in a motor vehicle accident. The client is unable to recall
past events and places visited before the accident. Which lobe of the cerebrum does the nurse
suspect has been injured?
Frontal lobe
205
The nurse is providing care for a client diagnosed with a hemorrhagic stroke. Which part of the brain
is at greatest risk for interrupting cardiac and respiratory functions?
Medulla oblongata
206
The nurse is assessing the level of consciousness (LOC) of a client with a head injury. The client is
totally unresponsive. What is the score using the National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale
3
207
The research nurse, while participating in clinical trials, finds a client has receptive aphasia. Which
pathophysiological change does the nurse expect to be the cause of this condition in the client?
Dysfunction in Wernicke’s area
208
The nurse is counseling family members of a client diagnosed with a stroke. The family asks why
the client cannot interpret or analyze visual information. Which part of the brain does the nurse
identify as being damaged?
Occipital
209
After performing a neurological examination on a client suspected of having a stroke, the nurse
concludes that the client has a moderately severe impairment based on the National Institutes of
Health Stroke Scale (NIHSS). Which score enabled the nurse to reach this conclusion?
16
210
The nurse is assessing the visual fields in a client who was diagnosed with a stroke. The nurse uses
the National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale (NIHSS) to document a score of 3 in the client’s
assessment records. Which condition is associated with the score?
Bilateral hemianopia
211
The nurse is providing care for multiple clients who are reporting headaches. The nurse’s goal is to
provide preventive care for the development of a migraine. Which client does the nurse prioritize as
the first needing preventive therapy?
A female client who is on therapy with vasodilators
212
The nurse is obtaining history on a client who reports recent, severe headaches. Which factor(s) in
the client’s history most likely causes the nurse to identify migraine headaches?
Female gender, 58 years of age
213
After a theoretical session about edrophonium (Tensilon) testing, the nurse educator asks a staff
nurse to select a client from a group with different neurological disorders on which to perform the
test. Which client is the nurse expected to select?
A client with myasthenia gravis
214
Which pathophysiological condition particularly activates the trigeminovascular system?
Cluster headache
215
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of head injury in a motor vehicle accident. The client
reports a lack of coordination and imbalance since the accident. Which part of the cerebrum does the
nurse suspect to have been damaged?
Cerebellum
216
While reviewing the clinical history of a client with brain injury, the nurse finds bruising of the
mastoid process behind the ear of the affected side. Which fracture should the nurse suspect in the
client?
Basilar skull fracture
217
Which manifestation does the nurse expect to find on assessment of a client with a skull fracture in
the frontal fossa?
Periorbital ecchymosis
218
Laboratory reports for a client after an accident show a fracture in the temporal bone of the middle
ear. Which type of fracture does the nurse suspect in this client?
Basilar skull fracture
219
While assessing a client with nausea and dizziness, the nurse observes shortness of breath and a
verbal expression of overwhelming fear. Which disorder does the nurse anticipate from the findings?
Panic disorder
220
Feelings of uncontrollable worry and fear often accompanied
| by trembling and hyperventilation
General anxiety disorder
221
A client presents with a swollen left thigh and a lower extremity that appears shortened. Which is the
client’s most likely condition recognized by the nurse?
Impacted femur shaft fracture
222
The nurse is preparing to discharge a client to a rehabilitation facility after a total hip replacement
because of a hip fracture. Which summary of the client’s hospitalization best indicates adequate
nursing care?
Absence of pulmonary complications
223
The nurse is providing care for a client with nonunion at the site of a fracture in a lower extremity.
After 12 weeks of monitoring, the fracture site shows no signs of healing. Which prescription does
the nurse anticipate from the health-care provider?
Placement of a bone graft at the site
224
Which diagnostic test does the nurse expect the health-care provider to prescribe to confirm a
diagnosis of osteoporosis?
DEXA scan
225
The nurse observes that an older adult client has a hunched back. Which disorder does the nurse
suspect?
osteoporosis
226
Which statement is true regarding rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis?
Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease
227
The nurse is providing care for a client diagnosed with iritis and pulmonary fibrosis. Which
condition does the nurse associate with the client’s diagnosis?
Ankylosing spondylitis
228
The nurse is providing care for an older female client diagnosed with gout. Which statement by the
nurse to the client conveys correct information?
“Estrogen protects against hyperuricemia.”
229
Which statement made by a client with musculoskeletal inflammation supports the nurse’s suspicion
of polymyalgia rheumatica?
“I thought I had the flu, but the symptoms have lasted too long.”
230
The laboratory report for a client shows elevated levels of interleukin-2 (IL-2) and interleukin-6
(IL-6). Which musculoskeletal disorder does the nurse suspect in the client?
Polymyalgia rheumatica
231
A nurse is providing care for a client diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis. For which test does the
nurse prepare the client?
X-ray
232
The radiographic reports of a client reveal inflammation of the metatarsophalangeal joint of the great
toe. Which disorder should the nurse suspect in the client?
Gout
233
The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of gout. Which medication in the client’s
prescription does the nurse suspect to decrease uric acid synthesis?
Allopurinol
234
The nurse is teaching a client nonpharmacological therapy to treat gout. Which statement by the
client indicates the need for additional teaching?
“I should increase the intake of meats.”
235
The nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client. Which pathogen does the nurse recognize as
causing ankylosing spondylitis?
Klebsiella pneumoniae
236
A client has a skin rash presenting as an oval-shaped and red-colored lesion. On assessment, the
nurse finds enlargement of lymph nodes in this client. Which condition does the nurse suspect in the
client?
Lyme disease
237
Which condition is related to ankylosing spondylitis?
Inflammation where tendons and ligaments join the bone around a joint. Pain in shoulders and hips.
238
The nurse is assessing a client with thyroid cancer and anticipates the client has a benign tumor.
Which finding helps the nurse to reach this conclusion?
The sudden onset of pain in the thyroid nodules
239
A health-care provider performs an examination on a client diagnosed with colon cancer and finds
that the tumor has invaded into the visceral peritoneum. Which stage of colon cancer does the nurse
expect to be documented in the client’s medical record?
Stage IIB.
240
The nurse is obtaining a history from a client with a skin disorder. The client states, “I have tried to
remove the scales on my skin, but then they bleed.” Which terminology does the nurse associate
with the client’s comment?
Auspitz sign
241
While caring for a client with an autoimmune skin disorder, the nurse observes a red
butterfly-patterned lesion over the client’s nose and cheeks. After reviewing the skin biopsy reports,
the nurse also finds deposits of immunoglobulin M (IgM) in the lesions. Which skin disorder does
the nurse expect to find in the medical record of this client?
Systemic lupus erythematosus
242
While caring for a client with a skin disorder, the nurse observes a cherry-red, dome-shaped papule
over the abdomen of the client. Which skin disorder does the nurse anticipate in this client, based on
this finding?
Senile angiomas
243
Which birthmarks are characterized by pink, patchlike lesions that occur from permanent blood
vessel abnormalities?
Port wine stains
244
A school-age client diagnosed with Stevens-Johnson syndrome is admitted to the hospital. Which symptom does the nurse find in this client?
A bull’s-eye lesion
245
A client shows noninflammatory open comedones on the skin along with the presence of lesions.
Which microorganism infection does the nurse suspect in the client?
Propionibacterium acnes
246
While assessing a client, the nurse finds evidence of superficial burns. Which treatment does the
nurse anticipate to be beneficial for this client?
Analgesics
247
While assessing a client, a nurse finds the skin on the wrist appears pearl-pink, wet, and blistered and
the client’s dermis is exposed. The client reports exposure to nearly boiling water. Which diagnosis
does the nurse make?
The client has superficial partial-thickness burns.
248
A client arrives in the emergency department with burns. After assessing a client, the nurse
determines there is no need for a diagnostic evaluation of the burns. Which type of burns does the
nurse identify on the client?
Superficial burns
249
Parents bring a child to the emergency department because of the ingestion of a corrosive cleaner.
Which physical manifestation does the nurse specifically expect to find during assessment?
Gray coloring of the skin
250
Which physiological change can be observed in the prodromal stage of radiation burns in a client
who has been exposed to 200 rads?
Pruritis
251
While caring for a client with thermal injury of approximately 50% of the total body surface area
(TBSA), the nurse assesses stridor in the client. Which is the priority nursing intervention for this
client?
. Intubating the client
252
While caring for a client with full-thickness burns, the nurse finds the client is exhibiting
manifestations of Curling’s ulcer. Which classification of medication does the nurse anticipate being
prescribed for the client?
PPI
253
After assessing the burns on a client, the nurse documents the finding as “first-degree burns” in the
client’s medical records. Which assessment finding supports the nurse’s documentation?
Superficial burns
254
While assessing the eye of a client, the nurse finds that the skin around the eye is flaking, and the
client has greasy eyelids that appear scaly. Which interpretation does the nurse make from these
findings?
The client has blepharitis
255
The school nurse notices a number of children exhibiting redness and drainage of the eyes along
with complaints of itching. For which suspected eye infection does the school nurse send the
affected children home?
Conjunctivitis
256
A client has a painful, swollen eyelid and reports severe pain on exposure to sunlight. The
health-care provider prescribes surgical excision for the client. Which eye infection does the nurse
identify in the client?
Chalazion
257
Which vision impairment is associated with elongation of the eyeball?
Myopia
258
On reviewing a client’s eyeglass prescription, the nurse finds that the client is prescribed concave
lenses for the treatment of impaired vision. Which condition does the nurse identify in the client?
Myopia
259
. A client who is middle-aged has impaired vision corrected with reading glasses. Which vision
impairment does the nurse place in the client’s medical history?
Presbyopia
260
A client reports sensations of dry and irritated eyes. After examination, the health-care provider
diagnoses the client with exophthalmos. Which most common cause of this condition does the nurse
identify?
Hyperthyroidism
261
While assessing a client with glaucoma, the nurse uses a tonometry instrument. Which clinical
information does the nurse document from this instrument?
Measurement of intraocular pressure
262
Which eye disorder is associated with irregular clumping of proteinaceous substances within the
lens?
Cataract
263
A client reports difficulty hearing. The nurse finds that the client’s external ear exhibits a cause for
the altered function. Which finding in the client supports the nurse’s finding?
The eardrum is inflamed
264
During a client assessment, a client reports a loss of hearing to the nurse. The nurse also finds an
increased volume of endolymph fluid in the inner ear. Which instruction does the nurse give the
client?
“You should eat a low-salt diet.”
265
The nurse reviews a culture report on a client’s ear secretions, which identifies the presence of
Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas bacterial strains. The client initially presented with pain,
tenderness, and itching on the auricle. Which conclusion does the nurse conclude from these
findings?
The client has otitis externa.
266
The nurse finds an accumulation of yellow-brown–colored earwax in the client’s ear canal while
assessing a client who reports hearing difficulty. Which is an appropriate nursing intervention?
Irrigate or use a curette to remove the earwax.
267
. The nurse is teaching care measures to be followed by a client who has otitis externa. Which
instruction by the nurse is most beneficial to the client?
“You should use earplugs while you are bathing.”
268
. The nurse finds pulmonary infiltrates in the chest x-ray reports of a client. The arterial blood gas
(ABG) reports show hypoxemia, and a white blood cell (WBC) with differential count shows
leukocytosis. Which condition does the nurse suspect in the client, based on these findings?
Adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
269
The nurse is providing care for a client admitted to the hospital for complications related to chronic
obstructive pulmonary disease. Which manifestation causes the nurse to monitor the client for the
development of systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)?
The temperature of 96.2°F (35.7°C)
270
Which type of shock occurs as a result of injury to the spinal cord or brain?
Neurogenic
271
After assessing the skin color and mental status of a client, the nurse concludes that the client is
experiencing cardiac shock. Which finding observed in the client supports the nurse’s conclusion?
Cyanotic; anxious
272
The nurse is caring for a client admitted to the emergency department for life-threatening
hypoxemia. The nurse learns the client has developed a systemic infection related to a lung infection.
Which stage of the disease progression is the nurse observing in the client?
Sepsis
273
The nurse is assessing a confused client admitted to the emergency department with decreased
urinary output and cyanotic fingers. The nurse finds decreased blood pressure, increased heart rate,
increased respiratory rate, and hypothermia. The laboratory report shows respiratory acidosis. Which
condition does the nurse interpret from the findings?
The client has septic shock
274
Which is an intestinal hormone that increases cellular sensitivity to insulin during shock?
Glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1)
275
The nurse is providing care for a client being treated in the intensive care unit (ICU) for a major
infection. The health-care provider prescribes monitoring of the blood glucose levels. Which
condition does the nurse associate with the prescribed care?
Systemic inflammatory response syndrome
276
The nurse is providing care for a client after major surgery requiring multiple blood transfusions.
The health-care provider prescribes frequent laboratory testing. The nurse is asked to call
immediately if the client exhibits any manifestations of disseminated intravascular coagulopathy
(DIC). Which early assessment finding warrants an immediate call from the nurse?
Mottling and coolness of the extremities
277
Which medications does the nurse find in the prescriptions of a client diagnosed with anaphylactic
shock?
Antihistamines, and glucocorticoids
278
Which part of the body does the nurse identify as the major producer of WBC?
Bone marrow
279
The CBC report for a client with enlarged lymph nodes and epistaxis indicates the development of ALL. For which reason does the nurse initiate client teaching about safety and injury prevention?
Crowding of platelets by blast cells.
280
Which WBC are first responders?
Macrophages
281
A client with an infection is brought to an acute care facility. The CBC with the differential report shows a WBC of 3,000/uL. Which condition has the client developed
Leukopenia
282
On reviewing the blood reports of a client who presents with fever, the nurse finds the WBC is 13,000/microliter. Which term does the nurse use when documenting this finding?
Leukocytosis
283
Medications contraindicated in Cushing's?
Steroids such as prednisone.
284
Cancer linked to HPV?
Cervical
