Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

When an imaging procedure is justified in terms of medical necessity, diagnostic efficacy is achieved when optimal-quality images, revealing the presence of absence of disease, are obtained with:

a. Maximal radiation exposure
b. Minimal radiation exposure
c. Scattered radiation exposure
d. Secondary radiation exposure

A

b. Minimal radiation exposure

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2
Q

To reduce radiation exposure to the patient:
1. Reduce the amount of x-ray “beam on” time
2. Use as much distance as warranted between the x-ray tube and the patient for the
examination
3. Always shield the patient with appropriate gonadal and/or specific area shielding devices

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

d. 1, 2, and 3

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3
Q

In medicine, when radiation safety principles are correctly applied during imaging procedures, the energy deposited in living tissue by the radiation can be limited. This results in:

a. Completely eliminating the possibility for
reducing the potential for adverse effects
b. No change in the possibility for reducing
the potential for adverse effects
c. Increasing the potential for adverse
biologic effects
d. Reducing the potential for adverse
biologic effects

A

d. Reducing the potential for adverse

biologic effects

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4
Q

Which of the following cardinal principles of radiation protection can be applied to both the patient and the radiographer?

  1. Time
  2. Distance
  3. Shielding

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

A

d. 1, 2 and 3

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5
Q

The ALARA philosophy should:

  1. Be a main part of every health care facility’s personnel radiation control program
  2. Be maintained because at this time there are no firm dose limits established for the amount
    of radiation that patients may receive for individual imaging procedures.
  3. Be maintained and show all reasonable actions that will reduce dose to patients and
    personnel below required limits have been considered.

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

d. 1, 2, and 3

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6
Q

X-rays:

  1. Can have varying degrees of penetration in normal biologic tissue
  2. Can be focused by a lens
  3. Are invisible

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

b. 1 and 3 only

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7
Q

Effective measures employed by radiation workers to safe guard patients, personnel, and the general public from unnecessary exposure to ionizing radiation defines:

a. Diagnostic efficacy
b. Optimization
c. Radiation protection
d. The concept of equivalent dose (EqD)

A

c. Radiation protection

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8
Q

An effective radiation safety program requires a firm commitment to radiation safety by:

  1. Facilities producing imaging services
  2. Radiation workers
  3. Patients

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

a. 1 and 2 only

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9
Q

From which of the following sources do human beings receive the largest dose of ionizing radiation?

a. Radioactive fallout from atomic weapons testing
b. Medical radiation procedures
c. Cosmic rays
d. The area surrounding a nuclear reactor

A

b. Medical radiation procedures

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10
Q

Ultraviolet radiation less than 10 eV, visible light, infrared rays, microwaves, and radio waves are considered to be nonionizing because they:

a. Have sufficient kinetic energy to eject electrons from atoms
b. Do not have sufficient kinetic energy to eject electrons from atoms
c. Have sufficient potential energy to eject electrons from atoms
d. Do not have sufficient potential energy to eject electrons from atoms

A

b. Do not have sufficient kinetic energy to eject electrons from atoms

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11
Q

Which of the following is the total average annual radiation equivalent dose from manmade and natural radiation?

a. 1.8 mSv per year
b. 3.0 mSv per year
c. 3.2 mSv per year
d. 6.3 mSv per year

A

d. 6.3 mSv per year

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12
Q

Beta particles are identical to ________ except for their origin.

a. Alpha particles
b. Gamma rays
c. High-speed electrons
d. X-rays
e. Protons

A

c. High-speed electrons

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13
Q

The Z number (Atomic number) refers to the number of:

a. Electrons in the outer shell of an atom
b. Electrons in the nucleus of an atom
c. Neutrons in the nucleus of an atom
d. Protons in the nucleus of an atom
e. Protons in the inner shell of an atom

A

d. Protons in the nucleus of an atom

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14
Q

The amount of radiation actually received by a patient from diagnostic x-ray procedure may be indicated in terms such as:

  1. Entrance skin exposure (ESE)
  2. Bone marrow dose
  3. Gonadal dose

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

d. 1, 2, and 3

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15
Q

Which of the following are natural sources of ionizing radiation?

a. Medical x-radiation and cosmic radiation
b. Radioactive elements in the crust of the earth and in the human body
c. Radioactive elements in the human body and a diagnostic x-ray machine
d. Radioactive fallout and environs of atomic energy plants

A

b. Radioactive elements in the crust of the earth and in the human body

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16
Q

Sources of medical ionizing radiation exposure include:

  1. Computed tomography
  2. Sonography
  3. Interventional fluoroscopy

a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 2 and 3
e. 1, 2, and 3

A

c. 1 and 3 only

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17
Q

The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) considers the second leading cause of lung cancer in the United States to be.

a. Diagnostic x-rays
b. Normal exposure to ultraviolet radiation
c. Radon
d. Cosmic rays

A

c. Radon

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18
Q

Exit, or image-formation, radiation is composed of which of the following?

a. Primary photons and Compton-scattered photons
b. Non-interacting and small-angle scattered photons
c. Attenuated photons
d. Absorbed photons

A

b. Non-interacting and small-angle scattered photons

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19
Q

Which of the following contributes significantly to the exposure of the radiographer?

a. Positrons
b. Electrons
c. Compton-scattered photons
d. Compton-scattered electrons

A

c. Compton-scattered photons

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20
Q

In the radiographic kilovoltage range, which of the following structures will undergo the most photoelectric absorption?

a. Air cavities
b. Compact bone
c. Fat
d. Soft tissue

A

b. Compact bone

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21
Q

In which of the following x-ray interactions with matter is the energy of the incident photon partially absorbed?

a. Compton
b. Photoelectric
c. Coherent
d. Pair production

A

a. Compton

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22
Q

When a high atomic number solution is either ingested or injected into human tissue or a structure to visualize it during an imaging procedure, which of the following occurs?

a. Photoelectric interaction becomes greatly decreased, resulting in an increase in the
absorbed dose in the body tissues or structures that contain the contrast
medium.
b. Photoelectric interaction becomes significantly enhanced, leading to an
increase in the absorbed dose in the body tissues or structures that contain the contrast medium.
c. Photoelectric interaction becomes greatly decreased, resulting in an decrease in the
absorbed dose in the body tissues or structures that contain the contrast medium.
d. Photoelectric interaction becomes significantly enhanced, leading to a decrease in the absorbed dose in the body tissues or structures that contain the
contrast medium.

A

b. Photoelectric interaction becomes significantly enhanced, leading to an
increase in the absorbed dose in the body tissues or structures that contain the contrast medium.

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23
Q

Which of the following influences attenuation?

  1. Effective atomic number of the absorber
  2. Mass density
  3. Thickness of the absorber

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

d. 1, 2, and 3

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24
Q

Which of the following characteristics primarily differentiates the probability of occurrence of the various interactions of x-radiation with human tissue?

a. Energy of the incoming photon
b. Direction of the incident photon
c. X-ray beam intensity
d. Exposure time

A

a. Energy of the incoming photon

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25
Q

A decrease in contrast of the image by adding an additional, unwanted density (radiographic fog) results from which of the following interactions between x-radiation and matter?

  1. Compton scattering
  2. Pair production
  3. Photoelectric absorption

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

a. 1 only

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26
Q

When a technical exposure factor of 90 kVp is selected, which of the following occurs?

a. The energy of the highest energy photon in the x-ray beam is 30 keV
b. The electrons are accelerated from the cathode to the anode with an energy of 45 keV
c. The energy of the average photon in the x-ray beam is about 90 keV
d. The energy of the average photon in the x-ray beam is about 30 keV

A

d. The energy of the average photon in the x-ray beam is about 30 keV

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27
Q

The passage of x-ray photons through a patient without interaction is called:

a. Absorption
b. Attenuation
c. Indirect transmission
d. Direct transmission

A

d. Direct transmission

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28
Q

In which of the following x-ray interactions with matter is the energy of the incident photon completely absorbed?

a. Compton
b. Photoelectric
c. Incoherent
d. Rayleigh

A

b. Photoelectric

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29
Q

What is the result of coherent scattering?

a. Usually just a small angle change in the direction of the incident photon
b. Transfer of all energy of the incident x-ray photon to the atoms of the irradiated object
c. Production of a negatron and a positron
d. Transfer of only some of the energy of the incident x-ray photon to the atoms of the
irradiated object

A

a. Usually just a small angle change in the direction of the incident photon

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30
Q

A technical exposure factor of 100 kVp means that the electrons bombarding the anode of the x-ray tube have a maximum energy of:

a. 1000 electron volts (eV), or 1 keV
b. 10,000 electron volts (eV), or 10 keV
c. 100,000 electron volts (eV), or 100 keV
d. 1,000,000 electron volts (eV), or 1,000 keV

A

c. 100,000 electron volts (eV), or 100 keV

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31
Q

A reduction in the number of primary photons in the x-ray beam through absorption and scatter as the beam passes through the patient in its path defines:

a. Annihilation
b. Attenuation
c. Photodisintegration
d. Radiographic fog

A

b. Attenuation

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32
Q

Within the energy range of diagnostic radiology (23 to 150 kVp) that includes mammography, when kVp is decreased, the patient dose:

a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Remains the same
d. Doubles

A

b. Increases

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33
Q

Of the following interactions between x-radiation and matter, which only occur above the range of diagnostic radiology?

  1. Photoelectric absorption
  2. Pair production
  3. Photodisintegration

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

c. 2 and 3 only

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34
Q

For a diagnostic radiologic examination, the selection of technical exposure factors using an optimal kVp and mAs combination:

a. Produces an x-ray image of acceptable quality but increases patient dose
b. Produces an x-ray image of acceptable quality while minimizing patient dose
c. Produces an x-ray image of acceptable quality without affecting patient dose
d. Affects neither the quality of the completed radiographic image nor patient dose

A

b. Produces an x-ray image of acceptable quality while minimizing patient dose

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35
Q

An incoming photon of 1 MeV interacts with an orbital electron causing ionization of the atom and a .7 MeV scattered photon. This describes an event called:

a. Pair production
b. Photoelectric absorption
c. Compton scattering
d. None of the above

A

c. Compton scattering

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36
Q

A 85 keV x-ray photon strikes an inner shell electron, and all of the photon energy is transferred to the electron. This describes:

a. Coherent scattering
b. Compton scattering
c. Photoelectric effect
d. Photodisintegration

A

c. Photoelectric effect

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37
Q

An interaction between high-energy x-ray photons, above 10 MeV, and the nucleus of a target atom with the emission of a neutron or other nuclear particles is called:

a. Photodisintegration
b. Photoelectric effect
c. Pair production
d. Compton effect

A

a. Photodisintegration

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38
Q

The probability of occurrence of Compton interactions relative to (compared to) that of photoelectric interactions increases as x-ray photon energy (kVp):

a. Remains constant
b. Increases
c. Fluctuates from AC to DC
d. Decreases

A

b. Increases

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39
Q

When a photon of 1.022 MeV interacts with the nuclear force field (nucleus) of an atom, its energy is changed or transformed into two electrons. What are the names of these two electrons?

a. Identical scatter electrons
b. Rayleigh and Thompson electrons
c. Positron and negatron electrons
d. Recoil electrons
e. Roentgen and Edison electrons

A

c. Positron and negatron electrons

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40
Q

The probability of occurrence of photoelectric absorption ________ markedly as the atomic number of the irradiated material ________.

a. Increases / decreases
b. Decreases / increases
c. Increases / increases
d. Remains constant / decreases

A

c. Increases / increases

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41
Q

When a technical exposure factor of 75 kVp is selected, which of the following occurs?

a. The energy of the highest energy photon in the x-ray beam is 75 keV
b. The electrons are accelerated from the
cathode to the anode with an energy of 25 keV
c. The energy of the average photon in the x-ray beam is about 75 keV
d. The energy of the average photon in the x-ray beam is about 33 keV

A

a. The energy of the highest energy photon in the x-ray beam is 75 keV

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42
Q

The interaction illustrated in Figure 5-9 in the workbook:

  1. Can pose a safety hazard to imaging personnel
  2. Can have a degrading impact on image quality
  3. Surrenders a portion of its kinetic energy causing ionization

a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 2 and 3 only
e. 1, 2, and 3

A

e. 1, 2, and 3

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43
Q

The interaction between x-ray and matter pictured in Figure 3-1 in the workbook is associated with:

  1. An inner shell electron (usually in the K or L shells)
  2. Total energy transfer from photon to electron
  3. Increased patient dose and biologic damage of tissues
  4. Photoelectric absorption interaction

a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 3 and 4 only
e. 1, 2, 3 and 4

A

e. 1, 2, 3 and 4

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44
Q

The interaction between x-ray and matter pictured in the Figure below is associated with:

  1. High-atomic-number absorbers
  2. Ionization
  3. Characteristic radiation produced

a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 3 only
e. 1, 2, and 3

A

e. 1, 2, and 3

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45
Q

Which of the following statements pertain to the interaction with matter illustrated in the Figure below?

  1. A loosely bound outer shell electron is ejected from its orbit
  2. The incident x-ray photon surrenders a portion of its kinetic energy
  3. The scattered x-ray photon continues on its way but in a new direction
  4. The interaction results in all-directional scatter.

a. 1 and 2only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 3 and 4 only
d. 2, 3 and 4 only
e. 1, 2, 3 and 4

A

e. 1, 2, 3 and 4

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46
Q

The x-ray interaction with matter that is responsible for the majority of scattered radiation reaching the image
receptor (IR) is:

a. Photoelectric effect
b. Compton effect
c. Classical scatter
d. Thompson Scatter
e. Unmodified scatter

A

b. Compton effect

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47
Q

The interaction between x-ray and matter pictured below is associated with:

  1. X-ray photon with very low energy (below 10 keV)
  2. Photon with a slight change in direction
  3. Scattered photon with no loss of energy
  4. Coherent scatter interaction

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 3 and 4 only
e. 1, 2, 3 and 4

A

e. 1, 2, 3 and 4

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48
Q

The probability of occurrence of photoelectric absorption:

  1. Increases markedly as the atomic number of the irradiated material increases
  2. Increases markedly as the energy of the incident photon decreases
  3. Increases markedly as the mass density of the irradiated material increases

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 3 only
e. 1, 2, and 3

A

e. 1, 2, and 3

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49
Q

When a technical exposure factor of 120 kVp is selected, which of the following occurs?

a. The electrons are accelerated from the anode to the cathode with an energy of 100 keV.
b. The electrons are accelerated from the cathode to the anode with an energy of 60 keV.
c. The beam will contain all photons having an effective energy of 60 keV.
d. The beam will contain photons having energies of 120 keV or less, with an average effective energy of approximately 40 keV.

A

d. The beam will contain photons having energies of 120 keV or less, with an average effective energy of approximately 40 keV.

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50
Q

Occupational and nonoccupational doses will remain well below maximum allowable levels when:

a. Radiographers and radiologists keep exposure as low as reasonably achievable
b. Referring physicians stop ordering imaging procedures
c. Orders for imaging procedures are determined only by medical insurance companies
d. Patients assume sole responsibility for ordering their imaging procedures

A

a. Radiographers and radiologists keep exposure as low as reasonably achievable

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51
Q

Repetition of a radiographic exposure because of poor patient positioning results in:

a. No significant change in total radiation exposure to the patient or the radiographer
b. A slight decrease in total radiation exposure to the patient and the radiographer
c. An increase in total radiation exposure to the patient and the radiographer
d. A significant decrease in total radiation exposure to the patient and the radiographer

A

c. An increase in total radiation exposure to the patient and the radiographer

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52
Q

Certain individual radiologic procedures need to have patient dose dictated into every radiologic report. These procedures include:

  1. Computed tomography
  2. General Fluoroscopy
  3. Interventional procedures

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

d. 1, 2, and 3

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53
Q

To reduce radiation exposure to occupational imaging personnel:

  1. Reduce the amount time spent in a room where radiation is produced
  2. Stand at the greatest distance possible from an energized x-ray beam and the patient
  3. Interpose radiation-absorbing shielding material between the radiographer and the source of radiation

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

d. 1, 2, and 3

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54
Q

Of the following radiations, which are classified as ionizing radiation?

  1. Infrared rays, low-energy ultraviolet radiation, and microwaves
  2. Low-energy ultraviolet radiation, radio waves, and visible light
  3. Ultraviolet radiation with energy greater than 10 eV, gamma rays, and x-rays

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

c. 3 only

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55
Q

Fundamental properties of x-rays include:

  1. Travel in a straight lines
  2. Travel at the speed of light (300 million meters per second)
  3. Produce charged particles by interaction with atoms when passing through matter
  4. X-ray beams consist of a wide range of energies that are normally heterogeneous

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 3 and 4 only
e. 1, 2, 3 and 4

A

e. 1, 2, 3 and 4

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56
Q

The process most responsible for the contrast between bone and soft tissue in a diagnostic radiographic image is:

a. Coherent scattering
b. Compton scattering
c. Photoelectric absorption
d. Photodisintegration

A

c. Photoelectric absorption

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57
Q

A radiation weighting factor (WR) has been established for each of the following ionizing radiations: x-rays (WR=1), fast neutrons (WR=20), and alpha particles (WR=20). What is the totalequivalent dose (EqD) in sievertsfor a person who has received the following exposures: 15 Gy of x-rays, 10 Gy of fast neutrons, and 5 Gy of alpha particles?

a. 31.5 Sv
b. 315 Sv
c. 3,150 Sv
d. 31,500 Sv

A

b.315 Sv

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58
Q

The radiation weighting factor for x-rays is 1, and the tissue weighting factor for the breast is 0.05. If the breast receives an absorbed dose of 350 Gy from exposure to x-rays, what is the effective dose (EfD) in sievert?

a. 350 Sv
b. 175 Sv
c. 35 Sv
d. 17.5 Sv

A

d.17.5 Sv

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59
Q

If 300 people received an average dose of 35 Sv, what is the collective effective dose (ColEfD)?

a. 1.05 person-sieverts
b. 10.5 person-sieverts
c. 105 person-sieverts
d. 1,050 person-sieverts
e. 10,500 person-sieverts

A

e.10,500 person-sieverts

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60
Q

Determine the totaldose equivalent (DE) in sievert(Sv) for a person who has received the following exposures of radiation: 29 gray beta particles, Q=1; 18 gray neutrons, energy 10 keV -100 keV Q=10; and 25 gray alpha particles, Q=20.

a. 70.9 Sv
b. 709 Sv
c. 7,090Sv
d. 70,900 Sv

A

b.709 Sv

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61
Q

A patient’s irradiated surface receives an air kerma dose of 40 mGy. If the area of the irradiated surface is 240 cm2, what is the dose area product (DAP).

a. 9.600 mGy-cm2
b. 9,600 mGy-cm2
c. 96,000 mGy-cm2
d. 960,000 mGy-cm2

A

b.9,600 mGy-cm2

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62
Q

An exposure to which of the following radiations will result in the person receiving the highest dose equivalency (DE)?

a. 68 gray of x-ray
b. 68 gray of beta
c. 68 gray of gamma-ray
d. 68 gray of alpha
e. 68 gray of proton

A

d.68 gray of alpha

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63
Q

To determine D, the amount of energy absorbed by the irradiated object must be measured by:

a. Calculating EqD
b. Calculating the entrance skin exposure of the object
c. Determining the amount of energy deposited per kilogram of the irradiated object
d. Determining the amount of ionization in a specific volume of dry air at atmospheric pressure

A

c.Determining the amount of energy deposited per kilogram of the irradiated object

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64
Q

Which of the following is the SI unit of radiation exposure that is used for x-ray equipment calibration?

a. C/kg
b. DAP
c. R
d. SV

A

a.C/kg

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65
Q

Which of the following radiation quantities accounts for some biologic tissues being more sensitive to radiation damage than other tissues?

a. Absorbed dose
b. Exposure
c. Equivalent dose
d. Effective dose

A

d.Effective dose

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66
Q

The SI quantity used to express kinetic energy released in matter is the:

a. erg
b. gray
c. kerma
d. rad
e. joule

A

c.kerma

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67
Q

The SI unit used to express kinetic energy released in matter (kerma) is the:

a. erg
b. Gy
c. C/kg
d. rad
e. joule

A

b.Gy

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68
Q

Early tissue reactions (deterministic somatic effects) of radiation include:

  1. Nausea and fatigue
  2. Blood and intestinal disorders
  3. Diffuse redness of the skin and shedding of its outer layer

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

d.1, 2, and 3

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69
Q

The ampere is the SI unit of:

a. Electrical charge
b. Electrical potential
c. Electrical resistance
d. X-ray ionization in air
e. Electrical current

A

e.Electrical current

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70
Q

Diagnostic imaging personnel should wear a personnel dosimeter during routine operations in an imaging facility because the device provides:

  1. An indication of an individual’s working habits
  2. An indication of working conditions in the facility
  3. A way for the employer to determine if radiation workers are actively engaged in performing a specific number of x-ray procedures during a given period

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

a.1 and 2 only

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71
Q

Which of the following are disadvantages of using a TLD as a personnel monitoring device?

  1. It can be read only once because the readout process destroys the stored information
  2. It is necessary to use calibrated dosimeters with TLD’s
  3. The initial cost is higher than that for a OSL dosimeter service
  4. Lithium fluoride is used as the sensing material in the TLD

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 1 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, and 3 only
e. 1, 2, 3, and 4

A

d.1, 2, and 3 only

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72
Q

Which statement(s) is(are) accurate about the function of the control monitor?

  1. Measures radiation exposure in the work area
  2. Should be kept in a distant room from the radiation area
  3. Measures background exposure while in transit to and from the health care facility

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 3 only
d. 2 and 3 only
e. 1, 2, and 3

A

d.2 and 3 only

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73
Q

Which of the following is used to survey an area for radiation detection and measurement in the diagnostic imaging department?

a. TLD dosimeter
b. OSL dosimeter
c. Handheld Cutie Pie ionization chamber
d. Handheld Geiger-Mueller meter

A

c.Handheld Cutie Pie ionization chamber

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74
Q

Which of the following is the most accurate personnel monitoring device?

a. OSL dosimeter
b. TLD dosimeter
c. Film badge
d. Geiger-Muller meter

A

a.OSL dosimeter

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75
Q

Exposure monitoring of personnel is required whenever radiation workers are likely to risk receiving ________ or more of the occupational EfD limit of 50 mSv (5 mrem) in any single year due to their work-related activities.

a. 1 %
b. 5 %
c. 10 %
d. 25 %

A

c.10 %

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76
Q

Which of the following are advantages of using a TLD as a personnel monitoring device?

  1. It can be worn up to 3 months.
  2. It is not affected by humidity, pressure, or normal temperature changes.
  3. After a reading has been obtained, the crystals can be reused.
  4. Lithium fluoride crystals interact with ionizing radiation as human tissue does, therefore itdetermines dose more accurately.

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 1 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, and 3 only
e. 1, 2, 3, and 4

A

e.1, 2, 3, and 4

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77
Q

Determine the cumulative effective dose (CumEfD) to the whole body of an occupationally exposed person who is 19 years old:

a. 1.9 mSv
b. 19 mSv
c. 190 mSv
d. 1,900 mSv

A

c.190 mSv

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78
Q

The annual occupational equivalent dose limits for all tissues and organs (i.e. hands, skin, and feet) other than the lens of the eye (nonstochastic) is:

a. 50 mSv
b. 150 mSv
c. 250 mSv
d. 500 mSv
e. 1,000 mSv

A

d.500 mSv

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79
Q

When exposed to radiation as part of their educational experience, 18-years-old students should notexceed an effective dose limit of ________ annually.

a. 0.5 mSv (0.05 rem)
b. 1 mSv (0.1 rem)
c. 5 mSv (0.5 rem)
d. 50 mSv (5 rem)

A

d.50 mSv (5 rem)

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80
Q

Which of the following concepts is behind the establishment of the effective dose limiting system?

a. Negligible risk
b. Organ and tissue radio sensitivity
c. Radiation hormesis
d. Radiation exposure and associated risk of possible radiation-induced malignancy

A

d.Radiation exposure and associated risk of possible radiation-induced malignancy

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81
Q

Biologic somatic effects of ionizing radiation that can be directly related to the dose received, exhibit a threshold dosebelowwhich the response does not normally occur and abovewhich the severity of the biologic damage increasesas the dose increases are classified as which of the following?

a. Tissue reactions
b. Epidemiologic effects
c. Probabilistic effects
d. Stochastic effects

A

a.Tissue reactions

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82
Q

The annual dose limit for medical imaging personnel includes radiation from:

  1. Occupational exposure
  2. Background radiation
  3. Dental and medical x-ray exams

a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

a.1 only

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83
Q

Somatic effects of radiation exposure refer to effects that are:

a. Manifested in the descendants of the exposed individual
b. Experienced directly by the exposed individual
c. Experienced directly by the exposed individual and his or her children or grandchildren
d. Manifested in the reproductive cells of the exposed individual

A

b.Experienced directly by the exposed individual

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84
Q

Effects of ionizing radiation that are nonthreshold, all-or-none, randomly occurring biologic somatic changes, where their chances of occurrence increase with each radiation exposure,are classified as which of the following?

a. Tissue reactions
b. Epidemiologic effects
c. Deterministic effects
d. Stochastic effects

A

d.Stochastic effects

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85
Q

Examples of stochastic effects include:

  1. Acute radiation syndrome
  2. Cancer
  3. Genetic alterations

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

c.2 and 3 only

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86
Q

Biologic somatic effects of ionizing radiation that can be directly related to the dose received include:

  1. Early tissue reactions
  2. Stochastic effects
  3. Late tissue reactions

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

b.1 and 3 only

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87
Q

Which of the following is the SI unit of radiation exposure in air only?

a. C/kg
b. DAP
c. R
d. Sv

A

a.C/kg

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88
Q

Which of the following terms describes the amount of energy per unit mass transferred from an x-ray beam to an object in its path such as the human body?

a. SI
b. Exposure
c. Equivalent dose
d. Absorbed dose

A

d.Absorbed dose

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89
Q

Which of the following statements concerning the exposure quantity, X, is true?

  1. It is measured by ions in air
  2. It only measures X-rays and Gamma ray photons
  3. It is based on a response produced when radiation interacts with air.

a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 3 only
e. 1, 2, and 3

A

e. 1, 2, and 3

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90
Q

X-rays, beta particles (high-speed electrons), and gamma rays have been given a numeric adjustment value (Q or WR) of 1 because they produce:

a. No biologic effect in body tissue for equal absorbed doses
b. Varying degrees of biologiceffect in body tissue for equal absorbed doses
c. High-dose biologic effects in all body tissues for even the smallest dose
d. Virtually the same biologic effect in body tissue for equal absorbed doses

A

d.Virtually the same biologic effect in body tissue for equal absorbed doses

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91
Q

Which of the following statements are true concerning radiation quantities and units?

  1. Each type and energy of radiation has a specific WR.
  2. EFD provides a measure of the overall risk of exposure to humans from ionizing radiation.
  3. Radiation weighting factors are selected by national and international scientific advisorybodies (NCRP, ICRP) and are based on quality factors and linear energy transfer.

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

d.1, 2, and 3

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92
Q

When laser light is incident on the sensing material in an OSL dosimeter, the material:

a. Becomes luminescent in proportion to the amount of radiation exposure received
b. Fluoresces in proportion to the amount of radiation exposure received and then emits beta particles
c. Phosphoresces in proportion to the amount of radiation exposure received and then darkens
d. Turns ice blue and fluoresces in proportion to the amount of radiation exposure received

A

a.Becomes luminescent in proportion to the amount of radiation exposure received

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93
Q

Which of the following chemical compounds functions as the sensing material in a thermoluminescent dosimeter?

a. Barium sulfate (BaSO4)
b. Calcium tungstate (CaWO4)
c. Lithium fluoride (LiF)
d. Sodium iodide (NaI)

A

c.Lithium fluoride (LiF)

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94
Q

During routine radiographic procedures, when a protective apron is not being worn, the primary personnel dosimeter should be attached to the clothing on the front of the body at:

a. Collar level to approximate the maximum radiation dose to the thyroid and the head and neck
b. Chest level to approximate the maximum radiation dose to the heart and lungs
c. Hip level to approximate the maximum radiation dose to the reproductive organs
d. Waist level to approximate the maximum radiation dose to the small intestine

A

a.Collar level to approximate the maximum radiation dose to the thyroid and the head and neck

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95
Q

During diagnostic imaging procedures, how should the radiation dose to the abdomen of a pregnant radiographer be monitored during gestation?

a. It may be estimated from the radiation dose recorded by the primary monitor worn at collar level
b. It may be obtained from the primary radiation monitor worn at abdominal level
c. It may be obtained from a second radiation monitor worn at abdominal level
d. It is not necessary to monitor the radiation dose to the embryo fetus that results from occupational exposure of a pregnant radiographer during gestation.

A

c.It may be obtained from a second radiation monitor worn at abdominal level

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96
Q

Which of the following instruments should beused in an x-ray installation to measure fluoroscopic scatter radiation exposure rate?

a. GM survey meter
b. Ionization chamber-type survey meter (Cutie pie)
c. Proportional counter
d. TLD

A

b.Ionization chamber-type

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97
Q

Which of the following radiation monitors is currently the mostcommonlyused dosimeter for monitoring occupational exposure in diagnostic imaging?

a. Personnel digital ionization dosimeter
b. Pocket ionization chamber
c. TLD
d. OSL

A

d.OSL

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98
Q

The OSL dosimeter uses:

a. An Al2O3 detector
b. LiF as a sensing material
c. A miniature ionization chamber as a detector
d. Radiation dosimetry film as a detector

A

a.An Al2O3 detector

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99
Q

The increased sensitivity of the OSL dosimeter makes it ideal for monitoring employees working in low-radiation environments and for:

a. Area monitoring of radioisotope storage facilities
b. Monitoring of patients with a radioactive implant
c. Monitoring of pregnant workers
d. General patient and public monitoring

A

c.Monitoring of pregnant workers

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100
Q

What is the maximum period of time that a TLD may be worn as a personnel dosimeter?

a. 1 week
b. 1 month
c. 3 months
d. 1 year

A

c.3 months

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101
Q

Which types of personnel dose monitoring devices should be used to monitor the whole body dosage of diagnostic imaging personnel?

  1. Proportional Counter
  2. Thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD)
  3. Optically stimulated luminescent dosimeter (OSL)
  4. Geiger-Muller (GM) survey meter

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 2, 3, and 4 only
e. 1, 2, 3, and 4

A

c.2 and 3 only

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102
Q

An OSL control monitor indicates:

a. The sensitivity of the radiographic film in the dosimeter
b. The presence of impurities in the lithium fluoride crystals
c. Whether group dosimeters were exposed in transit
d. Whether filters in group dosimeters are working correctly

A

c.Whether group dosimeters were exposed in transit

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103
Q

Which of the following are advantages of using the OSL as a personnel monitoring device?

  1. It can be worn for longer periods of time (up to 1 year) to record occupational exposure.
  2. Heat, moister, and pressure will not affect the tamperproof blister packet..
  3. Offers complete reanalysis in the event that an error in reading the dosimeter has occurred.
  4. It is lightweight, durable, and easy to carry.

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 1 and 4 only
d. 2, 3, and 4 only
e. 1, 2, 3, and 4

A

e.1, 2, 3, and 4

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104
Q

According to the NCRP #116, the annual equivalent dose limit for non-stochastic (somatic) effects for the lens of the eye for occupational personnel is:

a. 50 mSv
b. 150 mSv
c. 500 mSv
d. 750 mSv

A

b.150 mSv

105
Q

Which of the following agencies is responsible for enforcing radiation safety standards?

a. ICRP
b. NRC
c. NCRP
d. UNSCEAR

A

b.NRC

106
Q

Responsibilities of a medical facility’s radiation safety officer (RSO) include which of the following?

  1. Developing an appropriate radiation safety program
  2. Maintaining radiation monitoring records for all personnel
  3. Repairing all broken or defective imaging equipment

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

a.1 and 2 only

107
Q

To reduce exposure for pregnant female imaging professionals and to control the exposure of the unborn during potentially sensitive periods of gestation, the NCRP now recommends a monthly equivalent dose limit not exceeding ________ per month to the embryo-fetus and a limit during the entire pregnancy not to exceed ________ after declaration of a pregnancy.

a. 0.5 mSv, 5.0 mSv
b. 5 mSv, 7.0 mSv
c. 150 mSv, 300 mSv
d. 250 mSv, 500 mSv

A

a.0.5 mSv, 5.0 mSv

108
Q

Which of the following is the annual occupational effective dose that applies to radiographers during routine operations?

a. 5 mSv
b. 50 mSv
c. 250 mSv
d. 750 mSv

A

b.50 mSv

109
Q

Which of the following concerns the upper boundary dose of ionizing radiation that results in a negligibleriskof bodily injury or genetic damage?

a. Skin erythema dose
b. Action dose limits
c. ColEfD
d. EfD limit

A

d.EfD limit

110
Q

The NCRP recommends that radiation exposure be kept at which of the following levels?

a. As low as reasonably achievable
b. At threshold levels
c. Slightly above upper boundary levels
d. At 0.01 mSv/yr

A

a.As low as reasonably achievable

111
Q

Which of the following are classified as latetissue reactions (deterministic somatic effects) caused by high-level radiation exposure that occur months or more after that exposure?

  1. Cataract formation
  2. Organ atrophy
  3. Radiation-induced malignancy

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

a.1 and 2 only

112
Q

In additional to the annual occupational effective dose limit established for radiation workers, the NCRP recommends a lifetime effective dose limit, which is found by multiplying a person’s age in years by which of the following?

a. 1 mSv (0.1 rem)
b. 10 mSv (1 rem)
c. 100 mSv (10 rem)
d. 1,000 mSv (100 rem)

A

b.10 mSv (1 rem)

113
Q

For individual members of the general public not occupationally exposed, the NCRP recommended an annual effective dose limit of ____________ for continuous (or frequent) exposures from artificial sources of ionizing radiation other than medical irradiation and natural background and a limit of ____________ annually for infrequent exposures.

a. 1 mSv, 5 mSv
b. 3 mSv, 8 mSv
c. 10 mSv, 20 mSv
d. 50 mSv, 75 mSv

A

a.1 mSv, 5 mSv

114
Q

Late tissue reactions (e.g., cataract formation) have a high probability of occurring when entrance radiation doses exceed:

a. 0.05 Gy
b. 0.5 Gy
c. 1 Gy
d. 2 Gy

A

d.2 Gy

115
Q

Early tissue reactions (deterministic somatic effects) such as erythema (rednessover an area of the skin) have a high probability of occurring when entrance radiation doses exceed:

a. 0.05 Gy
b. 0.25 Gy
c. 0.5 Gy
d. 1 Gy
e. 2 Gy

A

e.2 Gy

116
Q

Which of the following devices is used to measure the amount of ionizing radiation to which a TLD badge has been exposed by first heating the crystals to free the trapped, highly energized electrons and then recording the amount of light emitted by the crystals (which is proportional to the TLD badge exposure)?

a. Small ionization chamber
b. Laser
c. TLD analyzer
d. Sensitometer

A

c.TLD analyzer

117
Q

Both alignment and length and width dimensions of the radiographic and light beams must correspond to within:

a. 1% of the SID
b. 2% of the SID
c. 5% of the SID
d. 10% of the SID

A

b.2% of the SID

118
Q

Which of the following aluminum equivalents for total permanent filtration meets the minimum requirements for mobile diagnostic and fluoroscopic equipment?

a. 0.5 mm aluminum equivalent
b. 1.0 mm aluminum equivalent
c. 2.0 mm aluminum equivalent
d. 2.5 mm aluminum equivalent
e. 3.5 mmaluminum equivalent

A

d.2.5 mm aluminum equivalent

119
Q

To decreasepatient exposure during fluoroscopic procedures, the fluoroscopist can:

  1. Limit the size of the fluoroscopic field to include only the area of anatomy that is of clinical interest
  2. Employ the practice of intermittent, or pulsed, fluoroscopy to reduce the overall length of exposure
  3. Choose to use a conventional fluoroscope instead of an image intensification fluoroscope

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

a.1 and 2 only

120
Q

Which of the following is the most versatile for defining the size and shape of the radiographic beam?

a. A square metal diaphragm shaped to specific size b.Radiographic cone shaped as a flared metal tube
c. Radiographic cone shaped as a straight cylinder
d. Light-localizing variable-aperture rectangular collimator

A

d.Light-localizing variable-aperture rectangular collimator

121
Q

Placing the first pair of shutters in the collimator as close as possible to the x-ray tube port or window may:

a. Eliminate the need for a second pair of shutters.
b. Eliminate the need for added filtration.
c. Reduce patient exposure from the primary beam
d. Reduce patient exposure from off-focus radiation

A

d.Reduce patient exposure from off-focus radiation

122
Q

Some of the causes for high exposures to personnel during interventional procedures include:

  1. Operating the fluoroscopic tube for longer periods in continuous mode in place of pulsed mode.
  2. Failure to use the protective curtain or floating shields on the stationary fluoroscopeequipment’s image intensifier as a means of protection.
  3. Lack of familiarity with the x-ray equipment leading to longer fluoroscopic time forcompletion of a procedure.

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

d.1, 2, and 3

123
Q

Which protective features are designed to reduce exposure to the patient during fluoroscopic procedures?

  1. Intermittent fluoroscopy using the foot switch
  2. Collimation of primary beam limited to the image receptor
  3. Five (5) minute reset timer

a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

d.1, 2, and 3

124
Q

An x-ray machine operating at tube potentials from 50 -70 kVp requires at least:

a. 1.5 mm aluminum of the tube filtration
b. 2.5 mm aluminum of the tube filtration
c. 1.5 mm lead of the tube filtration
d. 2.5 mm lead of the tube filtration

A

a.1.5 mm aluminum of the tube filtration

125
Q

Which of the following produces scatter radiation that exits the patient, reaches the image receptor, and decreases radiographic image contrast?

a. Coherent interaction
b. Compton interaction
c. Photoelectric interaction
d. Photodisintegration

A

b.Compton interaction

126
Q

Which of the following examinations are considered to be unnecessary radiologic procedures?

  1. Chest x-ray study as part of a preemployment physical
  2. Screening mammography
  3. Whole-body multislice spiral CT screening

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

b.1 and 3 only

127
Q

Gonadal shielding should be employed during a radiographic procedure whenever the:

  1. Person has a reasonable reproductive potential
  2. Gonads lie within or 5 cm (2 inches) to the exposure field
  3. Shielding does not compromise objectives of the study

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

d.1, 2, and 3

128
Q

To eliminate voluntary patient motion during radiographic procedure, the radiographer must:

  1. Gain the cooperation of the patient by providing clear, concise instructions
  2. Adequately immobilize the patient during the radiographic exposure
  3. Use motion reduction techniques during the radiographic exposure

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

d.1, 2, and 3

129
Q

According to the National Council of Radiation Protection and Measurements, the chance of malformations from fetal radiation exposure is significantly increased above control levels only at doses:

a. Greater than 25 cGy (0.25 Gy)
b. Greater than 15 cGy (0.15 Gy)
c. Less than 10 cGy (0.10 Gy)
d. Less than 5 cGy (0.05 Gy)

A

b.Greater than 15 cGy (0.15 Gy)

130
Q

The photostimulable phosphor in the computed radiography imaging plate is more sensitive to scatter radiation before and after it is sensitized through exposure to a radiographic beam. Because of this increased sensitivity, which of the following is true?

  1. Five (5) millimeters of added aluminum equivalent filtration must always be used during CR imaging.
  2. A radiographic grid may be used more frequently during CR imaging.
  3. Any source-to-image receptor distance can be used during CR imaging without adjustmentin technical exposure factors.

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

d.1, 2, and 3

131
Q

What is the function of a filter in diagnostic radiology?

a. To permit only alpha particles to reach the patient’s skin
b. To permit only beta particles to interact with the atoms of the patient’s body
c. To decrease the x-radiation dose to the patient’s skin and superficial tissue
d. To remove gamma radiation from the useful beam

A

c.To decrease the x-radiation dose to the patient’s skin and superficial tissue

132
Q

A diagnostic-type protective tube housing must be constructed so that leakage radiation measured at a distance of 1m from the x-ray source does not exceed ________ when the tube is operated at its highest voltage at the highest current that allows continuous operation.

a. 5 mGya/hr (500 mR/hr)
b. 3 mGya/hr (300 mR/hr)
c. 1 mGya/hr (100 mR/hr)
d. 0.1 mGya/hr (10 mR/h)

A

c.1 mGya/hr (100 mR/hr)

133
Q

The radiographic beam should be collimated so that it is which of the following?

a. Slightly larger than the image receptor
b. No larger than the image receptor
c. Twice as large as the image receptor
d. Four times as large as the image receptor

A

b.No larger than the image receptor

134
Q

Which of the following results in an increasein the patient dose?

a. Use of a radiographic grid
b. Use of carbon fiber in the radiographic tabletop
c. Use of filtration according to kVp selected
d. Use of a variable rectangular collimator containing a spacer bar

A

a.Use of a radiographic grid

135
Q

The patient dose significantly decreasesand the life of the fluoroscopic tube increaseswith which of the following?

a. Restriction of the fluoroscopic field to include only the area of clinical interest
b. Use of a conventional fluoroscope rather than image intensification,or the use of digital fluoroscopy equipment
c. Pulsed, or intermittent, fluoroscopy
d. Darkness adaptation

A

c.Pulsed, or intermittent, fluoroscopy

136
Q

Digital radiography eliminates the need for almost all retakes resulting from improper technique selection because the image:

a. The image contrast and overall brightness can be manipulated after image acquisition
b. The image contrast and overall brightness may not be manipulated after image acquisition
c. The image requireschemical processing to become visible
d. Pixel size can be altered after exposure to correct contrast and overall brightness.

A

a.The image contrast and overall brightness can be manipulated after image acquisition

137
Q

When a digital fluoroscopic system is used, which of the following is an effective technique for reducing patient dose?

a. Converting to non-image intensification fluoroscopy
b. Increasing mAs significantly
c. Using scotopic (rod) vision instead of photopic (cone) vision
d. Using the last-image-hold feature

A

d.Using the last-image-hold feature

138
Q

Which of the following reduces patient exposure?

  1. Carbon (graphite) fiber material in a radiographic tabletop.
  2. A lead-lined metal diagnostic-type protective tube housing.
  3. Use of a light-localizing variable-aperture rectangular collimator.

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 3 only
e. 1, 2, and 3

A

e.1, 2, and 3

139
Q

Which of the following statements is(are) true concerning equipment design for radiation protection?

  1. In digital radiography the size of the pixels (picture elements) determines the sharpness ofthe image.
  2. Technical exposure factors for fluoroscopic procedures for children necessitate adecrease in kVp by as much as 25%.
  3. Ongoing education and training in the safe use of fluoroscopic equipment should bemandatory for nonradiologistphysicians and equipment operators.

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 only
d. 2 and 3 only
e. 1, 2, and 3

A

e.1, 2, and 3

140
Q

A primary protective barrier of ________ is required for a fluoroscopic unit.

a. 2-mm aluminum equivalent
b. 2-mm lead equivalent
c. 4-mm aluminum equivalent
d. 4-mm lead equivalent

A

b.2-mm lead equivalent

141
Q

Fluoroscopic equipment equipped with high-level control (HLC) may permit a skin entrance exposure rate as great aswhich of the following?

a. 50 mGya/min (5 R/min)
b. 100 mGya/min (10 R/min)
c. 200 mGya/min (20 R/min)
d. 500 mGya/min (50 R/min)

A

c.200 mGya/min (20 R/min)

142
Q

What is the impact of using 2.5 millimeters of aluminum equivalent filtration on the primary x-ray beam of a radiographic x-ray unit operating above 70kVp?

  1. Compliance with federal and state standards for filtration of diagnostic x-ray beams.
  2. Reduction in the number of x-rays reaching the patient.
  3. Increase in average energy (hardening) of the primary x-ray beam.
  4. Reduction of patient skin dosage.

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 4 only
d. 2, 3, and 4 only
e. 1, 2, 3, and 4

A

e.1, 2, 3, and 4

143
Q

General-purpose intensified fluoroscopic equipmentmay permit a skin entrance exposure rate to a maximum ofwhich of the following?

a. 50 mGya/min (5 R/min)
b. 100 mGya/min (10 R/min)
c. 200 mGya/min (20 R/min)
d. 500 mGya/min (50 R/min)

A

b.100 mGya/min (10 R/min)

144
Q

In accordance with NCRP regulations, the source-to-skin distance (SSD) must be no less than ____________ for stationary (fixed fluoroscopes and no less than ____________ for mobile fluoroscopes (C-arms).

a. 38 cm (15 inches), 30 cm (12 inches)
b. 30 cm (12 inches), 25 cm (10 inches)
c. 25 cm (10 inches), 20 cm (8 inches)
d. 20 cm (8 inches), 15 cm (6 inches)

A

a.38 cm (15 inches), 30 cm (12 inches)

145
Q

The fluoroscopic exposure control switch (the foot pedal) must be of the ________ which means that the exposure automatically terminates if the person operating the switch becomes incapacitated.

a. Push button type
b. Toggle-switch type
c. Dead-man type
d. Circuit breaker type

A

c.Dead-man type

146
Q

An x-ray machine operating at electric potentials above 70 kVp requires at least:

a. 1.5 mm aluminum of the tube filtration
b. 2.5 mm aluminum of the tube filtration
c. 1.5 mm lead of the tube filtration
d. 2.5 mm lead of the tube filtration

A

b.2.5 mm aluminum of the tube filtration

147
Q

Fluoroscopy is conducted with an x-ray tube located under the examination table and provides the radiologist with:

a. Fixed or stationary images
b. Dynamic or moving images
c. Liquid crystal images
d. Bioluminescent images

A

b.Dynamic or moving images

148
Q

Which of the following photon-tissue interactions necessitates the use of a grid?

a. Photoelectric interaction
b. Compton interaction
c. Coherent interaction
d. Pair production

A

b.Compton interaction

149
Q

Which of the following statements are true concerning equipment design for radiation protection?

  1. When PBL is activated, the collimators are automatically adjusted so that the radiation fieldmatches the size of the image receptor.
  2. When operating a mobile radiographic unit, the radiographer must use an SID of at least 30 cm (12 inches) to limit the effects of the inverse square falloff of radiation intensity with distance.
  3. For dose-reduction purposes, it is preferable to position the C-arm so that the x-ray tube isunder the patient.
  4. State-of-the art diagnostic radiographic and fluoroscopic equipment is designed with manydevices that radiologists and technologists can use to optimize the quality ofthe image whileat the same time reducing radiation exposure for patients undergoing various imaging procedures.

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 3 and 4 only
e. 1, 2, 3, and 4

A

e.1, 2, 3, and 4

150
Q

In which of the following projections will a young female patient receive a significantly lower dose to her breast tissue during a chest x-ray?

a. AP
b. AP lordotic
c. PA
d. Lateral

A

c.PA

151
Q

A woman who is 3 months pregnant has been in a motor vehicle accident. The emergency room physician suspects there is injury to her cervical spine and thus feels justified in ordering an x-ray examination to aid in determining the extent of the patient’s injury. Because the patient is pregnant, the radiographer should:

  1. Select the smallest technical exposure factors that will produce a diagnostically useful image
  2. Adequately and precisely collimate the radiographic beam to include only the anatomic area of interest
  3. Shield the patient’s lower abdomen and pelvic region with a suitable protective contact shield

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

d.1, 2, and 3

152
Q

The use of the PA projection during a juvenile scoliosis radiographic examination results in which of the following?

a. Higher entrance exposure dose to the anterior body surface, thereby significantly increasing the dose to the breast
b. Lower entrance exposure dose to the anterior body surface, thereby significantly reducing the dose to the breast
c. Poorer-quality images that necessitate a repeat examination
d. Images that do not adequately demonstrate spinal curvature

A

b.Lower entrance exposure dose to the anterior body surface, thereby significantly reducing the dose to the breast

153
Q

Which of the following results in an increasein the patient dose?

a. Use of the lowest possible kVp with the highest possible mAs for each examination
b. Use of gonadal or specific area shielding
c. Use of standard technique charts, when automatic exposure control is not used
d. Use of the highest practicable kVp with the lowest mAs for each examination

A

a.Use of the lowest possible kVp with the highest possible mAs for each examination

154
Q

When an individual of childbearing age undergoes a diagnostic x-ray procedure, gonadal shielding should be used to protect the reproductive organs from exposure to the useful beam:

  1. When the reproductive organs are in or within approximately 5 cm of a properly collimated-ray beam
  2. Unless shielding will compromise the diagnostic value of the examination
  3. When the radiographer chooses to substitute gonadal shielding for adequate collimation ofthe x-ray beams

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

a.1 and 2 only

155
Q

When automatic exposure control (AEC) is not used, neglecting to use standardized technique charts necessitates estimating the technical exposure factors, which may result in:

  1. Poor-quality images
  2. Repeat examinations
  3. Additional and unnecessary exposure for the patient

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

d.1, 2, and 3

156
Q

Which of the following would help in reducing the radiation exposure to a child during a radiographic procedure?

  1. The use of gonadal shielding
  2. The use of proper body or part immobilization
  3. The use of a tightly collimated beam

a. 1 and 2only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

d.1, 2, and 3

157
Q

Which of the following substantially reduce patient exposure?

  1. Use of proper body or part immobilization
  2. Use of appropriate technical exposure factors
  3. Use of gonadal or other specific area shielding

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 3 only
e. 1, 2, and 3

A

e.1, 2, and 3

158
Q

To meet radiation safety features, radiographic equipment must have a:

  1. Correctly functioning control panel
  2. Protective tube housing
  3. Radiographic examination table and accessories designed to reduce patient radiation dose

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

d.1, 2, and 3

159
Q

To reduce patient entrance dose during C-arm fluoroscopic procedures, the patient-image intensifier distance should be:

a. As short as possible
b. As long as possible
c. Always set at a 100 cm (40-inch SID)
d. Always set at a 180 cm (72-inch SID)

A

a.As short as possible

160
Q

Areas of the body that should be shielded from the useful beam whenever possible are the:

  1. Lens of the eye
  2. Breasts
  3. Thyroid gland
  4. Reproductive organs

a. 1 and 4 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
e. 1, 2, 3 and 4

A

e.1, 2, 3 and 4

161
Q

Digital mammography units, which can enhance contrast with image gray-level manipulation, offer substantial improvement for patients with:

a. Thin breast tissue
b. Sparse breast tissue
c. Porous breast tissue
d. Dense breast tissue

A

d.Dense breast tissue

162
Q

During mammography, FDA regulations state that the mean dose to the glandular tissue of a 4.5 cm compressed should not exceed:

a. 0.3 mGy per view
b. 3 mGy per view
c. 0.3 mGy total for three views
d. 3 mGy total for three views

A

b.3 mGy per view

163
Q

To limit the dose to the patient from screening mammography, it is generally recommended that screening examinations consist of the following projections:

a. Craniocaudal, mediolateral, and axillary
b. Craniocaudal and mediolateral
c. Mediolateral, and axillary
d. Axillary only

A

b.Craniocaudal and mediolateral

164
Q

Which of the following materials are commonly used as x-ray tube targets?

a. Molybdenum, rhodium, tungsten
b. Beryllium, molybdenum, rhodium
c. Silver, tungsten, molybdenum
d. Molybdenum, silver

A

a.Molybdenum, rhodium, tungsten

165
Q

Which of the following materials are commonly used as filters in mammography systems?

a. Rhodium, silver
b. Molybdenum, tungsten
c. Tungsten, silver, rhodium
d. Molybdenum, rhodium, silver

A

d.Molybdenum, rhodium, silver

166
Q

If all other scan parameters are kept constant and the tube voltage (kVp) is increased in CT, the patient dose will:

a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Stay the same
d. Be unaffected

A

a.Increase

167
Q

If a radiographer stands 12 m away from an x-ray tube and receives an exposure of 32 mGya/hr, what will the exposure rate be if the same radiographer moves to stand at a position located 6 m from the x-ray tube?

a. 256 mGya/hr
b. 128 mGya/hr
c. 32 mGya/hr
d. 8 mGya/hr
e. 4 mGya/hr

A

b.128 mGya/hr

168
Q

If the dose of scatter radiation in fluoroscopy to the radiographer is 54 mGyaat a distance of 4 feet from the table, what is the dose of scatter radiation if the radiographer moves to a distance of 12 feet from the table?

a. 3 maya
b. 6 mGya
c. 54 maya
d. 243 maya
e. 486 maya

A

b.6 mGya

169
Q

If a radiographer stands 5 m from an x-ray tube and is subjected to an exposure rate of 80 mGya/hr, what will the exposure rate be if the same radiographer moves to a position 10 m from the x-ray tube?

a. 320 mGya/hr
b. 80 mGya/hr
c. 40 mGya/hr
d. 20 mGya/hr
e. 5 mGya/hr

A

d.20 mGya/hr

170
Q

If the intensity of the x-ray beam is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source, how does the intensity of the x-ray beam change when the distance from the source of radiation and a measurement point is doubled?

a. It increases by a factor of 4 at the new distance
b. It increases by a factor of 16 at the new distance
c. It decreases by a factor of 16 at the new distance
d. It decreases by a factor of 4 at the new distance
e. It decreases by a factor of 9 at the new distance

A

d.It decreases by a factor of 4 at the new distance

171
Q

Which of the following are methods that can be used by a C-arm operator to reduce occupational exposure for himself or herself and other personnel?

  1. Collimate the x-ray beam to include only the anatomy of interest
  2. Use the foot pedal or the hand-held exposure switch with their cables extended away from the machine as far as possible whenever making an exposure
  3. Use magnification whenever possible to better visualize body parts

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

a.1 and 2 only

172
Q

If the Bucky slot shielding device and protective curtain, or sliding panel were not in the correct position during a routine fluoroscopic examination, what would the fluoroscopist experience?

a. Exceed 1 mGya/hr (100 mR/hr) at a distance of 0.6 m from theside of the x-ray table
b. Not exceed 1 mGya/hr (100 mR/hr) at a distance of 0.6 m from the side of the x-ray table
c. Exceed 2.5 mGya/hr (250 mR/hr) at a distance of 0.6 m from the side of the x-ray table
d. Exceed 5 mGya/hr (500 mR/hr) at a distance of0.6 m from the side of the x-ray table

A

a.Exceed 1 mGya/hr (100 mR/hr) at a distance of 0.6 m from theside of the x-ray table

173
Q

A Bucky slot shielding device of at least ________ must automatically cover the Bucky slot opening in the side of the x-ray table during a fluoroscopic examination when the Bucky tray is positioned at the foot end of the table.

a. 0.25 mm aluminum equivalent
b. 0.25 mm lead equivalent
c. 0.5 mm aluminum equivalent
d. 0.5 mm lead equivalent

A

b.0.25 mm lead equivalent

174
Q

For mobile radiographic units, which are not equipped with remote control exposure devices, the cord leading to the exposure switch must be long enough to permit the radiographer to stand at least________ from the patient, the x-ray tube, and the useful beam to reduce occupational exposure.

a. 1 m (3 feet)
b. 2 m (6 feet)
c. 3 m (9 feet)
d. 5 m (15 feet)

A

b.2 m (6 feet)

175
Q

Of the following factors, which is considered when determining thickness requirements for protective barriers?

  1. Occupancy factor (T)
  2. Workload (W)
  3. Use factor (U)
  4. kVp

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 only
c. 1, 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

A

d.1, 2, 3, and 4

176
Q

In diagnostic radiology, which of the following radiation sources poses the greatestoccupational hazard for the radiographer?

a. Image-formation radiation
b. Leakage radiation
c. Primary radiation
d. Scattered radiation

A

d.Scattered radiation

177
Q

If the peak energy of the diagnostic x-ray beam is 120 kVp, the primary protective barrier in a typical installation consist of at least ________ and extend ________ upward from the floor of the x-ray room, when the tube is 1.5 to 2.1 m from the wall in question.

a. 1.6 mm lead, 2.1 m (1/16-inch lead, 7 feet)
b. 1.6 mm lead, 6.3 m (1/16-inch lead, 10 feet)
c. 0.8 mm lead, 2.1 m (1/32-inch lead, 7 feet)
d. 0.8 mm lead, 6.3 m (1/32-inch lead, 10 feet)

A

a.1.6 mm lead, 2.1 m (1/16-inch lead, 7 feet)

178
Q

Of the following radiation sources, which is the control booth barrier notintended to intercept in a diagnostic x-ray room?

  1. Leakage radiation
  2. Primary radiation
  3. Scattered radiation

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1 and 3 only
e. 1, 2, and 3

A

b.2 only

179
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

a. When wearing a protective apron, a radiographer may stand in the useful beam to restrain a patient during a difficult radiologic procedure.
b. When wearing a protective apron, nurses, orderlies, relatives, or friends may stand in the useful beam to restrain a patient during a difficult radiographic procedure.
c. When wearing a protective apron, pregnant radiographers or other nonoccupationally exposed pregnant women may stand in the useful beam to restrain a patient during a difficult radiographic procedure.
d. Radiographers and nonoccupationally exposed individuals should never stand in the useful beam to restrain a patient during a difficult radiographic procedure.

A

d.Radiographers and nonoccupationally exposed individuals should never stand in the useful beam to restrain a patient during a difficult radiographic procedure.

180
Q

Which of the following is the most effectivemeans of protection from ionizing radiation normally available to the radiographer?

a. Reducing the amount of time spent neara source of radiation
b. Placing as much distance as possible between oneself and the source of radiation
c. Remaining behind a mobile protective shield during an exposure
d. Using protective shielding garments

A

b.Placing as much distance as possible between oneself and the source of radiation

181
Q

The lead glass window of the control booth barrier in a stationary (fixed) radiographic installation typically consists of which of the following?

a. 0.25 mm lead equivalent
b. 0.5 mm lead equivalent
c. 1 mm lead equivalent
d. 1.5 mm lead equivalent

A

d.1.5 mm lead equivalent

182
Q

If a radiographer moves closer to a source of radiation, the radiation exposure to the radiographer:

a. Decreases slightly
b. Decreases significantly
c. Increases slightly
d. Increases significantly

A

d.Increases significantly

183
Q

Which of the following are true concerning personnel radiation dose during diagnostic x-ray procedures?

  1. If a declared-pregnant radiographer is reassigned to a lower radiation exposure risk area,then the other remaining radiographers in the higher risk area, who must fill in, can besubject to increased risk. Therefore,the declared-pregnant radiographer does notnecessarily need to be reassigned to a lower-radiation exposure area as a directconsequence of the declared pregnancy.
  2. In accordance with ALARA guidelines, work schedules are designed to distribute radiationexposure risk evenly to all employees.
  3. From the perspective of increased radiation safety, it is best to reverse the C-arm to placethe x-ray tube under the table and the image intensifier over the table.
  4. Because scatter and leakage radiation emerge in all directions in the x-ray room, everywall, door, viewing window, and other surface are always struck by some quantity ofradiaaion.

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 2, 3, and 4 only
d. 3 and 4 only
e. 1, 2, 3, and 4

A

e.1, 2, 3, and 4

184
Q

Which of the following is true concerning holding of patients for radiographic examinations?

a. May be performed routinely to obtain a diagnostic examination
b. Should be done by a competent radiographer so that a repeat (retake) will not be needed
c. Should be done only when absolutely necessary, and then holding should be done by a non-pregnant member of the patient’s family
d. May be performed using a student radiographer to hold because students are not exposed as often as staff radiographers.

A

c.Should be done only when absolutely necessary, and then holding should be done by a non-pregnant member of the patient’s family

185
Q

At 75 kVp, x-ray attenuation for a 0.50-mm lead equivalent apron is:

a. 51%
b. 66%
c. 75%
d. 88%
e. 99.9%

A

d.88%

186
Q

How much protection is provided from a 100-kVp x-ray beam when using a 0.25-mm lead equivalent apron?

a. 51%
b. 75%
c. 88%
d. 99.9%

A

a.51%

187
Q

A sign reading “Caution Radiation Area”is usually adequate for rooms containing fixed diagnostic equipment in an area in which radiation exposures may exceed ____________ from a source.

a. 0.05 mSv in 1 hour at 30 cm
b. 0.5 mSv in 1 hour at 30 cm
c. 1 mSv in 1 hour at 30 cm
d. 5 mSv in 1 hour at 30 cm
e. 10 mSv in 1 hour at 30 cm

A

a.0.05 mSv in 1 hour at 30 cm

188
Q

Radiation warning signs are posted within ________ of the hospital or imaging facility,andare required to be magenta or purple or black on a yellow background.

a. Administrative offices
b. Uncontrolled areas
c. Controlled areas
d. Physician’s lounges

A

c.Controlled areas

189
Q

Primary protective barriers are located:

a. At a 45-degree angle to the undeflected line of travel of the x-ray beam
b. At a 60-degree angle to the undeflected line of travel of the x-ray beam
c. Parallel to the undeflected line of travel of the x-ray beam
d. Perpendicular to the undeflected line of travel of the x-ray beam

A

d.Perpendicular to the undeflected line of travel of the x-ray beam

190
Q

During general fluoroscopic and x-ray special procedures, a neck and thyroid shield can guard the thyroid area of occupationally exposed persons. This protective device should be:

a. 1-mm lead equivalent
b. 0.5-mm lead equivalent
c. 0.25-mm lead equivalent
d. 0.1-mm lead equivalent

A

b.0.5-mm lead equivalent

191
Q

The clothing of individuals that has been contaminated should be

a. Aired out on a clothesline to decontaminate and saved for later use
b. Burned immediately
c. Placed in a sealed plastic bag and stored in a secure, shielded and posted area.
d. Shaken out and put back on

A

c.Placed in a sealed plastic bag and stored in a secure, shielded and posted area.

192
Q

All atoms of a particular element that are unstable because of their neutron–proton configuration spontaneously undergo changes or transformations to rectify the unstable arrangement are termed:

a. Isotopes
b. Radioisotopes
c. Neutrinos
d. Photoisotopes
e. Positrons

A

b.Radioisotopes

193
Q

Radioisotopes and items that they have contaminated require that an institution followsappropriate procedures for their handling and disposal. Such procedures should include whichof the following:

  1. Follow state and federal regulations
  2. Wear dosimeters and gloves
  3. Residual isotope must be returned to shielded container
  4. Held in storage for a period of 10 half-lives before being suitable for disposal in ordinary trash

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3 only
e. 1, 2, 3, and 4

A

e.1, 2, 3, and 4

194
Q

In a DNA macromolecule, the sequence of ________ determines the characteristics of every living thing.

a. Sugars
b. Phosphates
c. Nitrogenous organic bases
d. Hydrogen bonds

A

c.Nitrogenous organic bases

195
Q

Radiation-induced chromosome damage may be evaluated during which of the following processes?

a. Prophase
b. Metaphase
c. Anaphase
d. Telophase

A

b.Metaphase

196
Q

Which of the following produces antibodies?

a. Erythrocytes
b. Lymphocytes
c. Thrombocytes
d. Platelets

A

b.Lymphocytes

197
Q

Water constitutes approximately ________ of the weight of the human body.

a. 30% to 35%
b. 50% to 55%
c. 65% to 70%
d. 80% to 85%

A

d.80% to 85%

198
Q

Which of the following must the human body provide to ensure efficient cell operation?

  1. Food as a source of raw material for the release of energy
  2. Oxygen to help break down food
  3. Water to transport inorganic substances into and out of the cell

a. 1and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

d.1, 2, and 3

199
Q

Somatic cells divide through the process of:

a. Meiosis
b. Mitosis
c. Mapping
d. Metabolism

A

b.Mitosis

200
Q

Germ cells divide through the process of:

a. Meiosis
b. Mitosis
c. Mapping
d. Metabolism

A

a.Meiosis

201
Q

Interphase consists of which of the following phases?

a. M, G1, and S
b. G1, S, and G2
c. S, G2, and M
d. G2, M, and G1

A

b.G1, S, and G2

202
Q

Which of the following is a process of reduction cell division?

a. Mitosis
b. Meiosis
c. Molecular synthesis
d. Amniocentesis

A

b.Meiosis

203
Q

Water performs which of the following functions in the human cell?

  1. Maintains a constant temperature of 98.6 degrees F (37 degrees C)
  2. Acts as a solvent, keeping compounds dissolved so that they can more easily interact andtheir concentrations maybe regulated
  3. Lubricates both the digestive system and the skeletal articulations (joints)

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

d.1, 2, and 3

204
Q

The S phase of mitosis is the:

a. Pre-DNA synthesis phase
b. Actual DNA synthesis phase
c. Post-DNA synthesis phase
d. Phase when DNA synthesis multiplies by a factor of 4

A

b.Actual DNA synthesis phase

205
Q

Human cells are divided into two classifications. They are somatic cells and ________ cells.

a. Organic
b. Benign
c. Genetic
d. Ribonucleic
e. Inorganic

A

c.Genetic

206
Q

Human cells contain which four major organic compounds?

a. Nucleic acids, water, protein, and mineral salts
b. Mineral salts, carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins
c. Carbohydrates, lipids, nucleic acids, and water
d. Proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, and nucleic acids

A

d.Proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, and nucleic acids

207
Q

Which of the following are true concerning cell biology?

  1. Cells are engaged in an ongoing process of obtaining energy and converting it to supporttheir vital functions.
  2. A normal human being has 46 different chromosomes (23 pairs) in each somatic(nonreproductive) cell.
  3. Proper cell function enables the body to maintain homeostasis, or equilibrium.

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 3 only
e. 1, 2, and 3

A

e.1, 2, and 3

208
Q

Which of the following defines the ratio of the dose of a reference radiation (conventionally 250 kVp x-rays) to the dose of radiation of the type in question that is necessary to produce the same biologic reaction in a given experiment?

a. LET
b. RBE
c. Wr
d. Low-level radiation effectiveness

A

b. RBE

209
Q

Which of the following statements are true concerning stochastic effects and late tissue reactions of radiation in organ systems?

  1. For humans, the doubling dose is estimated to have a mean value of 1.56 Sv (156 rem).
  2. Genetic (hereditary) effects occur as a result of radiation-induced damage to the DNA molecule in the sperm or ova of an adult.
  3. Currently, evidence of radiation-induced hereditary effects has not been observed in persons employed in diagnostic imaging or in patients undergoing radiologic examinations
  4. Any nonlethal radiation dose received by the germ cells can cause chromosome mutations that may be transmitted to successive generations.

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 2, 3, and 4 only
e. 1, 2, 3, and 4

A

e. 1, 2, 3, and 4

210
Q

Which acute radiation syndrome (ARS) requires the largest whole-body exposure before the associated signs and symptoms become observable?

a. Hematopoietic
b. Gastrointestinal
c. Cerebrovascular
d. Skeletal

A

c. Cerebrovascular

211
Q

Which molecules in the human body are most commonly directly acted on by ionizing radiation to produce molecular damage through an indirect action?

a. Protein
b. Carbohydrate
c. Fat
d. Water

A

d. Water

212
Q

Which of the following is useful for explaining cell death and nonfatal cell abnormalities caused by exposure to radiation?

a. Covalent cross-linking
b. Bergonie’-Tribondeau law
c. Programmed cell death
d. Target theory

A

d. Target theory

213
Q

Free radicals are represented by which of the following chemical symbols?

  1. H*
  2. OH*
  3. R*
  4. HOH+

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 only 3 only
c. 3 only 4 only
d. 1, 2, and 3 only
e. 1, 2, 3 and 4

A

d. 1, 2, and 3 only

214
Q

According to the target theory, if only a few non-DNA cell molecules are destroyed by radiation exposure, the cell probably will:

a. Not show any evidence of injury after irradiation
b. Show evidence of injury after irradiation
c. Show evidence of severe impairment after irradiation
d. Die

A

a. Not show any evidence of injury after irradiation

215
Q

If bone marrow cells have not been destroyed by exposure to ionizing radiation, they can:

a. become insensitive to future exposures from ionizing radiation.
b. overpopulate and become radioresistant.
c. remain in circulating blood indefinitely
d. repopulate after a period of recovery

A

d. repopulate after a period of recovery

216
Q

The use of high-level fluoroscopy for extended periods of time can result in which of the following early tissue reactions (deterministic effects)?

  1. Erythema
  2. Epilation
  3. Dry and moist desquamation

a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 only
d. 3 only
e. 1, 2, and 3

A

e. 1, 2, and 3

217
Q

Immature ova are:

a. Somewhat radioinsensitive
b. Significantly radioinsensitive
c. Slightly radiosensitive
d. Very radiosensitive

A

d. Very radiosensitive

218
Q

The hydroxyl radical (OH) may bond with another hydroxyl radical (OH) and form ________ ________ a substance (bleach) that is poisonous to the cell.

a. Hydrogen peroxide
b. Sodium chloride
c. Carbon tetrachloride
d. Sodium bicarbonate

A

a. Hydrogen peroxide

219
Q

LET is an important factor for:

a. Assessing potential tissue and organ damage from exposure to ionizing radiation
b. Assessing the characteristics of ionizing radiation (e.g., charge, mass, and energy)
c. Determining the OER
d. Removing electrons from tissue exposed to ionizing radiation

A

a. Assessing potential tissue and organ damage from exposure to ionizing radiation

220
Q

If a dose of radiation is delivered at the same dose rate in equal portions at regular intervals, it is termed:

a. Compartmentalization
b. Fractionation
c. Protraction
d. Pasteurization

A

b. Fractionation

221
Q

Cataracts, leukemia, and genetic mutations are examples of:

a. Diseases that are not caused by ionizing radiation
b. Measurable radiation-induced late biologic damage
c. Diseases caused by nonionizing radiation
d. Radiation-induced biologic damage that cannot be measured

A

b. Measurable radiation-induced late biologic damage

222
Q

For a recessive mutation to appear in an offspring:

a. Both parents must have the same genetic defect
b. Both parents must have only dominant genes
c. Neither parent needs to have a genetic defect
d. Only one parent must have a genetic defect

A

a. Both parents must have the same genetic defect

223
Q

When cells are exposed to sublethal doses of ionizing radiation, repair and recovery may occur because cells:

a. Are completely insensitive to radiation exposure
b. Contain a repair mechanism inherent in their biochemistry (repair enzymes)
c. Exposed to sublethal doses become hypoxic and recover more efficiently
d. Mutate and become radioresistant

A

b. Contain a repair mechanism inherent in their biochemistry (repair enzymes)

224
Q

Which of the following systems is the most radiosensitive vital organ system in human beings?

a. Cerebrovascular
b. Gastrointestinal
c. Hematopoietic
d. Skeletal

A

c. Hematopoietic

225
Q

With respect to the law of Bergonie’ and Tribondeau, which of the following would best complete this statement? “The most pronounced radiation effects occur in cells having the ____________.”

a. Least reproductive activity, shortest mitotic phases, and most maturity
b. Greatest reproductive activity, shortest mitotic phases, and most maturity
c. Greatest reproductive activity, longest mitotic phases, and least maturity
d. Least reproductive activity, shortest mitotic phases, and least maturity

A

c. Greatest reproductive activity, longest mitotic phases, and least maturity

226
Q

When cells are exposed to sublethal doses of ionizing radiation, approximately ________ of radiation-induced damage may be repaired over time, and about _______ is irreparable.

a. 25%, 75%
b. 50%, 50%
c. 75%, 25%
d. 90%, 10%

A

d. 90%, 10%

227
Q

Epilation is another term for:

a. Decrease of red blood cells
b. Increase of white blood cells
c. Hair loss
d. Shedding of the outer layer of skin

A

c. Hair loss

228
Q

Which of the following measures the effectiveness of ionizing radiation in causing mutations?

a. LD 50/30
b. Doubling dose
c. Relative biologic effectiveness (RBE)
d. Dose-response curve

A

b. Doubling dose

229
Q

What quantity of radiation exposure to the male reproductive organs is required to cause temporary sterility for as long as 12 months?

a. 1 Gy
b. 2 Gy
c. 3 Gy
d. 4 Gy
e. 5 Gy

A

b. 2 Gy

230
Q

Which of the following local tissues will experience immediate consequences from high radiation doses?

  1. Bone marrow
  2. Male and female reproductive organs
  3. Skin

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

d. 1, 2, and 3

231
Q

The stage following a large whole-body dose of ionizing radiation in which the visible symptoms of the exposure are absent is termed the:

a. Manifest illness period
b. Latent period
c. Conception period
d. Prodromal period

A

b. Latent period

232
Q

In humans with the gastrointestinal form of ARS, the part of the body most severely affected is the:

a. Brain
b. Heart
c. Large intestine
d. Small intestine
e. Stomach

A

d. Small intestine

233
Q

Infection, hemorrhage, and cardiovascular collapse are symptoms that can occur as part of acute radiation syndrome during the:

  1. Initial stage
  2. Latent period
  3. Stage called manifest illness

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

c. 3 only

234
Q

Most diagnostic procedures result in equivalent doses:

a. Above 0.01 Sv but less than 1.56 Sv
b. Less than 0.1 Sv
c. Between 1.56 Sv and 1.75 Sv
d. Above 1.75 Sv

A

b. Less than 0.1 Sv

235
Q

Which statement is “incorrect” with regards to radiosensitivity and cell types?

a. Spermatogonia cells have a low radiosensitivity
b. Nerve cells have a low radiosensitivity
c. Muscle cells have a low radiosensitivity
d. Brain cells have a low radiosensitivity

A

a. Spermatogonia cells have a low radiosensitivity

236
Q

The combined processes of ______ and ______ contribute to recovery from sublethal radiation damage.

a. Repair and repopulation
b. Repair and degeneration
c. Repair and renovation
d. Repair and restoration

A

a. Repair and repopulation

237
Q

Which of the following statements are true concerning early tissue reactions and their effects on organ systems?

  1. Patients who underwent radiation therapy and who received orthovoltage radiation therapy (200 to 300 kVp range) treatments provide significant evidence of skin damage caused by radiation exposure.
  2. Highly specialized, nondividing cells in the circulating blood with the exception of lymphocytes are relatively insensitive to radiation.
  3. Moderate radiation doses can cause temporary hair loss, and large radiation doses can result in permanent hair loss.

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

d. 1, 2, and 3

238
Q

Acute radiation syndrome presents in four major response stages. In what order do these stages occur?

a. Latent period, prodromal, manifest illness, recovery or death
b. Manifest illness, prodromal, latent period, recovery or death
c. Prodromal, latent period, manifest illness, recovery or death
d. Manifest illness, latent period, prodromal, recovery of death

A

c. Prodromal, latent period, manifest illness, recovery or death

239
Q

Radiation can induce genetic damage by which of the following?

a. Interacting with somatic cells of only one parent
b. Interacting with somatic cells of both parents
c. Altering the essential base coding sequence of DNA
d. None of the above

A

c. Altering the essential base coding sequence of DNA

240
Q

Which of the following are classified as early tissue reactions (deterministic somatic effects) as a consequence of possible high radiation dose?

a. Erythema, Cataractogenesis, life span shortening
b. Nausea, epilation, intestinal disorders
c. Male and female sterility, embryologic effects, carcinogensis
d. Blood disorders , fever, nonspecific life span shortening

A

b. Nausea, epilation, intestinal disorders

241
Q

Late effects in the body to radiation exposure that have a threshold, have consequences that appear months or years after exposure, and have a severity that depends on the absorbed dose, are classified as:

a. Late stochastic effects
b. Late tissue reactions (deterministic effects)
c. Late birth effects
d. Late chromosome effects

A

b. Late tissue reactions (deterministic effects)

242
Q

Which of the following measures of lethality may be a more relevant indicator of outcome for humans?

a. LD 10/30
b. LD 50/30
c. LD 50/60
d. LD 100/60

A

c. LD 50/60

243
Q

Direct action may occur after exposure to any type of radiation, but it is much more likely to happen after exposure to:

a. low-LET radiation such as x-rays.
b. low-LET radiation such as gamma rays.
c. high-LET radiation such as alpha particles
d. nonionizing radiation such as microwaves.

A

c. high-LET radiation such as alpha particles

244
Q

What do basal cells of the skin, intestinal crypt cells, and reproductive cells have in common?

a. All cells are hypoxic.
b. All cells are premalignant.
c. All cells are radioinsensitive
d. All cells are radiosensitive.

A

d. All cells are radiosensitive.

245
Q

During the embryonic stage of development:

a. All life forms seem to be most vulnerable to radiation exposure
b. Only a very small percentage of life forms seem to be vulnerable to radiation exposure
c. A significant percentage of life forms seem to be vulnerable to radiation exposure
d. Exposure to radiation cannot damage any life form

A

a. All life forms seem to be most vulnerable to radiation exposure

246
Q

When various cells of the hematopoietic system are damaged or decreased, the body experiences:

  1. increased susceptibility to aggressive infectious organisms
  2. increased risk of hemorrhage
  3. increased risk of anemia

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 2 only
d. 2 and 3 only
e. 1, 2, and 3

A

e. 1, 2, and 3

247
Q

Acute high dose radiation exposure to the skin may result in a shedding of the outer layer of skin called

a. Desquamation
b. Epilation
c. Atrophy
d. Vasculitis

A

a. Desquamation

248
Q

The most important late stochastic (probalistic) effect caused by exposure to ionizing radiation:

a. Cancer
b. Life span shortening
c. Cataracts
d. Genetic mutations

A

a. Cancer

249
Q

Some examples of measurable late biologic damage are:

  1. Cataracts
  2. Leukemia
  3. Nausea and vomiting
  4. Genetic mutations

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1, 2, and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 4 only

A

d. 1, 2, and 4 only

250
Q

When are human ovaries most radiosensitive?

a. During the fetal stages of life and during early childhood
b. After puberty and the onset of menstruation
c. From 20 to 30 years of age
d. During pregnancy

A

a. During the fetal stages of life and during early childhood

251
Q

After the reception of a high radiation dose, significant cell death usually results, leading to the shrinkage of organs or tissues. This process is referred to as:

a. Atrophy
b. Alopecia
c. Erythema
d. Desquamation
e. Radiodermatitis

A

a. Atrophy

252
Q

Which of the following statements are true concerning early tissue reactions and their effects on organ systems?

  1. If the effects of ionizing radiation are cell-killing and directly related to the dose received, they are called Somatic tissue reactions (nonstochastic or deterministic somatic effects).
  2. A person who has received a radiation exposure sufficient to cause radiation sickness will experience the initial stage of the syndrome within hours after the whole-body absorbed dose. After this stage, no visible symptoms occur for about 1 week.
  3. Intestinal disorders are caused by radiation damage to the sensitive epithelial tissue lining the intestines.
  4. Skin cancer induced by ionizing radiation has a latent period of approximately 5 to 10 years and usually begins with the development of radio dermatitis.

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 2, 3, and 4 only
e. 1, 2, 3, and 4

A

e. 1, 2, 3, and 4

253
Q

Which of the following types of blood cells is the most radiosensitive in the body?

a. Erythrocytes
b. Granulocytes
c. Lymphocytes
d. Thrombocytes

A

c. Lymphocytes

254
Q

What single dose of radiation exposure to the female reproductive organs is required to cause permanent sterility in mature women?

a. 1 Gy
b. 2 Gy
c. 3 Gy
d. 4 Gy
e. 5 Gy

A

e. 5 Gy

255
Q

A radiation exposure to which of the following systems will most likely result in damage to the blood forming organs?

a. Central nervous system
b. Urinary system
c. Biliary system
d. Hematopoietic system
e. Reproductive system

A

d. Hematopoietic system

256
Q

Which of the following describes the ratio of the radiation dose required to cause a particular biologic response of cells or organisms in an oxygen-deprived environment to the radiation dose required to cause an identical response under oxygenated conditions?

a. OER
b. Oxygen biologic effectiveness ratio
c. Oxygen dose-response relationship
d. Oxygen threshold ratio

A

a. OER

257
Q

Most radiation-induced genetic mutations are:

a. Dominant mutations
b. Expressed in first-generation offspring
c. Spontaneous mutations unique to radiation
d. Recessive mutations

A

d. Recessive mutations

258
Q

When exposure to ionizing radiation causes proliferation of the white blood cells, the radiation-induced disease that occurs is:

a. Anemia
b. Erythroleukosis
c. Granulocytopenia
d. Leukemia

A

d. Leukemia

259
Q

The hematopoietic, gastrointestinal, and cerebrovascular syndromes are three separate dose-related syndromes that are part of the:

a. Bone marrow syndrome
b. Cytogenetic syndrome
c. Prodromal syndrome
d. Total-body syndrome

A

d. Total-body syndrome