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NAT211 - Anatomy & Physiology II > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Essential oils are found in many different parts of plants. For example, peppermint is found in the ….

A

leaves

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2
Q

A top note is

a. a fixative and evaporates slowly.
b. characteristic of the oil and evaporates quickly.
c. a fixative and evaporates quickly.
d. easy to produce artificially and lasts about 1-2 hours.

A

b. characteristic of the oil and evaporates quickly.

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3
Q

What is the distilled product of the volatile components synthesized by various plant tissues of a single plant species, sometimes containing hundreds of individual biochemical?

a. essential oil
b. volatile chemicals
c. vegetable oils
d. fixatives

A

a. essential oil

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4
Q

The part of the olfactory system where aromas are detected is called the ________ ________.

A

olfactory epithelium

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5
Q

Volatile substances have all the following characteristics EXCEPT:

a. Diffuse freely into the atmosphere.
b. Easily evaporate at low temperatures.
c. Are low boiling-point components of a natural source of aroma or flavor.
d. Feel oily to the touch and when exposed to air they become rancid and do not evaporate.

A

d. Feel oily to the touch and when exposed to air they become rancid and do not evaporate.

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6
Q

Essential oils are found in many different parts of plants. For example, valerian is found in the ________.

A

root

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7
Q

The system of the body involved with smell is called:

a. The sensory system
b. The olfactory system
c. The hypothalamus
d. The cilia

A

b. The olfactory system

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8
Q

Oils should be stored:

a. On a kitchen shelf in attractive clear bottles, preferably with corks so they can breathe
b. In the sun so you can see the color
c. In a dark bottle with a tight lid in the sun
d. In a dark bottle in a cool place with a tight lid

A

d. In a dark bottle in a cool place with a tight lid

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9
Q

Humans give off odorless chemicals called _______.

A

pheromones

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10
Q

True or False:
Olfactory cilia carry the aroma-print in the form of electromagnetic messages to the twin olfactory bulbs. This process is very slow.

A

False

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11
Q

This is a functional characteristic of all sense organs:

a. must be able to detect a stimulus.
b. must be able to detect a change in the intensity of the stimulus.
c. must be able to change the stimulus into a nerve impulse.
d. must be able to detect a stimulus, detect a change in the intensity of the stimulus, and able to change the stimulus into a nerve impulse.

A

d. must be able to detect a stimulus, detect a change in the intensity of the stimulus, and able to change the stimulus into a nerve impulse.

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12
Q

True or False:

Going from most external to most internal, the layers of the eye would be sclera, choroid, and retina.

A

True

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13
Q

True or False:

The pupil is the colored part of the eye.

A

False

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14
Q

The vitreous humor:

a. is found in the anterior cavity.
b. is found in the posterior chamber.
c. is a watery fluid in front of the lens.
d. is found around the surface of the eye.

A

b. is found in the posterior chamber.

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15
Q

True or False:
Because the olfactory nerve passes through the hypothalamus, which is important in memory and emotion, odor can often stimulate vivid memories.

A

False

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16
Q

The olfactory receptors:

a. also assist in the sense of taste.
b. are able to respond to four primary odors.
c. are not sensitive because of the location of the receptors.
d. also assist in the sense of sight.

A

a. also assist in the sense of taste.

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17
Q

True or False:

Cataracts may be caused by exposure to the ultraviolet radiation of the sun.

A

True

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18
Q

True or False:

The external ear has two parts, the auricle and the pinna.

A

False

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19
Q

Which of the following sensations is generated by a special sense?

a. Touch
b. Taste
c. Pressure
d. Touch, taste, and pressure

A

b. Taste

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20
Q

True or False:

The organ of Corti is considered the organ of hearing.

A

True

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21
Q

An essential oil is an aromatic material that ________ readily.

A

evaporates

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22
Q

A base note:

a. is characteristic of the oil and difficult to reproduce.
b. is volatile and usually evaporates in 2 hours.
c. is an oil used to mix with essential oil for massage or bath oil.
d. appears in 1-2 hours and helps soap keep its fragrance for longer.

A

d. appears in 1-2 hours and helps soap keep its fragrance for longer.

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23
Q

Essential oils are found in many different parts of plants. For example, fennel is found in the _______.

A

seeds

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24
Q

The first impression you have of an aroma is called the ______ note.

A

top

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25
Q

Components of essential oils that are the heaviest and most complex are said to be

a. top notes
b. middle notes
c. base notes
d. base oils

A

c. base notes

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26
Q

What word is used to describe the psychological affects of aroma?

a. aromatherapy
b. aromachology
c. homeobotanical
d. therapeutics

A

b. aromachology

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27
Q

True or False:
You are able to distinguish the difference between lifting a 20-lb weight and a 50-lb weight because of the Golgi tendon receptors.

A

True

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28
Q

True or False:

The sensory pathway for proprioceptors passes through the cerebellum.

A

True

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29
Q

True or False:

The malleus rest against the oval window of the middle ear and helps transmit vibrations.

A

False

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30
Q

True or False:

Dilation of the pupil is caused by the contraction of the iris.

A

False

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31
Q

True or False:

Meissner’s corpuscles respond to pain.

A

False

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32
Q

True or False:

The bony labyrinth is divided into three parts: the cochlea, the vestibule, and the semicircular canals.

A

True

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33
Q

True or False:

If the eyeball is too short, a condition called hyperopia, or farsightedness, can exist.

A

True

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34
Q

The “farsightedness” of old age is called

a. a cataract
b. presbyopia
c. otitis media
d. glaucoma

A

b. presbyopia

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35
Q

Essential oils are ________ which means they evaporate when exposed to air.

A

volatile

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36
Q

Which of the following focuses on restoration of physical, mental, emotional, and spiritual health through the application of essential oils?

a. essential oils
b. holistic aromatherapy
c. materia medica
d. skin patch testing

A

b. holistic aromatherapy

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37
Q

Women may be able to detect aromas at a lower ______ than men.

A

concentration

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38
Q

True or False:

A base note is the same as a base oil.

A

False

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39
Q

All of the following factors affect the reception of an aroma and the physiological and psychological response EXCEPT:

a. aroma association
b. response bias
c. personal mood
d. expectation

A

c. personal mood

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40
Q

True or False:

General sense organs are found throughout the body but are most concentrated in the internal organs.

A

False

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41
Q

True or False:

The handle of the incus attaches to the inside of the eardrum.

A

False

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42
Q

General sense organs can be found in the highest concentration in

a. muscle tissue
b. the skin
c. the tendons and connective tissue
d. the deep internal organs

A

b. the skin

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43
Q

The sense of hearing can be classified as a

a. proprioceptor.
b. mechanoreceptor.
c. thermoreceptor.
d. photoreceptor.

A

b. mechanoreceptor.

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44
Q

Endolymph is

a. inside the cochlea.
b. inside the semicircular canals.
c. just inside the bony labyrinth.
d. inside the cochlea and the semicircular canals.

A

d. inside the cochlea and the semicircular canals.

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45
Q

The rods in the eye:

a. are part of the choroid layer.
b. respond to the colors of red, green, and blue.
c. are used to see in dim light.
d. are part of the sclera layer.

A

c. are used to see in dim light.

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46
Q

True or False:

There are only six taste sensations.

A

True

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47
Q

In the middle ear, the:

a. incus rests against the organ of Corti.
b. tympanic membrane rests against the stapes.
c. tympanic membrane rests against the incus.
d. stapes rests against the oval window.

A

d. stapes rests against the oval window.

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48
Q

True or False:

Most of the free nerve endings are found in the epithelial layers of the body.

A

True

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49
Q

The vestibular nerve contains a nerve from the:

a. semicircular canals.
b. vestibule.
c. cochlea.
d. semicircular canals and vestibule.

A

c. cochlea.

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50
Q

True or False:

Cones are used for day vision or vision in bright light.

A

True

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51
Q

True or False:

Vitreous humor is the thick fluid in the posterior chamber of the eye.

A

True

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52
Q

True or False:

Osteoporosis occurs most often in women of childbearing age.

A

False

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53
Q

The best way to ensure strong bones is…

a. to eat food high in calcium.
b. do weight-bearing exercise.
c. to get enough sun.
d. All of the above.

A

d. All of the above.

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54
Q

The two major classes of hormones are …

a. carbohydrate and protein hormones.
b. carbohydrate and lipid hormones.
c. protein and steroid hormones.
d. lipid and steroid hormones.

A

c. protein and steroid hormones.

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55
Q

True or False:

Glucagon raises blood sugar and insulin hormone lowers it.

A

True

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56
Q

Which does calcitonin cause?

a. An increase in the blood concentration of calcium
b. A breakdown in the bone matrix
c. A decrease in the blood concentration of calcium
d. Both a and b above

A

c. A decrease in the blood concentration of calcium

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57
Q

True or False:

Calcitonin raises blood calcium and parathyroid hormone lowers it.

A

False.

Calcitonin lowers (tones down) blood calcium levels and PTH pulls calcium from the bones to raise blood calcium levels.

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58
Q

The endocrine portion of the pancreas produces which hormones?

a. Insulin and cortisol
b. Insulin and glucagon
c. Insulin and androgen
d. Glucagon and melatonin

A

b. Insulin and glucagon

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59
Q

Which of the following increases the risk of developing Type II diabetes?

a. High sugar diet
b. Obesity
c. Insulin resistance
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above.

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60
Q

Which of the following is NOT involved in calcium metabolism?

a. Vitamin D
b. Calcitonin
c. Parathyroid hormone
d. Thymosin

A

d. Thymosin

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61
Q

A lack of production of insulin leads to …

a. hypoglycemia.
b. Type II diabetes.
c. insulin resistance.
d. Type I diabetes.

A

d. Type I diabetes.

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62
Q

In order for T4 to be produced, the diet must contain sufficient amounts of:

a. calcium.
b. iodine.
c. iron.
d. sulfur.

A

b. iodine.

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63
Q

Androgens, which are similar to testosterone, are:

a. secreted by the inner zone of the adrenal cortex.
b. secreted by the middle zone of the adrenal cortex.
c. secreted by the outer zone of the adrenal cortex.
d. not secreted by the adrenal cortex.

A

a. secreted by the inner zone of the adrenal cortex.

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64
Q

Nonsteroid hormones:

a. cause protein synthesis in the cell.
b. can cause the formation of cyclic AMP.
c. have hormone receptors in the nucleus of the cell.
d. cause protein synthesis in the cell and have hormone receptors in the nucleus of the cell.

A

b. can cause the formation of cyclic AMP.

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65
Q

True or False:

The thyroid gland is located in the neck.

A

True

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66
Q

True or False:

The neurohypophysis produces about twice as many hormones as the adenohypophysis.

A

False

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67
Q

The hormone that helps regulate the body’s internal clock is:

a. leptin.
b. ANH.
c. ADH.
d. melatonin.

A

d. melatonin.

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68
Q

True or False:
One of the main differences between the anterior and posterior pituitary glands is that one is made of glandular tissue and one is made of nerve tissue.

A

True

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69
Q

True or False:

Pancreatic beta cells release insulin.

A

True

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70
Q

True or False:

Oxytocin stimulates contraction of the pregnant uterus.

A

True

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71
Q

Aldosterone:

a. increase blood sodium levels.
b. decreases blood sodium levels.
c. increases blood potassium levels.
d. decreases blood antibodies.

A

a. increases blood sodium levels.

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72
Q

Which hormone of the adrenal cortex helps control blood glucose levels?

a. Aldosterone
b. DHEA
c. Cortisol
d. Noradrenaline

A

c. Cortisol

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73
Q

Which of the following regulates most hormone secretion?

a. The nervous system
b. Negative feedback
c. Positive feedback
d. All of the above

A

b. Negative feedback

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74
Q

The disease common in the older years that results in the thinning of bones and an increased risk for fracture is ________.

a. osteopenia
b. osteoporosis
c. osteoarthritis
d. osteomalacia

A

b. osteoporosis

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75
Q

The best way to insure strong bones is …

a. to eat food high in calcium.
b. do weight-bearing exercise.
c. to get enough sun.
d. all of the above.

A

d. all of the above.

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76
Q

Which functions do the glands of the endocrine system perform?

a. Release chemicals into the ducts.
b. Release chemicals into the blood.
c. Release chemicals into body cavities.
d. All of the above.

A

b. Release chemicals into the blood.

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77
Q

True or False:

Most hormones use a negative feedback system for regulation.

A

True

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78
Q

True or False:

If prostaglandins influence the production of cyclic AMP, they could impact the function of steroid hormones.

A

False

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79
Q

True or False:

Steroid hormone receptors are in the nucleus of the cell.

A

True

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80
Q

True or False:

The hypothalamus produces only two hormones, ADH and oxytocin.

A

False

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81
Q

True or False:
One of the main differences between the anterior and posterior pituitary glands is that one is made of glandular tissue and one is made of nerve tissue.

A

True

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82
Q

The endocrine system consists of glands that:

a. release chemicals into ducts.
b. release chemicals carried by the blood.
c. release chemicals into body cavities.
d. release chemicals into the brain.

A

b. release chemicals carried by the blood.

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83
Q

True or False:

The neurohypophysis produces about twice as many hormones as the adenohypophysis.

A

False

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84
Q

In order for T4 to be produced, the diet must contain sufficient amounts of:

a. calcium.
b. iodine.
c. iron.
d. sulfur.

A

b. iodine.

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85
Q

True or False:

The target organ for TSH is the thyroid gland.

A

True

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86
Q

True or False:

Substances produced by the exocrine glands cause a reaction by stimulating target organ cells.

A

False

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87
Q

The gland that releases its products directly into the bloodstream is called …

a. exocrine.
b. holocrine.
c. endocrine.
d. heterocrine.

A

c. endocrine.

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88
Q

Which of the following increases the risk of developing Type II diabetes?

a. High sugar diet
b. Obesity
c. Insulin resistance
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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89
Q

True or False:

One of the target organ cells of glucocorticoids is the liver cells.

A

True

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90
Q

True or False:

Calcitonin causes an increase in blood calcium levels.

A

False

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91
Q

True or False:

Nonsteroid hormones require a second messenger.

A

True

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92
Q

True or False:

Pancreatic beta cells release insulin.

A

True

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93
Q

True or False:

One possible effect of oxytocin is to help establish the bond between mother and infant.

A

True

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94
Q

True or False:
Negative feedback occurs when blood sugar stimulates release of insulin from the pancreas, and low blood sugar stops the production of insulin by pancreatic cells.

A

True

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95
Q

A lack of production of insulin leads to …

a. hypoglycemia.
b. Type II diabetes.
c. insulin resistance.
d. Type I diabetes.

A

d. Type I diabetes.

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96
Q

Diabetes insipidus is caused by a hyposecretion of:

a. insulin
b. glucagon.
c. aldosterone.
d. ADH.

A

d. ADH.

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97
Q

True or False:

Cortisol is an example of a mineralocorticoid.

A

False

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98
Q

True or False:

Luteinizing hormone is also called the ovulating hormone.

A

True

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99
Q

True or False:

The thyroid gland is located in the neck.

A

True

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100
Q

Which of the following is not a class of prostaglandins?

a. PGB
b. PGA
c. PGE
d. PGB, PGA, and PGE are all classes of prostaglandins.

A

a. PGB

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101
Q

The posterior pituitary gland releases:

a. ADH.
b. ACTH.
c. TSH.
d. both ACTH and TSH.

A

a. ADH

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102
Q

Aldosterone:

a. increases blood sodium levels.
b. decreases blood sodium levels.
c. increases blood potassium levels.
d. decreases blood antibodies.

A

a. increases blood sodium levels.

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103
Q

The hormone that helps regulate the body’s internal clock is:

a. leptin.
b. ANH.
c. ADH.
d. melatonin.

A

d. melatonin.

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104
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a nonsteroid hormone?

a. It attaches to a receptor on the cell membrane.
b. It causes protein synthesis to occur.
c. It can use cAMP as a second messenger.
d. It serves as a first messenger.

A

b. It causes protein synthesis to occur.

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105
Q

A decrease in insulin production:

a. usually causes Type I diabetes mellitus.
b. will stimulate the release of growth hormone.
c. is usually the cause of Type II diabetes mellitus.
d. will stimulate the release of progesterone.

A

a. usually causes Type I diabetes mellitus.

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106
Q

True or False:

The target organ for TSH is the thyroid gland.

A

True

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107
Q

True or False:

Blood makes up about 10% to 15% of the body weight in an adult.

A

False

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108
Q

True or False:
If a patient were having a heart attack caused by a blood clot, streptokinase would be an effective treatment in dissolving the clot.

A

True

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109
Q

Globulins:

a. assist in the formation of a blood clot.
b. thicken the blood.
c. assist in fighting infection.
d. assist in blood clotting.

A

c. assist in fighting infection.

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110
Q

The “universal donor” blood type is:

a. type A.
b. type B.
c. type AB.
d. type O.

A

d. type O.

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111
Q

Which of the following is not a granular leukocyte?

a. Monocyte
b. Neutrophil
c. Basophil
d. Eosinophil

A

a. Monocyte

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112
Q

True or False:

Sickle cell anemia is a hereditary disease.

A

True

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113
Q

True or False:

Lymphatic tissue forms monocytes.

A

True

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114
Q

True or False:

Lymphatic tissue is also called red bone marrow.

A

False

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115
Q

Plasma:

a. consists of blood without the blood cells and clotting factors.
b. carries almost all of the food to the cells.
c. carries almost all of the oxygen to the cells.
d. carries almost all carbon dioxide from the cells.

A

b. carries almost all of the food to the cells.

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116
Q

True or False:

Eosinophils release important chemicals, such as heparin, that prevent blood clots.

A

False

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117
Q

Blood pressure is highest in the aorta and lowest in the:

a. arterioles.
b. capillaries.
c. arteries.
d. superior and inferior vena cava.

A

d. superior and inferior vena cava.

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118
Q

True or False:

The intercalated disks that link the heart cells assist in the efficient conduction of the heart contraction.

A

True

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119
Q

Blood that has just pased through the bicuspid valve is in the:

a. aorta.
b. right ventricle.
c. left ventricle.
d. pulmonary artery.

A

c. left ventricle.

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120
Q

True or False:

Ventricles are referred to as the discharging chambers of the heart.

A

True

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121
Q

The right side of the heart:

a. deals with oxygen-poor blood.
b. deals with oxygen-rich blood.
c. is the pump for systemic circulation.
d. is the pump for hepatic circulation.

A

a. deals with oxygen-poor blood.

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122
Q

True or False:

Arteries always carry oxygen-rich blood.

A

False

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123
Q

True or False:

A patienet with a very unusual P wave is more seriously ill than a patient with a very unusual QRS complex.

A

False

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124
Q

True or False:

The foramen ovale shunts blood from the right ventricle to the left ventricle.

A

False

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125
Q

The tricuspid valve is located between the:

a. left atrium and left ventricle.
b. right atrium and right ventricle.
c. right ventricle and the pulmonary artery.
d. left ventricle and the aorta.

A

b. right atrium and right ventricle.

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126
Q

True or False:

The umbilical cord contains two veins and one artery.

A

False

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127
Q

Aplastic anemia can be caused by:

a. severe hemorrhage.
b. damage to blood forming elements in the bone marrow.
c. a lack of vitamin B12.
d. an inherited condition resulting in the formation of abnormal hemoglobin.

A

b. damage to blood forming elements in the bone marrow.

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128
Q

True or False:

Plasma is made up mostly of water.

A

True

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129
Q

True or False:

Lymphatic tissue is also called red bone marrow.

A

False

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130
Q

True or False:

Hemoglobin can carry oxygen.

A

True

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131
Q

Which white blood cells directly attack microbes?

a. Eosinophils
b. T lymphocytes
c. B lymphocytes
d. Basophils

A

b. T lymphocytes

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132
Q

True or False:

In one cubic millimeter of blood, there are more white blood cells than platelets.

A

False

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133
Q

The hematocrit test measures:

a. the volume of blood made up of red blood cells.
b. the volume of blood made up of both red and white blood cells.
c. the volume of blood made up of plasma.
d. white blood cell counts.

A

a. the volume of blood made up of red blood cells.

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134
Q

A substance found in plasma but not in serum is:

a. fibrinogen.
b. antibodies.
c. formed elements.
d. fibrinogen and antibodies.

A

a. fibrinogen.

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135
Q

True or False:

The coronary sinus carries blood from the aorta to the muscle of the heart.

A

False

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136
Q

True or False:

A patient with a serious heart block may be treated with an artificial pacemaker.

A

True

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137
Q

True or False:

The cardiac output will always be larger than the stroke volume.

A

True

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138
Q

Another name for the visceral pericardium is the:

a. epicardium.
b. endocardium.
c. myocardium.
d. visceral pericardium is not known by another name.

A

a. epicardium.

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139
Q

True or False:

The T wave tracing measures atrial repolarization.

A

False

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140
Q

True or False:

About one third of the heart lies to the left of the midline of the sternum.

A

False

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141
Q

True or False:

Contracting skeletal muscles and breathing help the veins return blood to the heart.

A

True

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142
Q

True or False:

Serum can be given to surgical patients to help their blood clot more readily.

A

False

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143
Q

A patient with a thinner-than-normal buffy coat may have:

a. an infection.
b. leukemia.
c. leucopenia.
d. both an infection and leukemia.

A

c. leucopenia.

144
Q

True or False:

An important function of the lymphatic system is protection.

A

True

145
Q

True or False:

Vitamin K stimulates the liver to produce more fibrinogen, which helps the blood clot more efficiently.

A

False

146
Q

True or False:

Hematocrit values tend to be higher in men than women and higher in older people than in younger people.

A

False

147
Q

True or False:

Erythroblastosis fetalis cannot occur if the father is Rh-negative.

A

True

148
Q

True or False:
The term angioplasty refers to the medical procedure in which a vein from another part of the body is used to direct blood flow around a blocked artery in the heart.

A

False

149
Q

True or False:
Both a myocardial infarction and angina pectoris are a result of an insufficient amount of oxygen getting to the heart muscle.

A

True

150
Q

True or False:

The intercalated disks that link the heart cells assist in the efficient conduction of the heart contraction.

A

True

151
Q

True or False:

The tricuspid valve keeps blood from flowing back into the left atrium.

A

False

152
Q

True or False:

The pericardium consists of two layers, the partietal pericardium and the epicardium.

A

True

153
Q

Which of the following describes the layering, in order from top to bottom, of a test tube of blood that has been “spun down” in a centrifuge?

a. Plasma, red blood cells, buffy coat
b. Buffy coat, plasma, red blood cells
c. Plasma, buffy coat, red blood cells
d. Red blood cells, buffy coat, plasma

A

c. Plasma, buffy coat, red blood cells

154
Q

Myeloid tissue is:

a. also called lymphoid tissue.
b. also called red bone marrow.
c. important to the formation of blood cells.
d. also called red bone marrow and is important in the formation of red blood cells.

A

d. also called red bone marrow and is important in the formation of red blood cells.

155
Q

Injury to a blood vessel or damage to a platelet can cause the formation of:

a. fibrinogen.
b. fibrin.
c. prothrombin activator.
d. thrombin.

A

c. prothrombin activator.

156
Q

The first heart sound is the closing of the:

a. pulmonary semilunar and aortic semilunar valves.
b. tricuspid and mitral valves.
c. mitral and bicuspid valves.
d. tricuspid and pulmonary semilunar valves.

A

b. tricuspid and mitral valves.

157
Q

True or False:

The apex of the heart is the most inferior and pointed part of the heart.

A

True

158
Q

True or False:

A possible cause of leukopenia is the malignant disease leukemia.

A

False

159
Q

The last blood vessel of pulmonary circulation is the:

a. pulmonary artery.
b. pulmonary vein.
c. aorta.
d. superior vena cava.

A

b. pulmonary vein.

160
Q

The “pacemaker” for the heart is usually the:

a. sinoatrial node.
b. Purkinje fibers.
c. bundle of His.
d. atrioventricular bundle.

A

a. sinoatrial node.

161
Q

Blood that has just passed through the bicuspid valve is in the:

a. aorta.
b. right ventricle.
c. left ventricle.
d. pulmonary artery.

A

c. left ventricle.

162
Q

The outermost layer of the heart is called the:

a. epicardium.
b. endocardium.
c. visceral pericardium.
d. epicardium or visceral pericardium.

A

d. epicardium or visceral pericardium.

163
Q

The red blood cell:

a. assists in transporting carbon dioxide to the lungs.
b. contains hemoglobin to carry oxygen.
c. has a unique shape to increase its surface area.
d. assists in transporting carbon dioxide to the lungs, contains hemoglobin, and has a unique shape to increase its surface area.

A

d. assists in transporting carbon dioxide to the lungs, contains hemoglobin, and has a unique shape to increase its surface area.

164
Q

Vitamin K stimulates the liver to increase production of:

a. prothrombin activator.
b. fibrinogen.
c. prothrombin.
d. thrombin.

A

c. prothrombin.

165
Q

True or False:

Granular leukocytes may have a circulating life span of up to 6 months.

A

False

166
Q

Which tracing in a normal ECG is the repolarization of the atria?

a. The P wave
b. The QRS complex
c. The T wave
d. The U wave

A

d. The U wave

167
Q

True or False:

The terms “high blood pressure” and “hypertension” mean the same thing.

A

True

168
Q

True or False:

The tricuspid valve keeps blood from flowing back into the left atrium.

A

False

169
Q

True or False:

The chordae tendineae are stringlike structures attached to the semilunar valves.

A

False

170
Q

The innermost layer of an artery or vein is called the:

a. tunica intima.
b. tunica media.
c. endothelium.
d. both the tunica intia and endothelium.

A

d. both the tunica intia and endothelium.

171
Q

True or False:

The loss of a large amount of blood can result in anemia.

A

True

172
Q

True or False:

A heart that is beating weakly will cause a drop in the central venous pressure.

A

False

173
Q

True or False:

Basophils secrete the chemical histamine during inflammatory reactions.

A

True

174
Q

True or False:

One function of the hepatic portal system is to help maintain glucose homeostasis in the blood.

A

True

175
Q

The heart is located:

a. mostly to the left of the midline of the sternum.
b. mostly to the right of the midline of the sternum.
c. with the apex slightly below the clavicle.
d. with the apex slightly above the clavicle.

A

a. mostly to the left of the midline of the sternum.

176
Q

Echinacea is also commonly called:

a. bloodwort.
b. milfoil.
c. snakeroot.
d. all of the above.

A

c. snakeroot.

177
Q

The following homeopathic remedy is helpful for irritating nasal discharge and tearing eyes:

a. Allium cepa.
b. Arsenicum album.
c. Aurum metallicum.
d. all of the above.

A

a. Allium cepa.

178
Q

Which of the following is true about allergic rhinitis?

a. It is an inflammation of the nasal mucous membranes.
b. It be cause by pollens.
c. It can be caused by changes in temperatures or humidity.
d. All of the above.

A

d. All of the above.

179
Q

The upper limit of normal diastolic blood pressure is closest to:

a. 100
b. 90
c. 85
d. 60

A

c. 85

180
Q

True or False:

Echinacea is an annual herb that can reach the height of five to six feet.

A

False

181
Q

Which of the following blood pressure would indicate Grade 1 hypertension, according to the ESH/ESC guidelines?

a. 135/85
b. 165/105
c. 150/95
d. 180/110

A

c. 150/95

182
Q

Which of the following statements about secondary hypertension is FALSE?

a. Secondary hypertension can be associated with malfunctioning kidneys.
b. Secondary hypertension has no known or discovered cause.
c. Secondary hypertension can be associated with malfunctioning endocrine glands.
d. Secondary hypertension can be due to narrowed arteries.

A

b. Secondary hypertension has no known or discovered cause.

183
Q

Signs for allergic rhinitis may include:

a. a stuffy, runny nose.
b. headache.
c. pain above the cheekbones and on the lower forehead.
d. all of the above.

A

d. all of the above.

184
Q

True or False:

Echinacea can be used safely during pregnancy.

A

False

185
Q

Systolic pressure measures

a. the pressure exeerted by blood on the walls of a vein of the systemic circulation.
b. the maximum pressure in the brachial artery during ventricular contraction.
c. the minimum pressure in the brachiael artery during ventricular relaxation.
d. the difference between the maximum and minimum pressures.

A

b. the maximum pressure in the brachial artery during ventricular contraction.

186
Q

Which of the following is NOT a lifestyle modification for high blood pressure?

a. avoid food high in polyunsaturated fatty acids
b. avoid excess animal fats
c. try to get in a 20-minute walk daily
d. avoid excess salt or sodium and check all labels on processed food

A

a. avoid food high in polyunsaturated fatty acids

187
Q

If you suspect a client has high blood pressure you should

a. tell them drugs are dangerous and they should not take them.
b. give them a herbal combination that treats high blood pressure.
c. refer the client back to his or her primary care provider for diagnosis and/or treatment.
d. take their blood pressure to be sure and tell them they have hypertension.

A

c. refer the client back to his or her primary care provider for diagnosis and/or treatment.

188
Q

True or False:

People with allergic rhinitis are also more likely to develop asthma, bronchitis, and sinusitis.

A

True

189
Q

Traditionally, Echinacea tinctures are prepared from:

a. fresh root.
b. dried flowers.
c. dried leaves.
d. seeds.

A

a. fresh root.

190
Q

True or False:

Yarrow is an annual herb that can reach height of 2-3 ft.

A

False

191
Q

What dietary modifications are supportive for hypotension?

a. eliminate caffeine
b. ensure the diet contains adequate levels of iron and protein
c. ensure the diet contains adequate levels of potassium
d. ensure the diet contains adequate levels of magnesium

A

b. ensure the diet contains adequate levels of iron and protein

192
Q

Which of the following statements about prehypertension is FALSE?

a. Prehypertension requires medication.
b. Prehypertension is considered 120/80 to 140/90.
c. Prehypertension requires a health promoting lifestyle to prevent a progressive rise in blood pressure.
d. Prehypertension increases your risk of developing hypertension.

A

a. Prehypertension requires medication.

193
Q

True or False:

Hypertension can be associated with impaired kidney function.

A

True

194
Q

Active constituents present in echinacea include:

a. echinacein and echinolone.
b. chamazulene.
c. inulin.
d. A and C.

A

d. A and C.

195
Q

Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of hypotension?

a. anemia due to blood loss
b. adrenal insufficiency
c. high sodium diet
d. vegetarian diet

A

c. high sodium diet

196
Q

True of False:

When no cause is discovered, high blood pressure is called secondary hypertension.

A

False

When no cause is discovered, high blood pressure is called primary hypertension.

197
Q

The upper limit of normal systolic blood pressure is closest to

a. 140
b. 130
c. 120
d. 90

A

b. 130

198
Q

What plant is supportive as an herb or an essential oil for hypotension?

a. rosemary
b. garlic
c. lavender
d. alfalfa

A

a. rosemary

199
Q

Which of the following statements about hypertension are true?

a. Hypertension can have no obvious symptoms.
b. Hypertension can cause a weakening of the heart muscle.
c. Hypertension can cause dizziness.
d. All of the above are true.

A

d. All of the above are true.

200
Q

The following Echinacea species is considered the most medicinally effective:

a. Echinacea angustifolia
b. Echinacea tennesseensis
c. Echinacea purpurea
d. Echinacea pallida

A

a. Echinacea angustifolia

201
Q

Pulse pressure measures:

a. the pressure exerted by blood on the walls of a vein of the systemic circulation.
b. the maximum pressure in the brachial artery during bentricular contraction.
c. the minimum pressure in the brachial artery during ventricular relaxation.
d. the difference between the maximum and minimum pressures.

A

d. the difference between the maximum and minimum pressures.

202
Q

The diastolic blood pressure is …

a. the lowest blood pressure measured.
b. the highest blood pressure measured.
c. the average blood pressure measured.
d. the difference between the highest and lowest blood pressure measured.

A

a. the lowest blood pressure measured.

203
Q

Differentiate between primary and secondary hypertension.

A

Primary hypertension is when there is no obvious cause for the high blood pressure.

Secondary hypertension is high blood pressure that is due to dysfunction in another organ such as the kidneys, endocrine glands, and narrowed arteries.

204
Q

Yarrow is also commonly called:

a. comb flower.
b. coneflower.
c. milfoil.
d. all of the above.

A

c. milfoil.

205
Q

True or False:

Yarrow can be safely taken during pregnancy.

A

False

206
Q

The following food products are likely to cause inflammation and allergic reactions:

a. meats and dairy products containing saturated fats.
b. fresh organic fruits and vegetables.
c. whole grains, nuts, and seeds.
d. all of the above.

A

a. meats and dairy products containing saturated fats.

207
Q

Active constituents present in yarrow include:

a. echinacein and echinolone.
b. myristic acid.
c. chamazulene.
d. all of the above.

A

c. chamazulene.

208
Q

True or False:

Diet and liefstyle changes can be very helpful for dealing with hypertension.

A

True

209
Q

True or False:

Therapeutic massage can assist drainage of lymphatic fluid.

A

True

210
Q

Systolic blood pressure can be defined as …

a. the maximum pressure in the arteries.
b. the minimum pressure in the arteries.
c. the difference between the maximum and minimum pressure.
d. the relaxation of the veins.

A

a. the maximum pressure in the arteries.

211
Q

The normal average blood pressure is about …

a. 90/60
b. 120/80
c. 135/85
d. 140/90

A

b. 120/80

212
Q

True or False:

High blood pressure may be asymptomatic.

A

True

213
Q

Which of the following herbs are high in flavonoids, such as quercetin, known to reduce production of histamines and strengthen connective tissue include:

a. ginkgo - Ginkgo biloba
b. astragalus - Astragalus membranaceus
c. turmeric - Curcuma longa
d. A and C

A

d. A and C

214
Q

Are all fats to be avoided in cases of hypertension? Explain your answer.

A

No. Saturated fats should be avoided as they can accumulate in the blood vessels and slow blood flow which leads to hypertension. Polyunsaturated fats have been shown to help lower blood pressure.

215
Q

Which of the following blood pressure would indicate Grade 3 hypertension, according to the ESH/ESC guidelines?

a. 159/99
b. 179/109
c. 180/110
d. none of the above

A

c. 180/110

216
Q

Diastolic pressure measures

a. the pressure due to the recoil of the elastic arterial walls between the contractions of the heart.
b. the minimum pressure in the brachial artery during ventricular relaxation.
c. the maximum pressure in the brachial artery during ventricular contraction.
d. both a and b are correct

A

d. both a and b are correct

217
Q

True or False:

Echinacea is an annual herb that can reach the height of five to six feet.

A

False

218
Q

Which of the following blood pressure would indicate Grade 2 hypertension, according to the ESH/ESC guidelines?

a. 135/85
b. 165/105
c. 150/95
d. 180/110

A

b. 165/105

219
Q

Your blood pressue is considered low if it is below

a. 140/90
b. 120/80
c. 90/60
d. 180/110

A

c. 90/60

220
Q

The following constituent, present in echinacea, has been shown to regulate liver cholesterol levels:

a. echinacein.
b. myristic acid.
c. inlulin.
d. caffeic acid.

A

b. myristic acid

221
Q

True or False:

Those with autoimmune conditions should avoid the use of echinacea.

A

True

222
Q

Which of the following culinary herbs is NOT supportive for hypertension?

a. garlic
b. parsley
c. cayenne
d. all of the above are supportive

A

d. all of the above are supportive

223
Q

Secondary hypertension is associated with malfunctioning:

a. kidneys
b. endocrine glands
c. narrowed arteries
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

224
Q

An important phagocytic cell in the immune system is the:

a. B cell
b. plasma cell
c. neutrophil
d. memory cell

A

c. neutrophil

225
Q

The inflammation response is part of:

a. humoral immunity
b. cell-mediated immunity
c. specific immunity
d. nonspecific immunity

A

d. nonspecific immunity

226
Q

Long-term immunity occurs when:

a. T cells form plasma cells
b. neutrophils form plasma cells
c. macrophages form plasma cells
d. B cells form memory cells

A

d. B cells form memory cells

227
Q

True or False

Tears contribute to nonspecific immunity.

A

True

228
Q

Heat, one sign of inflammation, is caused by:

a. increased blood flow to the inflamed area
b. increased vessel permeability
c. increased white blood cell concentration
d. all of the above

A

a. increased blood flow to the inflamed area

229
Q

True or False:

The immunity a nursing infant receives from her mother’s milk is an example of natural active immunity.

A

False

230
Q

T cells:

a. are important in long-term immunity because they form memory cells.
b. can release as many as 2000 antibodies a second.
c. can release poisons that can directly kill cells.
d. form plasma cells when activated.

A

c. can release poisons that can directly kill cells.

231
Q

Which of the following is not a role of complement in the immune system?

a. increasing the permeability of blood vessels
b. attracting immune cells to the site of infection
c. marking foreign cells for destruction
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

232
Q

When you receive serum (antibodies) for a rattlesnake bite, this is an example of:

a. naturally active immunity
b. naturally passive immunity
c. artificially active immunity
d. artificially passive immunity

A

d. artificially passive immunity

233
Q

True or False:

The terms innate immunity and nonspecific immunity refer to the same thing.

A

True

234
Q

Which of the following are called adenoids when they become swollen?

a. Palatine tonsils
b. Lingual tonsils
c. Pharyngeal tonsils
d. Lymph nodes of the neck

A

c. Pharyngeal tonsils

235
Q

True of False:

Because natural killer cells have broad action, they do not require exposure to an antigen.

A

True

236
Q

Receiving a flu shot to help protect you from getting the flu would be an example of:

a. natural active immunity
b. natural passive immunity
c. artificial active immunity
d. artificial passive immunity

A

c. artificial active immunity

237
Q

True or False:

By early adulthood, all immature B cells have been activated.

A

False

238
Q

True or False:

Complement kills cells by drilling holes in the cell membrane, which allows water to rapidly leave the cell.

A

False

239
Q

Lymph can:

a. carry cancer cells that can be trapped in lymph nodes.
b. be a possible route for the spread of cancer.
c. carry bacteria to lymph nodes.
d. carry cancer cells that can be trapped in lymph nodes, are a possible route for the spread of cancer, and carry bacteria to lymph nodes.

A

d. carry cancer cells that can be trapped in lymph nodes, are a possible route for the spread of cancer, and carry bacteria to lymph nodes.

240
Q

True or False:

Involution describes the rapid growth of the thymus gland from childhood to puberty.

A

False

241
Q

True or False:

Artificial passive immunity can be effective even after a person has been exposed to the infectious organism.

A

True

242
Q

True or False:

The terms innate immunity and nonspecific immunity refer to the same thing.

A

True

243
Q

True or False:

Lymph nodes are found between the lymphatic capillaries and the right lymphatic duct or the thoracic duct.

A

True

244
Q

Lymphocytes can be found in:

a. lymph nodes
b. the thymus
c. the liver
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

245
Q

When you do dry skin brushing, you should not brush

a. the soles of the feet.
b. the face.
c. inflamed areas.
d. both B and C.

A

d. both B and C.

246
Q

True or False:

Receiving the polio vaccine to prevent you from getting polio is an example of artificial passive immunity.

A

false

247
Q

True or False:

The cisterna chyli is part of the right lymphatic duct that serves as a storage area for lymph.

A

False

248
Q

Which of the following structures is not part of the lymphatic system?

a. Thyroid
b. Thymus
c. Spleen
d. Cisterna chyli

A

a. Thyroid

249
Q

True or False:

The lymphatic system may be the route that some cancers use to spread to other parts of the body.

A

True

250
Q

Complement helps kill harmful cells by:

a. “drilling” a hole in the cell memrane.
b. causing sodium to rapidly leak out of the cell.
c. causing water to rapidly leak out of the cell.
d. causing potassium to rapidly leak out of the cell.

A

a. “drilling” a hole in the cell memrane.

251
Q

An antigen can be a:

a. toxin
b. protein on a cancer cell membrane
c. protein on a bacterial cell membrane
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

252
Q

The largest lymphoid organ in the body is the:

a. spleen
b. palatine tonsils
c. thymus
d. cisterna chyli

A

a. spleen

253
Q

The main fuction of lacteals is:

a. to return protein to the blood.
b. to transport fats to the bloodstream.
c. to move lymph to the right lymphatic duct.
d. to move blood to the right lymphatic duct.

A

b. to transport fats to the bloodstream.

254
Q

True or False:

The swelling and pain of the inflammatory response are caused by an increase in vascular permeability.

A

True

255
Q

If you have had the measles, you cannot get them again. This is an example of:

a. natural active immunity
b. natural passive immunity
c. artificial active immunity
d. artificial passive immunity

A

a. natural active immunity

256
Q

What is the most common cause of emphysema?

a. infection
b. allergies
c. smoking
d. pollution

A

c. smoking

257
Q

Coughing should not be inhibited with antispasmodics in which condition?

a. asthma
b. bronchitis
c. sinusitis
d. emphysema

A

d. emphysema

258
Q

An herb such as Lobelia inflata, a bronchodilator, is helpful for which condition?

a. emphysema
b. asthma
c. both asthma and emphysema
d. none of the above

A

b. asthma

259
Q

Which condition is irreversible?

a. influenza
b. sinusitis
c. acute bronchitis
d. emphysema

A

d. emphysema

260
Q

What is a chronic abstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) characterized by destruction of the alveoli in the lungs?

a. asthma
b. bronchitis
c. common cold/flu
d. emphysema

A

d. emphysema

261
Q

True or False:

Food high in manganese are helpful for asthma.

A

True

262
Q

Hereditary deficiency of antitrypsin is causative factor in which condition?

a. influenza
b. sinusitis
c. acute bronchitis
d. emhysema

A

d. emphysema

263
Q

True or False:

Physical and emotional stress can trigger asthma.

A

True

264
Q

Which substance has been found to be low in asthmatics?

a. calcium
b. manganese
c. magnesium
d. all of the above

A

b. manganese

265
Q

Avoidance of food and environmntal allergies is helpful in what condition?

a. asthma
b. emphysema
c. sinusitis
d. none of the above

A

a. asthma

266
Q

True or False:

Alveoli and alveolar sacs refer to the same structure.

A

False

267
Q

True or False:

The nasal cavities assist in warming and humidifying inspired air.

A

True

268
Q

True or False:

The external nares divide the nasal cavity into right and left sides.

A

False

269
Q

The smallest of the air distribution tubes in the respiratory tract are the:

a. secondary bronchi
b. bronchioles
c. alveolar ducts
d. tracheae

A

c. alveolar ducts

270
Q

True or False:

The removal of carbon dioxide is as important to survival as is the constant supply of oxygen.

A

True

271
Q

True or False:

The trachea, primary bronchi, and secondary bronchi all contain cartilage in their walls to help keep them open.

A

True

272
Q

True or False:

The epiglottis closes the esophagus during swallowing to keep food out of the lung.

A

False

273
Q

True or False:

Two pairs of tonsils are located in the pharynx.

A

True

274
Q

True or False:
In some lung diseases, the lungs lose their elasticity and their ability to recoil. This would have the greatest impact on expiration.

A

True

275
Q

True or False:

During inspiration, the daiphragm contracts and moves up into the thoracic cavity.

A

False

276
Q

What procedure will help to drain secretions from the bronchi and should be done at least twice a day for those with emphysema?

a. yoga breathing
b. progressive relaxation
c. postural drainage
d. oil inhalation

A

c. postural drainage

277
Q

Which of the following is true about eucalyptus?

a. Eucalyptus should not be applied to the face or nose, or used internally for babies or young children.
b. It is also contraindicated if there is a history of epilepsy, hypertension or gastrointestinal inflammation and liver complaints.
c. Eucalyptus oil can cause symptoms of poisoning in excessive amounts.
d. All of the above.

A

d. All of the above.

278
Q

What is the name of the bronchial spasm that is triggered by an allergic condition?

a. bronchitis
b. asthma
c. emphysema
d. infuenza

A

b. asthma

279
Q

Which respiratory condition characterized by difficulty in breathing, frequent coughing, wheezing, a feeling of suffocation, tightnes in the chest, and violent coughing attacks?

a. asthma
b. acute bronchitis
c. common cold/flu
d. emphysema

A

a. asthma

280
Q

The chest becomes barrel shaped in which condition?

a. influenza
b. sinusitis
c. acute bronchitis
d. emphysema

A

d. emphysema

281
Q

True or False:

The cerebral cortex is responsible for the voluntary increase or decrease in breathing rate.

A

True

282
Q

The auditory, or eustachian, tubes connect the:

a. inner ear with the nasopharynx
b. inner ear with the oropharynx
c. middle ear with the nasopharynx
d. middle ear with the oropharynx

A

c. middle ear with the nasopharynx

283
Q

The surface area for gas exchange of all the alveoli is about:

a. 10 square meters
b. 100 square meters
c. 500 square meters
d. 50 square meters

A

b. 100 square meters

284
Q

True or False:

The pharynx can be considered part of both the respiratory and digestive systems.

A

True

285
Q

True or False:

Surfactant is a slippery fluid that allows the lungs to rub against the chest wall with very little friction.

A

False

286
Q

The space between the vocal cords is called the:

a. epiglottis.
b. conchae.
c. glottis.
d. thyroid cartilage.

A

c. glottis.

287
Q

True or False:

The interior walls of the thoracic cavity are covered by the visceral pleura.

A

False

288
Q

Which of these structures is not in the larynx?

a. Vocal cords
b. Palatine tonsils
c. Glottis
d. Epiglottis

A

b. Palatine tonsils

289
Q

True or False:
The four paranasal sinuses are named for the bones in which they are found. They are the frontal, parietal, sphenoidal, and ethmoidal.

A

False

290
Q

The most important muscle(s) of forced expiration is (are) the:

a. diaphragm.
b. internal intercostals.
c. abdominal muscles.
d. internal intercostals and abdominal muscles.

A

d. internal intercostals and abdominal muscles.

291
Q

The largest amount of air that can be breathed in and out in one breath is called:

a. vital capacity.
b. residual volume.
c. tidal volume.
d. expiratory reserve volume.

A

a. vital capacity.

292
Q

Expectorant herbs are helpful for what condition?

a. asthma
b. emphysema
c. both A and B

A

c. both A and B

293
Q

In order for gas exchange to occur properly in the lungs:

a. the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli must be greater than the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood.
b. the partieal pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli must be greater than the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood.
c. the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli must be less than the partial pressure of the carbon dioxide in the blood.
d. the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli must be greater than the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood and the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli must be less than the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood.

A

d. the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli must be greater than the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood and the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli must be less than the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood.

294
Q

True or False:

The respiratory membrane plays an important role in air purification.

A

False

295
Q

The upper respiratory tract includes all of the following except the:

a. nose.
b. trachea.
c. pharynx.
d. larynx.

A

b. trachea.

296
Q

True or False:

Most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is carried as carbaminohemoglobin.

A

False

297
Q

The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the blood and cells throughout the body is called

a. cellular respiration.
b. internal respiration.
c. external respiration.
d. breathing.

A

b. internal respiration.

298
Q

True or False:

Surfactant is needed in the lung to increase the surface tension in the alveoli.

A

False

299
Q

True or False:

Vital capacity is the amount of air that is inhaled and exhaled during normal, quiet breathing.

A

False

300
Q

The mucous blanket

a. only covers the nose and throat.
b. traps dust, pollen, and other contaminants.
c. only covers the alveoli and bronchioles.
d. lines the alveoli.

A

b. traps dust, pollen, and other contaminants.

301
Q

True or False:

The pitch of the voice depends on the tension on the vocal cords.

A

True

302
Q

True or False:

The cilia lining the air distribution tubes beat downward to help move air into the lung.

A

False

303
Q

True or False:

Quiet expiration requires much less energy than quiet inspiration.

A

True

304
Q

If you want to reduce the chances or cystitis, you should:

a. maintain the noraml acid/alkaline balance of the urine.
b. conduct a short fast on watermelon juice or a mixture of cucumber, carrot, beet, and garlic juice.
c. increase fluid intake to a minimum of 64 ounces of pure water daily.
d. all of the above.

A

d. all of the above.

305
Q

The following population group is most likely to suffer from cystitis

a. women
b. men
c. children younger than 6 months
d. children 6 months through 8 years of age

A

a. women

306
Q

True or False

Cystitis may occur following particularly strenuous sexual intercourse.

A

True

307
Q

True or False:
Fresh raw parsely juice is a specific tonic for the adrenal glands and is a powerful tonic to the whole nervous and circulatory systems. Again, take only small doses, preferably mixed with carrot and celery juices, and do not use the concentrated juice if the kidneys are inflamed.

A

True

308
Q

This herb is eaten as a vegetable in China and the seeds are used as a coffee substitute.

a. Cleavers
b. Chicory
c. Parsley
d. Juniper berries

A

a. Cleavers

309
Q

True or False:

Cleavers tincture can be safely taken during pregnancy.

A

False

310
Q

If you experience the constant urge to urinate when standing or walking, you should consider taking a

a. cranberry dietary supplement.
b. dandelion (Taraxacum officinale) infusion.
c. Mag Phos cell salt.
d. lavender (Lavandula angustifolia) essential oil.

A

c. Mag Phos cell salt.

311
Q 
True or False:
Carum petroselinum (parsley) is an excellent diuretic because of its high potassium content.
A

True

312
Q

True or False:

Diuretic herbs should be avoided in the case of cystitis.

A

False

313
Q

True or False:

Drinking sweetened cranberry juice can help to relieve symptoms of cystitis.

A

False

314
Q

Glomerular capsule is

a. part of the renal tubules.
b. a network of blood capillaries.
c. the cup-shaped top part of the nephron.
d. part of the renal tubules and is the cup-shaped top part of the nephron.

A

c. the cup-shaped top part of the nephron.

315
Q

True or False:

Gravity moves urine through the ureters.

A

False

316
Q

The medulla of the kidney is

a. the inner part of the kidney.
b. the narrow innermost end of the pyramids.
c. the outer part of the kidney.
d. a division of the renal pelvis.

A

a. the inner part of the kidney.

317
Q

True or False:

Any material that is filtered and not reabsorbed will be lost in the urine.

A

True

318
Q

Which hormone is secreted by the adrenal glands and increases the absorption of salt?

a. ANH
b. Aldosterone
c. ADH
d. Insulin

A

b. Aldosterone

319
Q

True or False:

The juxtaglomerular apparatus secretes a hormone that causes dilation of blood vessels.

A

False

320
Q

True or False:

The papillae are a divison of the renal pelvis.

A

False

321
Q

True or False:

The glomerular capsule is the cup-shaped top of the nephron.

A

True

322
Q

True or False:

Glycosuria is symptomatic of diabetes mellitus.

A

True

323
Q

True or False:

Kidneys are considered vital organs.

A

True

324
Q

Diuretic herbs have a specific influence on which system?

a. Urinary
b. Integumentary
c. Muscular
d. Lymphatic

A

a. Urinary

325
Q

Berberine is the primary active constituent in

a. buchu - Barosma betulina
b. burdock - Arctium lappa
c. marshmallow - Althaea officinalis
d. Oregon grape - Mahonia aquifolium

A

d. Oregon grape - Mahonia aquifolium

326
Q

Cleavers is also commonly called

a. goosegrass
b. bedstraw
c. catchwood
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

327
Q

True or False:

The kidneys help regulate water and the pH of the blood.

A

True

328
Q

Peristalsis like movement helps move urine through the

a. urethra.
b. urinary bladder.
c. ureter.
d. nephron.

A

c. ureter.

329
Q

True or False:

Micturition, voiding, and urination all refer to the same thing.

A

True

330
Q

The dissolved substances and fluid that move from the glomerulus into Bowman capsule are called

a. reabsorbed substances.
b. glomerular filtrate.
c. secreted substances.
d. secreted filtrate.

A

b. glomerular filtrate.

331
Q

True or False:

The urniary meatus is part of the urethra.

A

True

332
Q

True or False:

Both filtration and secretion occur in the renal corpuscle.

A

False

333
Q

Infusions of the following herb is effective in the case of cystitis

a. uva ursi - Arctostaphylos uva-ursi
b. valerian - Valeriana officinalis
c. St. John’s wort - Hypericum perforatum
d. kava-kava - Piper methysticum

A

a. uva ursi - Arctostaphylos uva-ursi

334
Q

The primary action of cleavers is on the

a. lymphatic system.
b. cardiovascular system.
c. liver.
d. kidneys.

A

a. lymphatic system.

335
Q

Parsley contains a volatile oil that is high in

a. apiol.
b. asperuloside.
c. berberine.
d. all of the above.

A

a. apiol.

336
Q

Which part of the nephron can be found in the medulla of the kidney?

a. Glomerular capsule
b. Glomerulus
c. Nephron loop
d. Distal convoluted tubule

A

c. Nephron loop

337
Q

True or False:

The nephron loop can extend into the medulla of the kidney.

A

True

338
Q

This hormone increases the amount of water lost in the urine

a. ADH
b. ANH
c. aldosterone
d. Renin

A

b. ANH

339
Q

True or False:

The papillae are a divison of the renal pelvis.

A

False

340
Q

True or False:

The lower part of the rib cage protects the uppermost part of the kidney.

A

True

341
Q

What condition occurs when the bladder is able to empty itself but no urine is being produced by the kidneys?

a. Retention
b. Suppression
c. Incontinence
d. Polyuria

A

b. Suppression

342
Q

This herb can increase the amount of sugar in the urine and should not be used where there is a tendency toward diabetes.

a. Cayenne
b. Kelp
c. Yarrow
d. Cleavers

A

d. Cleavers

343
Q

True or False:
The primary action of Gallum aparine is on the lymphatic system, particularly enlarged congested cervical nodes in the neck.

A

True

344
Q

True or False:

The whole parsley plant, excet the root, is used in herbal medicine.

A

False

345
Q

The proximal convoluted tubule connects

a. the glomerulus and glomerular capsule.
b. glomerular capsule and nephron loop.
c. nephron loop and the collecting tubule.
d. nephron loop and glomerular capsule.

A

b. glomerular capsule and nephron loop.

346
Q

Which hormone is secreted by the adrenal glands and increases the absorption of salt?

a. ANH
b. Aldosterone
c. ADH
d. Insulin

A

b. Aldosterone

347
Q

True or False:

About 20% of the blood pumped by the heart enters the kidneys.

A

True

348
Q

True or False:

The kidneys lie medial to the backbone and just above the waistline.

A

False

349
Q

Chronic cystitis may lead to

a. liver failure.
b. kidney infection.
c. sinusitis.
d. all of the above.

A

b. kidney infection.

350
Q

True or False:

The kidneys regulate the blood concentration of chloride, potassium, and bicarabonate.

A

True

351
Q

True or False:

Both ADH and aldosterone tend to increase the volume of urine.

A

False

352
Q

True or False:

Only the root of cleavers is used in herbal medicine.

A

False

353
Q

True or False:

The pituitary gland, adrenal gland, and the heart all produce hormones that help control urine volume.

A

True

354
Q

Which of the following structures is not part of the renal tubules?

a. Nephron loop
b. Glomerular capsule
c. Collecting tubule
d. Distal convoluted tubule

A

b. Glomerular capsule

355
Q

True or False:

The movement of materials from the filtrate to the blood is called secretion.

A

False

356
Q

Which of the following do ot help protect the kidney?

a. The rib cage
b. A fat pad
c. The hip bone
d. Muscles of the back

A

c. The hip bone

357
Q

True or False:

In suppression, the kidneys are still functioning normally.

A

False

NAT211 - Anatomy & Physiology II (1 decks)

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