Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What type of drowning does a laryngospam still persist after a person loses consciousness?

A

dry drowning

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2
Q

What are signs of RD in a near-drowning patient?

A
  • serosangineous fluids
  • coughing
  • atelectasis
  • rales
  • asymmetric breath sounds
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3
Q

What therapies are warranted for children with smoke inhalation injuries?

A
  • expeditious intubation
  • administration of racemic epi
  • administration of corticosteroids
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4
Q

What are the primary means of diagnosing direct lung injury?

A

bronchoscopy

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5
Q

What is the most commonly used treatment of inhalation injuries?

A

CPT

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6
Q

What is the half-life of carboxyHgb at room air?

A

5 hours

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7
Q

What ABG results show evidence of cyanide poisoning?

A

metabolic acidosis despite adequate oxygenation

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8
Q

What is the leading cause of death among burn patients?

A

inhalation injury

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9
Q

(T/F) persistent lung damage can lead to pulmonary hypertension and heart failure

A

true

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10
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of a possible pediatric lung injury?

A
  • signed nares
  • soot in the mouth or nose
  • facial or neck burns
  • increased WOB and retractions
  • cyanosis
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11
Q

An upper airway foreign body aspiration manifests as?

A
  • coughing
  • different phonation
  • wheezing/stridor
  • retractions
  • drooling
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12
Q

(T/F) Lower airway obstruction is difficult to diagnose and may lead to secondary pulmonary edema

A

true

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13
Q

(T/F) the best treatment for an upper airway obstruction is for a patient that is coughing is to provide no medical intervention until the object is removed or the child deteriorates

A

true

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14
Q

What is a life-threatening complication associated with bronchiolitis?

A

apnea

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15
Q

What are some clinical signs and symptoms of bronchiolitis?

A
  • cough
  • retractions
  • cyanosis
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16
Q

What clinical signs and symptoms are used to determine the severity of bronchiolitis?

A
  • RR
  • hypoxemia-SpO2
  • accessory muscle use
  • WOB
  • Breath sounds
  • mental status
  • feedings
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17
Q

What are some diagnostic tests used to diagnose bronchiolitis?

A
  • CXR

- RSV test

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18
Q

What are some evidence-based treatments and management for acute bronchiolitis?

A
  • mucus clearance
  • frequent monitorning of the respiratory status
  • ventilation and oxygenation per patient needs
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19
Q

What factors increase the risk for pneumonia?

A
  • smoking
  • exposure to chemicals or pollutants
  • ethnicity
  • individuals that live in crowded conditions
  • surgery
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20
Q

What are the four categories of pneumonia ?

A
  • hospital-acquired
  • community-acquired
  • aspiration
  • immunocompromised
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21
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of pneumonia?

A
  • chills
  • lethargy
  • loss of appetite
  • increased WOB
  • cough with thick sputum
  • fever > 38.5
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22
Q

What finding shows that a patient has severe ARDS, including a PaO2/FIO2 ratio of?

A

< 200

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23
Q

What are the goals of MV in managing ARDS?

A
  • reduce WOB
  • increase alveolar recruitment
  • minimize barotrauma
  • reduce metabolic demand
  • reverse hypoxemia and hypercarbia
24
Q

When should Ribavirin be considered?

A
  • severe RSV bronchiolitis
  • congenital immunodeficiency
  • bone marrow transplant
25
Q

What is the incubation period of an infant carrying RSV?

A

2 to 8 days

26
Q

What is not a lung injury that can lead to ARDS?

A

pulmonary edema

27
Q

What are MV strategies used to manage ARDS?

A
  • permissive hypercapnia
  • tidal volume of 6mL/kg
  • permissive hypoxemia
28
Q

(T/F) antibiotic regimens should be given in routine therapy for viral bronchiolitis

A

false

29
Q

An atrioventricular septal defect is especially common in children with what syndrome?

A

trisomy 21

30
Q

What diagnostic tools are used to identify cardiac defects?

A
  • CXR
  • EKG
  • echocardiogram
31
Q

What symptoms are present for a child that has an atrial septal defect?

A
  • exercise-induced dyspnea
  • a-fib
  • exercise-induced fatigue
  • atrial flutter
32
Q

An RT should include what treatments for a patient that is post-op for an atrial septal defect?

A
  • NIV

- supplemental O2

33
Q

What are some clinical manifestations of a moderate-to-severe VSD, specifically for a left to right shunt?

A
  • tachypnea
  • failure to thrive
  • diaphoresis
  • poor feeding
34
Q

A patient with a AVSD would present with?

A
  • diaphoresis while feeding

- fatigue

35
Q

What are some symptoms of an aortic stenosis?

A
  • tachypnea
  • failure to thrive
  • syncope
  • gradual exercise intolerance
36
Q

What should an RT watch for while a patient is given prostaglandin therapy?

A
  • bradycardia
  • desaturations
  • apneas greater than 20 seconds
  • peripheral edema
37
Q

Patients with what genetic syndromes have an increased risk for coarctation of the aorta?

A
  • turner syndrome

- DiGerorge syndrome

38
Q

Postoperative surgical risks for coarctation of the aorta include?

A
  • vocal cord paralysis
  • chylothorax
  • post-coarcetomy syndrome
39
Q

What tests are used to diagnose a double aortic arch?

A
  • MRI
  • CT angiography
  • Barium swallow
40
Q

An RT should do what in order to treat severe upper respiratory obstruction associated with a double aortic arch?

A
  • intubate and place on MV
  • PPV
  • PEEP
41
Q

What is the most common congenital cardiac defect?

A

VSD

42
Q

What is not an example of a treatment for VSD?

A

IV fluid

43
Q

What percentage of VSD close within the first two years of life?

A

75%

44
Q

What diagnosis should be considered if a patient presents with decreased femoral pulses, brachiofemoral delay, and a continuous flow murmur?

A

coarctation of the aorta

45
Q

Define septum secudum

A

a muscle structure that grows downward from the upper portion of the embryologic aorta

46
Q

(T/F) an ASD that has a Qp:Qs ratio of greater than 1.5:1 is an indication of the ASD needing closed

A

true

47
Q

(T/F) successful ASD closure has excellent long term outcomes

A

true

48
Q

What is the initial intervention for Robin sequence that will alleviate 70% of an infants airway obstruction?

A

prone positioning

49
Q

What is considered the most common subglottic abnormality?

A

subglottic stenosis

50
Q

What are some ways that the patency of a trach can be verified?

A
  • positive end-tidal CO2
  • measuring the exhaled tidal volume
  • passing a suction catheter
51
Q

Tracheoesophageal fistulas should be suspected when an infants presents with?

A
  • excessive drooling

- feeding that leads to respiratory distress

52
Q

What are some methods to identify choanal atresia?

A
  • tissue and mirror test
  • nasal endoscopy
  • deep tracheal suctioning
53
Q

Treatment for a choanal atresia includes?

A
  • creating a choanal opening during surgical repair
  • intubation
  • using a feeding nipple with a large opening
54
Q

What is both the most common laryngeal anomaly and the most common congenital cause of stridor?

A

laryngomalacia

55
Q

What common disease processes accompanies laryngomalacia?

A

GERD

56
Q

What is not an example of a severe laryngomalacia symptom?

A

normal feedings

57
Q

Recurrent respiratory papillomatosis is the most common benign neoplasm of what airway structure?

A

the larynx