Final Exam

Question 1

When an imaging procedure is justified in terms of medical necessity, diagnostic efficacy is achieved when optimal-quality images, revealing the presence of absence of disease, are obtained with:

a. Maximal radiation exposure
b. Minimal radiation exposure
c. Scattered radiation exposure
d. Secondary radiation exposure

Answer 1

b. Minimal radiation exposure

Question 2

To reduce radiation exposure to the patient:
1. Reduce the amount of x-ray “beam on” time
2. Use as much distance as warranted between the x-ray tube and the patient for the
examination
3. Always shield the patient with appropriate gonadal and/or specific area shielding devices

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 2

d. 1, 2, and 3

Question 3

In medicine, when radiation safety principles are correctly applied during imaging procedures, the energy deposited in living tissue by the radiation can be limited. This results in:

a. Completely eliminating the possibility for
reducing the potential for adverse effects
b. No change in the possibility for reducing
the potential for adverse effects
c. Increasing the potential for adverse
biologic effects
d. Reducing the potential for adverse
biologic effects

Answer 3

d. Reducing the potential for adverse

biologic effects

Question 4

Which of the following cardinal principles of radiation protection can be applied to both the patient and the radiographer?

1. Time
2. Distance
3. Shielding

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer 4

d. 1, 2 and 3

Question 5

The ALARA philosophy should:

1. Be a main part of every health care facility’s personnel radiation control program
2. Be maintained because at this time there are no firm dose limits established for the amount
   of radiation that patients may receive for individual imaging procedures.
3. Be maintained and show all reasonable actions that will reduce dose to patients and
   personnel below required limits have been considered.

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 5

d. 1, 2, and 3

Question 6

X-rays:

1. Can have varying degrees of penetration in normal biologic tissue
2. Can be focused by a lens
3. Are invisible

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 6

b. 1 and 3 only

Question 7

Effective measures employed by radiation workers to safe guard patients, personnel, and the general public from unnecessary exposure to ionizing radiation defines:

a. Diagnostic efficacy
b. Optimization
c. Radiation protection
d. The concept of equivalent dose (EqD)

Answer 7

c. Radiation protection

Question 8

An effective radiation safety program requires a firm commitment to radiation safety by:

1. Facilities producing imaging services
2. Radiation workers
3. Patients

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 8

a. 1 and 2 only

Question 9

From which of the following sources do human beings receive the largest dose of ionizing radiation?

a. Radioactive fallout from atomic weapons testing
b. Medical radiation procedures
c. Cosmic rays
d. The area surrounding a nuclear reactor

Answer 9

b. Medical radiation procedures

Question 10

Ultraviolet radiation less than 10 eV, visible light, infrared rays, microwaves, and radio waves are considered to be nonionizing because they:

a. Have sufficient kinetic energy to eject electrons from atoms
b. Do not have sufficient kinetic energy to eject electrons from atoms
c. Have sufficient potential energy to eject electrons from atoms
d. Do not have sufficient potential energy to eject electrons from atoms

Answer 10

b. Do not have sufficient kinetic energy to eject electrons from atoms

Question 11

Which of the following is the total average annual radiation equivalent dose from manmade and natural radiation?

a. 1.8 mSv per year
b. 3.0 mSv per year
c. 3.2 mSv per year
d. 6.3 mSv per year

Answer 11

d. 6.3 mSv per year

Question 12

Beta particles are identical to ________ except for their origin.

a. Alpha particles
b. Gamma rays
c. High-speed electrons
d. X-rays
e. Protons

Answer 12

c. High-speed electrons

Question 13

The Z number (Atomic number) refers to the number of:

a. Electrons in the outer shell of an atom
b. Electrons in the nucleus of an atom
c. Neutrons in the nucleus of an atom
d. Protons in the nucleus of an atom
e. Protons in the inner shell of an atom

Answer 13

d. Protons in the nucleus of an atom

Question 14

The amount of radiation actually received by a patient from diagnostic x-ray procedure may be indicated in terms such as:

1. Entrance skin exposure (ESE)
2. Bone marrow dose
3. Gonadal dose

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 14

d. 1, 2, and 3

Question 15

Which of the following are natural sources of ionizing radiation?

a. Medical x-radiation and cosmic radiation
b. Radioactive elements in the crust of the earth and in the human body
c. Radioactive elements in the human body and a diagnostic x-ray machine
d. Radioactive fallout and environs of atomic energy plants

Answer 15

b. Radioactive elements in the crust of the earth and in the human body

Question 16

Sources of medical ionizing radiation exposure include:

1. Computed tomography
2. Sonography
3. Interventional fluoroscopy

a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 2 and 3
e. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 16

c. 1 and 3 only

Question 17

The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) considers the second leading cause of lung cancer in the United States to be.

a. Diagnostic x-rays
b. Normal exposure to ultraviolet radiation
c. Radon
d. Cosmic rays

Answer 17

c. Radon

Question 18

Exit, or image-formation, radiation is composed of which of the following?

a. Primary photons and Compton-scattered photons
b. Non-interacting and small-angle scattered photons
c. Attenuated photons
d. Absorbed photons

Answer 18

b. Non-interacting and small-angle scattered photons

Question 19

Which of the following contributes significantly to the exposure of the radiographer?

a. Positrons
b. Electrons
c. Compton-scattered photons
d. Compton-scattered electrons

Answer 19

c. Compton-scattered photons

Question 20

In the radiographic kilovoltage range, which of the following structures will undergo the most photoelectric absorption?

a. Air cavities
b. Compact bone
c. Fat
d. Soft tissue

Answer 20

b. Compact bone

Question 21

In which of the following x-ray interactions with matter is the energy of the incident photon partially absorbed?

a. Compton
b. Photoelectric
c. Coherent
d. Pair production

Answer 21

a. Compton

Question 22

When a high atomic number solution is either ingested or injected into human tissue or a structure to visualize it during an imaging procedure, which of the following occurs?

a. Photoelectric interaction becomes greatly decreased, resulting in an increase in the
absorbed dose in the body tissues or structures that contain the contrast
medium.
b. Photoelectric interaction becomes significantly enhanced, leading to an
increase in the absorbed dose in the body tissues or structures that contain the contrast medium.
c. Photoelectric interaction becomes greatly decreased, resulting in an decrease in the
absorbed dose in the body tissues or structures that contain the contrast medium.
d. Photoelectric interaction becomes significantly enhanced, leading to a decrease in the absorbed dose in the body tissues or structures that contain the
contrast medium.

Answer 22

b. Photoelectric interaction becomes significantly enhanced, leading to an
increase in the absorbed dose in the body tissues or structures that contain the contrast medium.

Question 23

Which of the following influences attenuation?

1. Effective atomic number of the absorber
2. Mass density
3. Thickness of the absorber

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 23

d. 1, 2, and 3

Question 24

Which of the following characteristics primarily differentiates the probability of occurrence of the various interactions of x-radiation with human tissue?

a. Energy of the incoming photon
b. Direction of the incident photon
c. X-ray beam intensity
d. Exposure time

Answer 24

a. Energy of the incoming photon

Question 25

A decrease in contrast of the image by adding an additional, unwanted density (radiographic fog) results from which of the following interactions between x-radiation and matter? 1. Compton scattering 2. Pair production 3. Photoelectric absorption a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 25

a. 1 only

Question 26

When a technical exposure factor of 90 kVp is selected, which of the following occurs? a. The energy of the highest energy photon in the x-ray beam is 30 keV b. The electrons are accelerated from the cathode to the anode with an energy of 45 keV c. The energy of the average photon in the x-ray beam is about 90 keV d. The energy of the average photon in the x-ray beam is about 30 keV

Answer 26

d. The energy of the average photon in the x-ray beam is about 30 keV

Question 27

The passage of x-ray photons through a patient without interaction is called: a. Absorption b. Attenuation c. Indirect transmission d. Direct transmission

Answer 27

d. Direct transmission

Question 28

In which of the following x-ray interactions with matter is the energy of the incident photon completely absorbed? a. Compton b. Photoelectric c. Incoherent d. Rayleigh

Answer 28

b. Photoelectric

Question 29

What is the result of coherent scattering? a. Usually just a small angle change in the direction of the incident photon b. Transfer of all energy of the incident x-ray photon to the atoms of the irradiated object c. Production of a negatron and a positron d. Transfer of only some of the energy of the incident x-ray photon to the atoms of the irradiated object

Answer 29

a. Usually just a small angle change in the direction of the incident photon

Question 30

A technical exposure factor of 100 kVp means that the electrons bombarding the anode of the x-ray tube have a maximum energy of: a. 1000 electron volts (eV), or 1 keV b. 10,000 electron volts (eV), or 10 keV c. 100,000 electron volts (eV), or 100 keV d. 1,000,000 electron volts (eV), or 1,000 keV

Answer 30

c. 100,000 electron volts (eV), or 100 keV

Question 31

A reduction in the number of primary photons in the x-ray beam through absorption and scatter as the beam passes through the patient in its path defines: a. Annihilation b. Attenuation c. Photodisintegration d. Radiographic fog

Answer 31

b. Attenuation

Question 32

Within the energy range of diagnostic radiology (23 to 150 kVp) that includes mammography, when kVp is decreased, the patient dose: a. Decreases b. Increases c. Remains the same d. Doubles

Answer 32

b. Increases

Question 33

Of the following interactions between x-radiation and matter, which only occur above the range of diagnostic radiology? 1. Photoelectric absorption 2. Pair production 3. Photodisintegration a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 33

c. 2 and 3 only

Question 34

For a diagnostic radiologic examination, the selection of technical exposure factors using an optimal kVp and mAs combination: a. Produces an x-ray image of acceptable quality but increases patient dose b. Produces an x-ray image of acceptable quality while minimizing patient dose c. Produces an x-ray image of acceptable quality without affecting patient dose d. Affects neither the quality of the completed radiographic image nor patient dose

Answer 34

b. Produces an x-ray image of acceptable quality while minimizing patient dose

Question 35

An incoming photon of 1 MeV interacts with an orbital electron causing ionization of the atom and a .7 MeV scattered photon. This describes an event called: a. Pair production b. Photoelectric absorption c. Compton scattering d. None of the above

Answer 35

c. Compton scattering

Question 36

A 85 keV x-ray photon strikes an inner shell electron, and all of the photon energy is transferred to the electron. This describes: a. Coherent scattering b. Compton scattering c. Photoelectric effect d. Photodisintegration

Answer 36

c. Photoelectric effect

Question 37

An interaction between high-energy x-ray photons, above 10 MeV, and the nucleus of a target atom with the emission of a neutron or other nuclear particles is called: a. Photodisintegration b. Photoelectric effect c. Pair production d. Compton effect

Answer 37

a. Photodisintegration

Question 38

The probability of occurrence of Compton interactions relative to (compared to) that of photoelectric interactions increases as x-ray photon energy (kVp): a. Remains constant b. Increases c. Fluctuates from AC to DC d. Decreases

Answer 38

b. Increases

Question 39

When a photon of 1.022 MeV interacts with the nuclear force field (nucleus) of an atom, its energy is changed or transformed into two electrons. What are the names of these two electrons? a. Identical scatter electrons b. Rayleigh and Thompson electrons c. Positron and negatron electrons d. Recoil electrons e. Roentgen and Edison electrons

Answer 39

c. Positron and negatron electrons

Question 40

The probability of occurrence of photoelectric absorption ________ markedly as the atomic number of the irradiated material ________. a. Increases / decreases b. Decreases / increases c. Increases / increases d. Remains constant / decreases

Answer 40

c. Increases / increases

Question 41

When a technical exposure factor of 75 kVp is selected, which of the following occurs? a. The energy of the highest energy photon in the x-ray beam is 75 keV b. The electrons are accelerated from the cathode to the anode with an energy of 25 keV c. The energy of the average photon in the x-ray beam is about 75 keV d. The energy of the average photon in the x-ray beam is about 33 keV

Answer 41

a. The energy of the highest energy photon in the x-ray beam is 75 keV

Question 42

The interaction illustrated in Figure 5-9 in the workbook: 1. Can pose a safety hazard to imaging personnel 2. Can have a degrading impact on image quality 3. Surrenders a portion of its kinetic energy causing ionization a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 3 only d. 2 and 3 only e. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 42

e. 1, 2, and 3

Question 43

The interaction between x-ray and matter pictured in Figure 3-1 in the workbook is associated with: 1. An inner shell electron (usually in the K or L shells) 2. Total energy transfer from photon to electron 3. Increased patient dose and biologic damage of tissues 4. Photoelectric absorption interaction a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 3 and 4 only e. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer 43

e. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 44

The interaction between x-ray and matter pictured in the Figure below is associated with: 1. High-atomic-number absorbers 2. Ionization 3. Characteristic radiation produced a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 3 only e. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 44

e. 1, 2, and 3

Question 45

Which of the following statements pertain to the interaction with matter illustrated in the Figure below? 1. A loosely bound outer shell electron is ejected from its orbit 2. The incident x-ray photon surrenders a portion of its kinetic energy 3. The scattered x-ray photon continues on its way but in a new direction 4. The interaction results in all-directional scatter. a. 1 and 2only b. 2 and 3 only c. 3 and 4 only d. 2, 3 and 4 only e. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer 45

e. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 46

The x-ray interaction with matter that is responsible for the majority of scattered radiation reaching the image receptor (IR) is: a. Photoelectric effect b. Compton effect c. Classical scatter d. Thompson Scatter e. Unmodified scatter

Answer 46

b. Compton effect

Question 47

The interaction between x-ray and matter pictured below is associated with: 1. X-ray photon with very low energy (below 10 keV) 2. Photon with a slight change in direction 3. Scattered photon with no loss of energy 4. Coherent scatter interaction a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 3 and 4 only e. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer 47

e. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 48

The probability of occurrence of photoelectric absorption: 1. Increases markedly as the atomic number of the irradiated material increases 2. Increases markedly as the energy of the incident photon decreases 3. Increases markedly as the mass density of the irradiated material increases a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 3 only e. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 48

e. 1, 2, and 3

Question 49

When a technical exposure factor of 120 kVp is selected, which of the following occurs? a. The electrons are accelerated from the anode to the cathode with an energy of 100 keV. b. The electrons are accelerated from the cathode to the anode with an energy of 60 keV. c. The beam will contain all photons having an effective energy of 60 keV. d. The beam will contain photons having energies of 120 keV or less, with an average effective energy of approximately 40 keV.

Answer 49

d. The beam will contain photons having energies of 120 keV or less, with an average effective energy of approximately 40 keV.

Question 50

Occupational and nonoccupational doses will remain well below maximum allowable levels when: a. Radiographers and radiologists keep exposure as low as reasonably achievable b. Referring physicians stop ordering imaging procedures c. Orders for imaging procedures are determined only by medical insurance companies d. Patients assume sole responsibility for ordering their imaging procedures

Answer 50

a. Radiographers and radiologists keep exposure as low as reasonably achievable

Question 51

Repetition of a radiographic exposure because of poor patient positioning results in: a. No significant change in total radiation exposure to the patient or the radiographer b. A slight decrease in total radiation exposure to the patient and the radiographer c. An increase in total radiation exposure to the patient and the radiographer d. A significant decrease in total radiation exposure to the patient and the radiographer

Answer 51

c. An increase in total radiation exposure to the patient and the radiographer

Question 52

Certain individual radiologic procedures need to have patient dose dictated into every radiologic report. These procedures include: 1. Computed tomography 2. General Fluoroscopy 3. Interventional procedures a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 52

d. 1, 2, and 3

Question 53

To reduce radiation exposure to occupational imaging personnel: 1. Reduce the amount time spent in a room where radiation is produced 2. Stand at the greatest distance possible from an energized x-ray beam and the patient 3. Interpose radiation-absorbing shielding material between the radiographer and the source of radiation a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 53

d. 1, 2, and 3

Question 54

Of the following radiations, which are classified as ionizing radiation? 1. Infrared rays, low-energy ultraviolet radiation, and microwaves 2. Low-energy ultraviolet radiation, radio waves, and visible light 3. Ultraviolet radiation with energy greater than 10 eV, gamma rays, and x-rays a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 54

c. 3 only

Question 55

Fundamental properties of x-rays include: 1. Travel in a straight lines 2. Travel at the speed of light (300 million meters per second) 3. Produce charged particles by interaction with atoms when passing through matter 4. X-ray beams consist of a wide range of energies that are normally heterogeneous a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 3 and 4 only e. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer 55

e. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 56

The process most responsible for the contrast between bone and soft tissue in a diagnostic radiographic image is: a. Coherent scattering b. Compton scattering c. Photoelectric absorption d. Photodisintegration

Answer 56

c. Photoelectric absorption

Question 57

A radiation weighting factor (WR) has been established for each of the following ionizing radiations: x-rays (WR=1), fast neutrons (WR=20), and alpha particles (WR=20). What is the totalequivalent dose (EqD) in sievertsfor a person who has received the following exposures: 15 Gy of x-rays, 10 Gy of fast neutrons, and 5 Gy of alpha particles? a. 31.5 Sv b. 315 Sv c. 3,150 Sv d. 31,500 Sv

Answer 57

b.315 Sv

Question 58

The radiation weighting factor for x-rays is 1, and the tissue weighting factor for the breast is 0.05. If the breast receives an absorbed dose of 350 Gy from exposure to x-rays, what is the effective dose (EfD) in sievert? a. 350 Sv b. 175 Sv c. 35 Sv d. 17.5 Sv

Answer 58

d.17.5 Sv

Question 59

If 300 people received an average dose of 35 Sv, what is the collective effective dose (ColEfD)? a. 1.05 person-sieverts b. 10.5 person-sieverts c. 105 person-sieverts d. 1,050 person-sieverts e. 10,500 person-sieverts

Answer 59

e.10,500 person-sieverts

Question 60

Determine the totaldose equivalent (DE) in sievert(Sv) for a person who has received the following exposures of radiation: 29 gray beta particles, Q=1; 18 gray neutrons, energy 10 keV -100 keV Q=10; and 25 gray alpha particles, Q=20. a. 70.9 Sv b. 709 Sv c. 7,090Sv d. 70,900 Sv

Answer 60

b.709 Sv

Question 61

A patient’s irradiated surface receives an air kerma dose of 40 mGy. If the area of the irradiated surface is 240 cm2, what is the dose area product (DAP). a. 9.600 mGy-cm2 b. 9,600 mGy-cm2 c. 96,000 mGy-cm2 d. 960,000 mGy-cm2

Answer 61

b.9,600 mGy-cm2

Question 62

An exposure to which of the following radiations will result in the person receiving the highest dose equivalency (DE)? a. 68 gray of x-ray b. 68 gray of beta c. 68 gray of gamma-ray d. 68 gray of alpha e. 68 gray of proton

Answer 62

d.68 gray of alpha

Question 63

To determine D, the amount of energy absorbed by the irradiated object must be measured by: a. Calculating EqD b. Calculating the entrance skin exposure of the object c. Determining the amount of energy deposited per kilogram of the irradiated object d. Determining the amount of ionization in a specific volume of dry air at atmospheric pressure

Answer 63

c.Determining the amount of energy deposited per kilogram of the irradiated object

Question 64

Which of the following is the SI unit of radiation exposure that is used for x-ray equipment calibration? a. C/kg b. DAP c. R d. SV

Answer 64

a.C/kg

Question 65

Which of the following radiation quantities accounts for some biologic tissues being more sensitive to radiation damage than other tissues? a. Absorbed dose b. Exposure c. Equivalent dose d. Effective dose

Answer 65

d.Effective dose

Question 66

The SI quantity used to express kinetic energy released in matter is the: a. erg b. gray c. kerma d. rad e. joule

Answer 66

c.kerma

Question 67

The SI unit used to express kinetic energy released in matter (kerma) is the: a. erg b. Gy c. C/kg d. rad e. joule

Answer 67

b.Gy

Question 68

Early tissue reactions (deterministic somatic effects) of radiation include: 1. Nausea and fatigue 2. Blood and intestinal disorders 3. Diffuse redness of the skin and shedding of its outer layer a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 68

d.1, 2, and 3

Question 69

The ampere is the SI unit of: a. Electrical charge b. Electrical potential c. Electrical resistance d. X-ray ionization in air e. Electrical current

Answer 69

e.Electrical current

Question 70

Diagnostic imaging personnel should wear a personnel dosimeter during routine operations in an imaging facility because the device provides: 1. An indication of an individual’s working habits 2. An indication of working conditions in the facility 3. A way for the employer to determine if radiation workers are actively engaged in performing a specific number of x-ray procedures during a given period a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 70

a.1 and 2 only

Question 71

Which of the following are disadvantages of using a TLD as a personnel monitoring device? 1. It can be read only once because the readout process destroys the stored information 2. It is necessary to use calibrated dosimeters with TLD’s 3. The initial cost is higher than that for a OSL dosimeter service 4. Lithium fluoride is used as the sensing material in the TLD a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 1 and 4 only d. 1, 2, and 3 only e. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer 71

d.1, 2, and 3 only

Question 72

Which statement(s) is(are) accurate about the function of the control monitor? 1. Measures radiation exposure in the work area 2. Should be kept in a distant room from the radiation area 3. Measures background exposure while in transit to and from the health care facility a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 3 only d. 2 and 3 only e. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 72

d.2 and 3 only

Question 73

Which of the following is used to survey an area for radiation detection and measurement in the diagnostic imaging department? a. TLD dosimeter b. OSL dosimeter c. Handheld Cutie Pie ionization chamber d. Handheld Geiger-Mueller meter

Answer 73

c.Handheld Cutie Pie ionization chamber

Question 74

Which of the following is the most accurate personnel monitoring device? a. OSL dosimeter b. TLD dosimeter c. Film badge d. Geiger-Muller meter

Answer 74

a.OSL dosimeter

Question 75

Exposure monitoring of personnel is required whenever radiation workers are likely to risk receiving ________ or more of the occupational EfD limit of 50 mSv (5 mrem) in any single year due to their work-related activities. a. 1 % b. 5 % c. 10 % d. 25 %

Answer 75

c.10 %

Question 76

Which of the following are advantages of using a TLD as a personnel monitoring device? 1. It can be worn up to 3 months. 2. It is not affected by humidity, pressure, or normal temperature changes. 3. After a reading has been obtained, the crystals can be reused. 4. Lithium fluoride crystals interact with ionizing radiation as human tissue does, therefore itdetermines dose more accurately. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 1 and 4 only d. 1, 2, and 3 only e. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer 76

e.1, 2, 3, and 4

Question 77

Determine the cumulative effective dose (CumEfD) to the whole body of an occupationally exposed person who is 19 years old: a. 1.9 mSv b. 19 mSv c. 190 mSv d. 1,900 mSv

Answer 77

c.190 mSv

Question 78

The annual occupational equivalent dose limits for all tissues and organs (i.e. hands, skin, and feet) other than the lens of the eye (nonstochastic) is: a. 50 mSv b. 150 mSv c. 250 mSv d. 500 mSv e. 1,000 mSv

Answer 78

d.500 mSv

Question 79

When exposed to radiation as part of their educational experience, 18-years-old students should notexceed an effective dose limit of ________ annually. a. 0.5 mSv (0.05 rem) b. 1 mSv (0.1 rem) c. 5 mSv (0.5 rem) d. 50 mSv (5 rem)

Answer 79

d.50 mSv (5 rem)

Question 80

Which of the following concepts is behind the establishment of the effective dose limiting system? a. Negligible risk b. Organ and tissue radio sensitivity c. Radiation hormesis d. Radiation exposure and associated risk of possible radiation-induced malignancy

Answer 80

d.Radiation exposure and associated risk of possible radiation-induced malignancy

Question 81

Biologic somatic effects of ionizing radiation that can be directly related to the dose received, exhibit a threshold dosebelowwhich the response does not normally occur and abovewhich the severity of the biologic damage increasesas the dose increases are classified as which of the following? a. Tissue reactions b. Epidemiologic effects c. Probabilistic effects d. Stochastic effects

Answer 81

a.Tissue reactions

Question 82

The annual dose limit for medical imaging personnel includes radiation from: 1. Occupational exposure 2. Background radiation 3. Dental and medical x-ray exams a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 82

a.1 only

Question 83

Somatic effects of radiation exposure refer to effects that are: a. Manifested in the descendants of the exposed individual b. Experienced directly by the exposed individual c. Experienced directly by the exposed individual and his or her children or grandchildren d. Manifested in the reproductive cells of the exposed individual

Answer 83

b.Experienced directly by the exposed individual

Question 84

Effects of ionizing radiation that are nonthreshold, all-or-none, randomly occurring biologic somatic changes, where their chances of occurrence increase with each radiation exposure,are classified as which of the following? a. Tissue reactions b. Epidemiologic effects c. Deterministic effects d. Stochastic effects

Answer 84

d.Stochastic effects

Question 85

Examples of stochastic effects include: 1. Acute radiation syndrome 2. Cancer 3. Genetic alterations a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 85

c.2 and 3 only

Question 86

Biologic somatic effects of ionizing radiation that can be directly related to the dose received include: 1. Early tissue reactions 2. Stochastic effects 3. Late tissue reactions a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 86

b.1 and 3 only

Question 87

Which of the following is the SI unit of radiation exposure in air only? a. C/kg b. DAP c. R d. Sv

Answer 87

a.C/kg

Question 88

Which of the following terms describes the amount of energy per unit mass transferred from an x-ray beam to an object in its path such as the human body? a. SI b. Exposure c. Equivalent dose d. Absorbed dose

Answer 88

d.Absorbed dose

Question 89

Which of the following statements concerning the exposure quantity, X, is true? 1. It is measured by ions in air 2. It only measures X-rays and Gamma ray photons 3. It is based on a response produced when radiation interacts with air. a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 3 only e. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 89

e. 1, 2, and 3

Question 90

X-rays, beta particles (high-speed electrons), and gamma rays have been given a numeric adjustment value (Q or WR) of 1 because they produce: a. No biologic effect in body tissue for equal absorbed doses b. Varying degrees of biologiceffect in body tissue for equal absorbed doses c. High-dose biologic effects in all body tissues for even the smallest dose d. Virtually the same biologic effect in body tissue for equal absorbed doses

Answer 90

d.Virtually the same biologic effect in body tissue for equal absorbed doses

Question 91

Which of the following statements are true concerning radiation quantities and units? 1. Each type and energy of radiation has a specific WR. 2. EFD provides a measure of the overall risk of exposure to humans from ionizing radiation. 3. Radiation weighting factors are selected by national and international scientific advisorybodies (NCRP, ICRP) and are based on quality factors and linear energy transfer. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 91

d.1, 2, and 3

Question 92

When laser light is incident on the sensing material in an OSL dosimeter, the material: a. Becomes luminescent in proportion to the amount of radiation exposure received b. Fluoresces in proportion to the amount of radiation exposure received and then emits beta particles c. Phosphoresces in proportion to the amount of radiation exposure received and then darkens d. Turns ice blue and fluoresces in proportion to the amount of radiation exposure received

Answer 92

a.Becomes luminescent in proportion to the amount of radiation exposure received

Question 93

Which of the following chemical compounds functions as the sensing material in a thermoluminescent dosimeter? a. Barium sulfate (BaSO4) b. Calcium tungstate (CaWO4) c. Lithium fluoride (LiF) d. Sodium iodide (NaI)

Answer 93

c.Lithium fluoride (LiF)

Question 94

During routine radiographic procedures, when a protective apron is not being worn, the primary personnel dosimeter should be attached to the clothing on the front of the body at: a. Collar level to approximate the maximum radiation dose to the thyroid and the head and neck b. Chest level to approximate the maximum radiation dose to the heart and lungs c. Hip level to approximate the maximum radiation dose to the reproductive organs d. Waist level to approximate the maximum radiation dose to the small intestine

Answer 94

a.Collar level to approximate the maximum radiation dose to the thyroid and the head and neck

Question 95

During diagnostic imaging procedures, how should the radiation dose to the abdomen of a pregnant radiographer be monitored during gestation? a. It may be estimated from the radiation dose recorded by the primary monitor worn at collar level b. It may be obtained from the primary radiation monitor worn at abdominal level c. It may be obtained from a second radiation monitor worn at abdominal level d. It is not necessary to monitor the radiation dose to the embryo fetus that results from occupational exposure of a pregnant radiographer during gestation.

Answer 95

c.It may be obtained from a second radiation monitor worn at abdominal level

Question 96

Which of the following instruments should beused in an x-ray installation to measure fluoroscopic scatter radiation exposure rate? a. GM survey meter b. Ionization chamber-type survey meter (Cutie pie) c. Proportional counter d. TLD

Answer 96

b.Ionization chamber-type

Question 97

Which of the following radiation monitors is currently the mostcommonlyused dosimeter for monitoring occupational exposure in diagnostic imaging? a. Personnel digital ionization dosimeter b. Pocket ionization chamber c. TLD d. OSL

Answer 97

d.OSL

Question 98

The OSL dosimeter uses: a. An Al2O3 detector b. LiF as a sensing material c. A miniature ionization chamber as a detector d. Radiation dosimetry film as a detector

Answer 98

a.An Al2O3 detector

Question 99

The increased sensitivity of the OSL dosimeter makes it ideal for monitoring employees working in low-radiation environments and for: a. Area monitoring of radioisotope storage facilities b. Monitoring of patients with a radioactive implant c. Monitoring of pregnant workers d. General patient and public monitoring

Answer 99

c.Monitoring of pregnant workers

Question 100

What is the maximum period of time that a TLD may be worn as a personnel dosimeter? a. 1 week b. 1 month c. 3 months d. 1 year

Answer 100

c.3 months

Question 101

Which types of personnel dose monitoring devices should be used to monitor the whole body dosage of diagnostic imaging personnel? 1. Proportional Counter 2. Thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD) 3. Optically stimulated luminescent dosimeter (OSL) 4. Geiger-Muller (GM) survey meter a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 2, 3, and 4 only e. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer 101

c.2 and 3 only

Question 102

An OSL control monitor indicates: a. The sensitivity of the radiographic film in the dosimeter b. The presence of impurities in the lithium fluoride crystals c. Whether group dosimeters were exposed in transit d. Whether filters in group dosimeters are working correctly

Answer 102

c.Whether group dosimeters were exposed in transit

Question 103

Which of the following are advantages of using the OSL as a personnel monitoring device? 1. It can be worn for longer periods of time (up to 1 year) to record occupational exposure. 2. Heat, moister, and pressure will not affect the tamperproof blister packet.. 3. Offers complete reanalysis in the event that an error in reading the dosimeter has occurred. 4. It is lightweight, durable, and easy to carry. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 1 and 4 only d. 2, 3, and 4 only e. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer 103

e.1, 2, 3, and 4

Question 104

According to the NCRP #116, the annual equivalent dose limit for non-stochastic (somatic) effects for the lens of the eye for occupational personnel is: a. 50 mSv b. 150 mSv c. 500 mSv d. 750 mSv

Answer 104

b.150 mSv

Question 105

Which of the following agencies is responsible for enforcing radiation safety standards? a. ICRP b. NRC c. NCRP d. UNSCEAR

Answer 105

b.NRC

Question 106

Responsibilities of a medical facility’s radiation safety officer (RSO) include which of the following? 1. Developing an appropriate radiation safety program 2. Maintaining radiation monitoring records for all personnel 3. Repairing all broken or defective imaging equipment a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 106

a.1 and 2 only

Question 107

To reduce exposure for pregnant female imaging professionals and to control the exposure of the unborn during potentially sensitive periods of gestation, the NCRP now recommends a monthly equivalent dose limit not exceeding ________ per month to the embryo-fetus and a limit during the entire pregnancy not to exceed ________ after declaration of a pregnancy. a. 0.5 mSv, 5.0 mSv b. 5 mSv, 7.0 mSv c. 150 mSv, 300 mSv d. 250 mSv, 500 mSv

Answer 107

a.0.5 mSv, 5.0 mSv

Question 108

Which of the following is the annual occupational effective dose that applies to radiographers during routine operations? a. 5 mSv b. 50 mSv c. 250 mSv d. 750 mSv

Answer 108

b.50 mSv

Question 109

Which of the following concerns the upper boundary dose of ionizing radiation that results in a negligibleriskof bodily injury or genetic damage? a. Skin erythema dose b. Action dose limits c. ColEfD d. EfD limit

Answer 109

d.EfD limit

Question 110

The NCRP recommends that radiation exposure be kept at which of the following levels? a. As low as reasonably achievable b. At threshold levels c. Slightly above upper boundary levels d. At 0.01 mSv/yr

Answer 110

a.As low as reasonably achievable

Question 111

Which of the following are classified as latetissue reactions (deterministic somatic effects) caused by high-level radiation exposure that occur months or more after that exposure? 1. Cataract formation 2. Organ atrophy 3. Radiation-induced malignancy a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 111

a.1 and 2 only

Question 112

In additional to the annual occupational effective dose limit established for radiation workers, the NCRP recommends a lifetime effective dose limit, which is found by multiplying a person’s age in years by which of the following? a. 1 mSv (0.1 rem) b. 10 mSv (1 rem) c. 100 mSv (10 rem) d. 1,000 mSv (100 rem)

Answer 112

b.10 mSv (1 rem)

Question 113

For individual members of the general public not occupationally exposed, the NCRP recommended an annual effective dose limit of ____________ for continuous (or frequent) exposures from artificial sources of ionizing radiation other than medical irradiation and natural background and a limit of ____________ annually for infrequent exposures. a. 1 mSv, 5 mSv b. 3 mSv, 8 mSv c. 10 mSv, 20 mSv d. 50 mSv, 75 mSv

Answer 113

a.1 mSv, 5 mSv

Question 114

Late tissue reactions (e.g., cataract formation) have a high probability of occurring when entrance radiation doses exceed: a. 0.05 Gy b. 0.5 Gy c. 1 Gy d. 2 Gy

Answer 114

d.2 Gy

Question 115

Early tissue reactions (deterministic somatic effects) such as erythema (rednessover an area of the skin) have a high probability of occurring when entrance radiation doses exceed: a. 0.05 Gy b. 0.25 Gy c. 0.5 Gy d. 1 Gy e. 2 Gy

Answer 115

e.2 Gy

Question 116

Which of the following devices is used to measure the amount of ionizing radiation to which a TLD badge has been exposed by first heating the crystals to free the trapped, highly energized electrons and then recording the amount of light emitted by the crystals (which is proportional to the TLD badge exposure)? a. Small ionization chamber b. Laser c. TLD analyzer d. Sensitometer

Answer 116

c.TLD analyzer

Question 117

Both alignment and length and width dimensions of the radiographic and light beams must correspond to within: a. 1% of the SID b. 2% of the SID c. 5% of the SID d. 10% of the SID

Answer 117

b.2% of the SID

Question 118

Which of the following aluminum equivalents for total permanent filtration meets the minimum requirements for mobile diagnostic and fluoroscopic equipment? a. 0.5 mm aluminum equivalent b. 1.0 mm aluminum equivalent c. 2.0 mm aluminum equivalent d. 2.5 mm aluminum equivalent e. 3.5 mmaluminum equivalent

Answer 118

d.2.5 mm aluminum equivalent

Question 119

To decreasepatient exposure during fluoroscopic procedures, the fluoroscopist can: 1. Limit the size of the fluoroscopic field to include only the area of anatomy that is of clinical interest 2. Employ the practice of intermittent, or pulsed, fluoroscopy to reduce the overall length of exposure 3. Choose to use a conventional fluoroscope instead of an image intensification fluoroscope a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 119

a.1 and 2 only

Question 120

Which of the following is the most versatile for defining the size and shape of the radiographic beam? a. A square metal diaphragm shaped to specific size b.Radiographic cone shaped as a flared metal tube c. Radiographic cone shaped as a straight cylinder d. Light-localizing variable-aperture rectangular collimator

Answer 120

d.Light-localizing variable-aperture rectangular collimator

Question 121

Placing the first pair of shutters in the collimator as close as possible to the x-ray tube port or window may: a. Eliminate the need for a second pair of shutters. b. Eliminate the need for added filtration. c. Reduce patient exposure from the primary beam d. Reduce patient exposure from off-focus radiation

Answer 121

d.Reduce patient exposure from off-focus radiation

Question 122

Some of the causes for high exposures to personnel during interventional procedures include: 1. Operating the fluoroscopic tube for longer periods in continuous mode in place of pulsed mode. 2. Failure to use the protective curtain or floating shields on the stationary fluoroscopeequipment’s image intensifier as a means of protection. 3. Lack of familiarity with the x-ray equipment leading to longer fluoroscopic time forcompletion of a procedure. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 122

d.1, 2, and 3

Question 123

Which protective features are designed to reduce exposure to the patient during fluoroscopic procedures? 1. Intermittent fluoroscopy using the foot switch 2. Collimation of primary beam limited to the image receptor 3. Five (5) minute reset timer a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 123

d.1, 2, and 3

Question 124

An x-ray machine operating at tube potentials from 50 -70 kVp requires at least: a. 1.5 mm aluminum of the tube filtration b. 2.5 mm aluminum of the tube filtration c. 1.5 mm lead of the tube filtration d. 2.5 mm lead of the tube filtration

Answer 124

a.1.5 mm aluminum of the tube filtration

Question 125

Which of the following produces scatter radiation that exits the patient, reaches the image receptor, and decreases radiographic image contrast? a. Coherent interaction b. Compton interaction c. Photoelectric interaction d. Photodisintegration

Answer 125

b.Compton interaction

Question 126

Which of the following examinations are considered to be unnecessary radiologic procedures? 1. Chest x-ray study as part of a preemployment physical 2. Screening mammography 3. Whole-body multislice spiral CT screening a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 126

b.1 and 3 only

Question 127

Gonadal shielding should be employed during a radiographic procedure whenever the: 1. Person has a reasonable reproductive potential 2. Gonads lie within or 5 cm (2 inches) to the exposure field 3. Shielding does not compromise objectives of the study a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 127

d.1, 2, and 3

Question 128

To eliminate voluntary patient motion during radiographic procedure, the radiographer must: 1. Gain the cooperation of the patient by providing clear, concise instructions 2. Adequately immobilize the patient during the radiographic exposure 3. Use motion reduction techniques during the radiographic exposure a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 128

d.1, 2, and 3

Question 129

According to the National Council of Radiation Protection and Measurements, the chance of malformations from fetal radiation exposure is significantly increased above control levels only at doses: a. Greater than 25 cGy (0.25 Gy) b. Greater than 15 cGy (0.15 Gy) c. Less than 10 cGy (0.10 Gy) d. Less than 5 cGy (0.05 Gy)

Answer 129

b.Greater than 15 cGy (0.15 Gy)

Question 130

The photostimulable phosphor in the computed radiography imaging plate is more sensitive to scatter radiation before and after it is sensitized through exposure to a radiographic beam. Because of this increased sensitivity, which of the following is true? 1. Five (5) millimeters of added aluminum equivalent filtration must always be used during CR imaging. 2. A radiographic grid may be used more frequently during CR imaging. 3. Any source-to-image receptor distance can be used during CR imaging without adjustmentin technical exposure factors. a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 130

d.1, 2, and 3

Question 131

What is the function of a filter in diagnostic radiology? a. To permit only alpha particles to reach the patient’s skin b. To permit only beta particles to interact with the atoms of the patient’s body c. To decrease the x-radiation dose to the patient’s skin and superficial tissue d. To remove gamma radiation from the useful beam

Answer 131

c.To decrease the x-radiation dose to the patient’s skin and superficial tissue

Question 132

A diagnostic-type protective tube housing must be constructed so that leakage radiation measured at a distance of 1m from the x-ray source does not exceed ________ when the tube is operated at its highest voltage at the highest current that allows continuous operation. a. 5 mGya/hr (500 mR/hr) b. 3 mGya/hr (300 mR/hr) c. 1 mGya/hr (100 mR/hr) d. 0.1 mGya/hr (10 mR/h)

Answer 132

c.1 mGya/hr (100 mR/hr)

Question 133

The radiographic beam should be collimated so that it is which of the following? a. Slightly larger than the image receptor b. No larger than the image receptor c. Twice as large as the image receptor d. Four times as large as the image receptor

Answer 133

b.No larger than the image receptor

Question 134

Which of the following results in an increasein the patient dose? a. Use of a radiographic grid b. Use of carbon fiber in the radiographic tabletop c. Use of filtration according to kVp selected d. Use of a variable rectangular collimator containing a spacer bar

Answer 134

a.Use of a radiographic grid

Question 135

The patient dose significantly decreasesand the life of the fluoroscopic tube increaseswith which of the following? a. Restriction of the fluoroscopic field to include only the area of clinical interest b. Use of a conventional fluoroscope rather than image intensification,or the use of digital fluoroscopy equipment c. Pulsed, or intermittent, fluoroscopy d. Darkness adaptation

Answer 135

c.Pulsed, or intermittent, fluoroscopy

Question 136

Digital radiography eliminates the need for almost all retakes resulting from improper technique selection because the image: a. The image contrast and overall brightness can be manipulated after image acquisition b. The image contrast and overall brightness may not be manipulated after image acquisition c. The image requireschemical processing to become visible d. Pixel size can be altered after exposure to correct contrast and overall brightness.

Answer 136

a.The image contrast and overall brightness can be manipulated after image acquisition

Question 137

When a digital fluoroscopic system is used, which of the following is an effective technique for reducing patient dose? a. Converting to non-image intensification fluoroscopy b. Increasing mAs significantly c. Using scotopic (rod) vision instead of photopic (cone) vision d. Using the last-image-hold feature

Answer 137

d.Using the last-image-hold feature

Question 138

Which of the following reduces patient exposure? 1. Carbon (graphite) fiber material in a radiographic tabletop. 2. A lead-lined metal diagnostic-type protective tube housing. 3. Use of a light-localizing variable-aperture rectangular collimator. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 3 only e. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 138

e.1, 2, and 3

Question 139

Which of the following statements is(are) true concerning equipment design for radiation protection? 1. In digital radiography the size of the pixels (picture elements) determines the sharpness ofthe image. 2. Technical exposure factors for fluoroscopic procedures for children necessitate adecrease in kVp by as much as 25%. 3. Ongoing education and training in the safe use of fluoroscopic equipment should bemandatory for nonradiologistphysicians and equipment operators. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 only d. 2 and 3 only e. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 139

e.1, 2, and 3

Question 140

A primary protective barrier of ________ is required for a fluoroscopic unit. a. 2-mm aluminum equivalent b. 2-mm lead equivalent c. 4-mm aluminum equivalent d. 4-mm lead equivalent

Answer 140

b.2-mm lead equivalent

Question 141

Fluoroscopic equipment equipped with high-level control (HLC) may permit a skin entrance exposure rate as great aswhich of the following? a. 50 mGya/min (5 R/min) b. 100 mGya/min (10 R/min) c. 200 mGya/min (20 R/min) d. 500 mGya/min (50 R/min)

Answer 141

c.200 mGya/min (20 R/min)

Question 142

What is the impact of using 2.5 millimeters of aluminum equivalent filtration on the primary x-ray beam of a radiographic x-ray unit operating above 70kVp? 1. Compliance with federal and state standards for filtration of diagnostic x-ray beams. 2. Reduction in the number of x-rays reaching the patient. 3. Increase in average energy (hardening) of the primary x-ray beam. 4. Reduction of patient skin dosage. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 4 only d. 2, 3, and 4 only e. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer 142

e.1, 2, 3, and 4

Question 143

General-purpose intensified fluoroscopic equipmentmay permit a skin entrance exposure rate to a maximum ofwhich of the following? a. 50 mGya/min (5 R/min) b. 100 mGya/min (10 R/min) c. 200 mGya/min (20 R/min) d. 500 mGya/min (50 R/min)

Answer 143

b.100 mGya/min (10 R/min)

Question 144

In accordance with NCRP regulations, the source-to-skin distance (SSD) must be no less than ____________ for stationary (fixed fluoroscopes and no less than ____________ for mobile fluoroscopes (C-arms). a. 38 cm (15 inches), 30 cm (12 inches) b. 30 cm (12 inches), 25 cm (10 inches) c. 25 cm (10 inches), 20 cm (8 inches) d. 20 cm (8 inches), 15 cm (6 inches)

Answer 144

a.38 cm (15 inches), 30 cm (12 inches)

Question 145

The fluoroscopic exposure control switch (the foot pedal) must be of the ________ which means that the exposure automatically terminates if the person operating the switch becomes incapacitated. a. Push button type b. Toggle-switch type c. Dead-man type d. Circuit breaker type

Answer 145

c.Dead-man type

Question 146

An x-ray machine operating at electric potentials above 70 kVp requires at least: a. 1.5 mm aluminum of the tube filtration b. 2.5 mm aluminum of the tube filtration c. 1.5 mm lead of the tube filtration d. 2.5 mm lead of the tube filtration

Answer 146

b.2.5 mm aluminum of the tube filtration

Question 147

Fluoroscopy is conducted with an x-ray tube located under the examination table and provides the radiologist with: a. Fixed or stationary images b. Dynamic or moving images c. Liquid crystal images d. Bioluminescent images

Answer 147

b.Dynamic or moving images

Question 148

Which of the following photon-tissue interactions necessitates the use of a grid? a. Photoelectric interaction b. Compton interaction c. Coherent interaction d. Pair production

Answer 148

b.Compton interaction

Question 149

Which of the following statements are true concerning equipment design for radiation protection? 1. When PBL is activated, the collimators are automatically adjusted so that the radiation fieldmatches the size of the image receptor. 2. When operating a mobile radiographic unit, the radiographer must use an SID of at least 30 cm (12 inches) to limit the effects of the inverse square falloff of radiation intensity with distance. 3. For dose-reduction purposes, it is preferable to position the C-arm so that the x-ray tube isunder the patient. 4. State-of-the art diagnostic radiographic and fluoroscopic equipment is designed with manydevices that radiologists and technologists can use to optimize the quality ofthe image whileat the same time reducing radiation exposure for patients undergoing various imaging procedures. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 3 and 4 only e. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer 149

e.1, 2, 3, and 4

Question 150

In which of the following projections will a young female patient receive a significantly lower dose to her breast tissue during a chest x-ray? a. AP b. AP lordotic c. PA d. Lateral

Answer 150

c.PA

Question 151

A woman who is 3 months pregnant has been in a motor vehicle accident. The emergency room physician suspects there is injury to her cervical spine and thus feels justified in ordering an x-ray examination to aid in determining the extent of the patient’s injury. Because the patient is pregnant, the radiographer should: 1. Select the smallest technical exposure factors that will produce a diagnostically useful image 2. Adequately and precisely collimate the radiographic beam to include only the anatomic area of interest 3. Shield the patient’s lower abdomen and pelvic region with a suitable protective contact shield a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 151

d.1, 2, and 3

Question 152

The use of the PA projection during a juvenile scoliosis radiographic examination results in which of the following? a. Higher entrance exposure dose to the anterior body surface, thereby significantly increasing the dose to the breast b. Lower entrance exposure dose to the anterior body surface, thereby significantly reducing the dose to the breast c. Poorer-quality images that necessitate a repeat examination d. Images that do not adequately demonstrate spinal curvature

Answer 152

b.Lower entrance exposure dose to the anterior body surface, thereby significantly reducing the dose to the breast

Question 153

Which of the following results in an increasein the patient dose? a. Use of the lowest possible kVp with the highest possible mAs for each examination b. Use of gonadal or specific area shielding c. Use of standard technique charts, when automatic exposure control is not used d. Use of the highest practicable kVp with the lowest mAs for each examination

Answer 153

a.Use of the lowest possible kVp with the highest possible mAs for each examination

Question 154

When an individual of childbearing age undergoes a diagnostic x-ray procedure, gonadal shielding should be used to protect the reproductive organs from exposure to the useful beam: 1. When the reproductive organs are in or within approximately 5 cm of a properly collimated-ray beam 2. Unless shielding will compromise the diagnostic value of the examination 3. When the radiographer chooses to substitute gonadal shielding for adequate collimation ofthe x-ray beams a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 154

a.1 and 2 only

Question 155

When automatic exposure control (AEC) is not used, neglecting to use standardized technique charts necessitates estimating the technical exposure factors, which may result in: 1. Poor-quality images 2. Repeat examinations 3. Additional and unnecessary exposure for the patient a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 155

d.1, 2, and 3

Question 156

Which of the following would help in reducing the radiation exposure to a child during a radiographic procedure? 1. The use of gonadal shielding 2. The use of proper body or part immobilization 3. The use of a tightly collimated beam a. 1 and 2only b. 2 and 3 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 156

d.1, 2, and 3

Question 157

Which of the following substantially reduce patient exposure? 1. Use of proper body or part immobilization 2. Use of appropriate technical exposure factors 3. Use of gonadal or other specific area shielding a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 3 only e. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 157

e.1, 2, and 3

Question 158

To meet radiation safety features, radiographic equipment must have a: 1. Correctly functioning control panel 2. Protective tube housing 3. Radiographic examination table and accessories designed to reduce patient radiation dose a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 158

d.1, 2, and 3

Question 159

To reduce patient entrance dose during C-arm fluoroscopic procedures, the patient-image intensifier distance should be: a. As short as possible b. As long as possible c. Always set at a 100 cm (40-inch SID) d. Always set at a 180 cm (72-inch SID)

Answer 159

a.As short as possible

Question 160

Areas of the body that should be shielded from the useful beam whenever possible are the: 1. Lens of the eye 2. Breasts 3. Thyroid gland 4. Reproductive organs a. 1 and 4 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 3 and 4 only d. 1, 2, and 3 e. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer 160

e.1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 161

Digital mammography units, which can enhance contrast with image gray-level manipulation, offer substantial improvement for patients with: a. Thin breast tissue b. Sparse breast tissue c. Porous breast tissue d. Dense breast tissue

Answer 161

d.Dense breast tissue

Question 162

During mammography, FDA regulations state that the mean dose to the glandular tissue of a 4.5 cm compressed should not exceed: a. 0.3 mGy per view b. 3 mGy per view c. 0.3 mGy total for three views d. 3 mGy total for three views

Answer 162

b.3 mGy per view

Question 163

To limit the dose to the patient from screening mammography, it is generally recommended that screening examinations consist of the following projections: a. Craniocaudal, mediolateral, and axillary b. Craniocaudal and mediolateral c. Mediolateral, and axillary d. Axillary only

Answer 163

b.Craniocaudal and mediolateral

Question 164

Which of the following materials are commonly used as x-ray tube targets? a. Molybdenum, rhodium, tungsten b. Beryllium, molybdenum, rhodium c. Silver, tungsten, molybdenum d. Molybdenum, silver

Answer 164

a.Molybdenum, rhodium, tungsten

Question 165

Which of the following materials are commonly used as filters in mammography systems? a. Rhodium, silver b. Molybdenum, tungsten c. Tungsten, silver, rhodium d. Molybdenum, rhodium, silver

Answer 165

d.Molybdenum, rhodium, silver

Question 166

If all other scan parameters are kept constant and the tube voltage (kVp) is increased in CT, the patient dose will: a. Increase b. Decrease c. Stay the same d. Be unaffected

Answer 166

a.Increase

Question 167

If a radiographer stands 12 m away from an x-ray tube and receives an exposure of 32 mGya/hr, what will the exposure rate be if the same radiographer moves to stand at a position located 6 m from the x-ray tube? a. 256 mGya/hr b. 128 mGya/hr c. 32 mGya/hr d. 8 mGya/hr e. 4 mGya/hr

Answer 167

b.128 mGya/hr

Question 168

If the dose of scatter radiation in fluoroscopy to the radiographer is 54 mGyaat a distance of 4 feet from the table, what is the dose of scatter radiation if the radiographer moves to a distance of 12 feet from the table? a. 3 maya b. 6 mGya c. 54 maya d. 243 maya e. 486 maya

Answer 168

b.6 mGya

Question 169

If a radiographer stands 5 m from an x-ray tube and is subjected to an exposure rate of 80 mGya/hr, what will the exposure rate be if the same radiographer moves to a position 10 m from the x-ray tube? a. 320 mGya/hr b. 80 mGya/hr c. 40 mGya/hr d. 20 mGya/hr e. 5 mGya/hr

Answer 169

d.20 mGya/hr

Question 170

If the intensity of the x-ray beam is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source, how does the intensity of the x-ray beam change when the distance from the source of radiation and a measurement point is doubled? a. It increases by a factor of 4 at the new distance b. It increases by a factor of 16 at the new distance c. It decreases by a factor of 16 at the new distance d. It decreases by a factor of 4 at the new distance e. It decreases by a factor of 9 at the new distance

Answer 170

d.It decreases by a factor of 4 at the new distance

Question 171

Which of the following are methods that can be used by a C-arm operator to reduce occupational exposure for himself or herself and other personnel? 1. Collimate the x-ray beam to include only the anatomy of interest 2. Use the foot pedal or the hand-held exposure switch with their cables extended away from the machine as far as possible whenever making an exposure 3. Use magnification whenever possible to better visualize body parts a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 171

a.1 and 2 only

Question 172

If the Bucky slot shielding device and protective curtain, or sliding panel were not in the correct position during a routine fluoroscopic examination, what would the fluoroscopist experience? a. Exceed 1 mGya/hr (100 mR/hr) at a distance of 0.6 m from theside of the x-ray table b. Not exceed 1 mGya/hr (100 mR/hr) at a distance of 0.6 m from the side of the x-ray table c. Exceed 2.5 mGya/hr (250 mR/hr) at a distance of 0.6 m from the side of the x-ray table d. Exceed 5 mGya/hr (500 mR/hr) at a distance of0.6 m from the side of the x-ray table

Answer 172

a.Exceed 1 mGya/hr (100 mR/hr) at a distance of 0.6 m from theside of the x-ray table

Question 173

A Bucky slot shielding device of at least ________ must automatically cover the Bucky slot opening in the side of the x-ray table during a fluoroscopic examination when the Bucky tray is positioned at the foot end of the table. a. 0.25 mm aluminum equivalent b. 0.25 mm lead equivalent c. 0.5 mm aluminum equivalent d. 0.5 mm lead equivalent

Answer 173

b.0.25 mm lead equivalent

Question 174

For mobile radiographic units, which are not equipped with remote control exposure devices, the cord leading to the exposure switch must be long enough to permit the radiographer to stand at least________ from the patient, the x-ray tube, and the useful beam to reduce occupational exposure. a. 1 m (3 feet) b. 2 m (6 feet) c. 3 m (9 feet) d. 5 m (15 feet)

Answer 174

b.2 m (6 feet)

Question 175

Of the following factors, which is considered when determining thickness requirements for protective barriers? 1. Occupancy factor (T) 2. Workload (W) 3. Use factor (U) 4. kVp a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 only c. 1, 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer 175

d.1, 2, 3, and 4

Question 176

In diagnostic radiology, which of the following radiation sources poses the greatestoccupational hazard for the radiographer? a. Image-formation radiation b. Leakage radiation c. Primary radiation d. Scattered radiation

Answer 176

d.Scattered radiation

Question 177

If the peak energy of the diagnostic x-ray beam is 120 kVp, the primary protective barrier in a typical installation consist of at least ________ and extend ________ upward from the floor of the x-ray room, when the tube is 1.5 to 2.1 m from the wall in question. a. 1.6 mm lead, 2.1 m (1/16-inch lead, 7 feet) b. 1.6 mm lead, 6.3 m (1/16-inch lead, 10 feet) c. 0.8 mm lead, 2.1 m (1/32-inch lead, 7 feet) d. 0.8 mm lead, 6.3 m (1/32-inch lead, 10 feet)

Answer 177

a.1.6 mm lead, 2.1 m (1/16-inch lead, 7 feet)

Question 178

Of the following radiation sources, which is the control booth barrier notintended to intercept in a diagnostic x-ray room? 1. Leakage radiation 2. Primary radiation 3. Scattered radiation a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1 and 3 only e. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 178

b.2 only

Question 179

Which of the following statements is true? a. When wearing a protective apron, a radiographer may stand in the useful beam to restrain a patient during a difficult radiologic procedure. b. When wearing a protective apron, nurses, orderlies, relatives, or friends may stand in the useful beam to restrain a patient during a difficult radiographic procedure. c. When wearing a protective apron, pregnant radiographers or other nonoccupationally exposed pregnant women may stand in the useful beam to restrain a patient during a difficult radiographic procedure. d. Radiographers and nonoccupationally exposed individuals should never stand in the useful beam to restrain a patient during a difficult radiographic procedure.

Answer 179

d.Radiographers and nonoccupationally exposed individuals should never stand in the useful beam to restrain a patient during a difficult radiographic procedure.

Question 180

Which of the following is the most effectivemeans of protection from ionizing radiation normally available to the radiographer? a. Reducing the amount of time spent neara source of radiation b. Placing as much distance as possible between oneself and the source of radiation c. Remaining behind a mobile protective shield during an exposure d. Using protective shielding garments

Answer 180

b.Placing as much distance as possible between oneself and the source of radiation

Question 181

The lead glass window of the control booth barrier in a stationary (fixed) radiographic installation typically consists of which of the following? a. 0.25 mm lead equivalent b. 0.5 mm lead equivalent c. 1 mm lead equivalent d. 1.5 mm lead equivalent

Answer 181

d.1.5 mm lead equivalent

Question 182

If a radiographer moves closer to a source of radiation, the radiation exposure to the radiographer: a. Decreases slightly b. Decreases significantly c. Increases slightly d. Increases significantly

Answer 182

d.Increases significantly

Question 183

Which of the following are true concerning personnel radiation dose during diagnostic x-ray procedures? 1. If a declared-pregnant radiographer is reassigned to a lower radiation exposure risk area,then the other remaining radiographers in the higher risk area, who must fill in, can besubject to increased risk. Therefore,the declared-pregnant radiographer does notnecessarily need to be reassigned to a lower-radiation exposure area as a directconsequence of the declared pregnancy. 2. In accordance with ALARA guidelines, work schedules are designed to distribute radiationexposure risk evenly to all employees. 3. From the perspective of increased radiation safety, it is best to reverse the C-arm to placethe x-ray tube under the table and the image intensifier over the table. 4. Because scatter and leakage radiation emerge in all directions in the x-ray room, everywall, door, viewing window, and other surface are always struck by some quantity ofradiaaion. a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 2, 3, and 4 only d. 3 and 4 only e. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer 183

e.1, 2, 3, and 4

Question 184

Which of the following is true concerning holding of patients for radiographic examinations? a. May be performed routinely to obtain a diagnostic examination b. Should be done by a competent radiographer so that a repeat (retake) will not be needed c. Should be done only when absolutely necessary, and then holding should be done by a non-pregnant member of the patient’s family d. May be performed using a student radiographer to hold because students are not exposed as often as staff radiographers.

Answer 184

c.Should be done only when absolutely necessary, and then holding should be done by a non-pregnant member of the patient’s family

Question 185

At 75 kVp, x-ray attenuation for a 0.50-mm lead equivalent apron is: a. 51% b. 66% c. 75% d. 88% e. 99.9%

Answer 185

d.88%

Question 186

How much protection is provided from a 100-kVp x-ray beam when using a 0.25-mm lead equivalent apron? a. 51% b. 75% c. 88% d. 99.9%

Answer 186

a.51%

Question 187

A sign reading “Caution Radiation Area”is usually adequate for rooms containing fixed diagnostic equipment in an area in which radiation exposures may exceed ____________ from a source. a. 0.05 mSv in 1 hour at 30 cm b. 0.5 mSv in 1 hour at 30 cm c. 1 mSv in 1 hour at 30 cm d. 5 mSv in 1 hour at 30 cm e. 10 mSv in 1 hour at 30 cm

Answer 187

a.0.05 mSv in 1 hour at 30 cm

Question 188

Radiation warning signs are posted within ________ of the hospital or imaging facility,andare required to be magenta or purple or black on a yellow background. a. Administrative offices b. Uncontrolled areas c. Controlled areas d. Physician’s lounges

Answer 188

c.Controlled areas

Question 189

Primary protective barriers are located: a. At a 45-degree angle to the undeflected line of travel of the x-ray beam b. At a 60-degree angle to the undeflected line of travel of the x-ray beam c. Parallel to the undeflected line of travel of the x-ray beam d. Perpendicular to the undeflected line of travel of the x-ray beam

Answer 189

d.Perpendicular to the undeflected line of travel of the x-ray beam

Question 190

During general fluoroscopic and x-ray special procedures, a neck and thyroid shield can guard the thyroid area of occupationally exposed persons. This protective device should be: a. 1-mm lead equivalent b. 0.5-mm lead equivalent c. 0.25-mm lead equivalent d. 0.1-mm lead equivalent

Answer 190

b.0.5-mm lead equivalent

Question 191

The clothing of individuals that has been contaminated should be a. Aired out on a clothesline to decontaminate and saved for later use b. Burned immediately c. Placed in a sealed plastic bag and stored in a secure, shielded and posted area. d. Shaken out and put back on

Answer 191

c.Placed in a sealed plastic bag and stored in a secure, shielded and posted area.

Question 192

All atoms of a particular element that are unstable because of their neutron–proton configuration spontaneously undergo changes or transformations to rectify the unstable arrangement are termed: a. Isotopes b. Radioisotopes c. Neutrinos d. Photoisotopes e. Positrons

Answer 192

b.Radioisotopes

Question 193

Radioisotopes and items that they have contaminated require that an institution followsappropriate procedures for their handling and disposal. Such procedures should include whichof the following: 1. Follow state and federal regulations 2. Wear dosimeters and gloves 3. Residual isotope must be returned to shielded container 4. Held in storage for a period of 10 half-lives before being suitable for disposal in ordinary trash a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 only e. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer 193

e.1, 2, 3, and 4

Question 194

In a DNA macromolecule, the sequence of ________ determines the characteristics of every living thing. a. Sugars b. Phosphates c. Nitrogenous organic bases d. Hydrogen bonds

Answer 194

c.Nitrogenous organic bases

Question 195

Radiation-induced chromosome damage may be evaluated during which of the following processes? a. Prophase b. Metaphase c. Anaphase d. Telophase

Answer 195

b.Metaphase

Question 196

Which of the following produces antibodies? a. Erythrocytes b. Lymphocytes c. Thrombocytes d. Platelets

Answer 196

b.Lymphocytes

Question 197

Water constitutes approximately ________ of the weight of the human body. a. 30% to 35% b. 50% to 55% c. 65% to 70% d. 80% to 85%

Answer 197

d.80% to 85%

Question 198

Which of the following must the human body provide to ensure efficient cell operation? 1. Food as a source of raw material for the release of energy 2. Oxygen to help break down food 3. Water to transport inorganic substances into and out of the cell a. 1and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 198

d.1, 2, and 3

Question 199

Somatic cells divide through the process of: a. Meiosis b. Mitosis c. Mapping d. Metabolism

Answer 199

b.Mitosis

Question 200

Germ cells divide through the process of: a. Meiosis b. Mitosis c. Mapping d. Metabolism

Answer 200

a.Meiosis

Question 201

Interphase consists of which of the following phases? a. M, G1, and S b. G1, S, and G2 c. S, G2, and M d. G2, M, and G1

Answer 201

b.G1, S, and G2

Question 202

Which of the following is a process of reduction cell division? a. Mitosis b. Meiosis c. Molecular synthesis d. Amniocentesis

Answer 202

b.Meiosis

Question 203

Water performs which of the following functions in the human cell? 1. Maintains a constant temperature of 98.6 degrees F (37 degrees C) 2. Acts as a solvent, keeping compounds dissolved so that they can more easily interact andtheir concentrations maybe regulated 3. Lubricates both the digestive system and the skeletal articulations (joints) a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 203

d.1, 2, and 3

Question 204

The S phase of mitosis is the: a. Pre-DNA synthesis phase b. Actual DNA synthesis phase c. Post-DNA synthesis phase d. Phase when DNA synthesis multiplies by a factor of 4

Answer 204

b.Actual DNA synthesis phase

Question 205

Human cells are divided into two classifications. They are somatic cells and ________ cells. a. Organic b. Benign c. Genetic d. Ribonucleic e. Inorganic

Answer 205

c.Genetic

Question 206

Human cells contain which four major organic compounds? a. Nucleic acids, water, protein, and mineral salts b. Mineral salts, carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins c. Carbohydrates, lipids, nucleic acids, and water d. Proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, and nucleic acids

Answer 206

d.Proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, and nucleic acids

Question 207

Which of the following are true concerning cell biology? 1. Cells are engaged in an ongoing process of obtaining energy and converting it to supporttheir vital functions. 2. A normal human being has 46 different chromosomes (23 pairs) in each somatic(nonreproductive) cell. 3. Proper cell function enables the body to maintain homeostasis, or equilibrium. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 3 only e. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 207

e.1, 2, and 3

Question 208

Which of the following defines the ratio of the dose of a reference radiation (conventionally 250 kVp x-rays) to the dose of radiation of the type in question that is necessary to produce the same biologic reaction in a given experiment? a. LET b. RBE c. Wr d. Low-level radiation effectiveness

Answer 208

b. RBE

Question 209

Which of the following statements are true concerning stochastic effects and late tissue reactions of radiation in organ systems? 1. For humans, the doubling dose is estimated to have a mean value of 1.56 Sv (156 rem). 2. Genetic (hereditary) effects occur as a result of radiation-induced damage to the DNA molecule in the sperm or ova of an adult. 3. Currently, evidence of radiation-induced hereditary effects has not been observed in persons employed in diagnostic imaging or in patients undergoing radiologic examinations 4. Any nonlethal radiation dose received by the germ cells can cause chromosome mutations that may be transmitted to successive generations. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 2, 3, and 4 only e. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer 209

e. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Question 210

Which acute radiation syndrome (ARS) requires the largest whole-body exposure before the associated signs and symptoms become observable? a. Hematopoietic b. Gastrointestinal c. Cerebrovascular d. Skeletal

Answer 210

c. Cerebrovascular

Question 211

Which molecules in the human body are most commonly directly acted on by ionizing radiation to produce molecular damage through an indirect action? a. Protein b. Carbohydrate c. Fat d. Water

Answer 211

d. Water

Question 212

Which of the following is useful for explaining cell death and nonfatal cell abnormalities caused by exposure to radiation? a. Covalent cross-linking b. Bergonie’-Tribondeau law c. Programmed cell death d. Target theory

Answer 212

d. Target theory

Question 213

Free radicals are represented by which of the following chemical symbols? 1. H* 2. OH* 3. R* 4. HOH+ a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 only 3 only c. 3 only 4 only d. 1, 2, and 3 only e. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer 213

d. 1, 2, and 3 only

Question 214

According to the target theory, if only a few non-DNA cell molecules are destroyed by radiation exposure, the cell probably will: a. Not show any evidence of injury after irradiation b. Show evidence of injury after irradiation c. Show evidence of severe impairment after irradiation d. Die

Answer 214

a. Not show any evidence of injury after irradiation

Question 215

If bone marrow cells have not been destroyed by exposure to ionizing radiation, they can: a. become insensitive to future exposures from ionizing radiation. b. overpopulate and become radioresistant. c. remain in circulating blood indefinitely d. repopulate after a period of recovery

Answer 215

d. repopulate after a period of recovery

Question 216

The use of high-level fluoroscopy for extended periods of time can result in which of the following early tissue reactions (deterministic effects)? 1. Erythema 2. Epilation 3. Dry and moist desquamation a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 only d. 3 only e. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 216

e. 1, 2, and 3

Question 217

Immature ova are: a. Somewhat radioinsensitive b. Significantly radioinsensitive c. Slightly radiosensitive d. Very radiosensitive

Answer 217

d. Very radiosensitive

Question 218

The hydroxyl radical (OH*) may bond with another hydroxyl radical (OH*) and form ________ ________ a substance (bleach) that is poisonous to the cell. a. Hydrogen peroxide b. Sodium chloride c. Carbon tetrachloride d. Sodium bicarbonate

Answer 218

a. Hydrogen peroxide

Question 219

LET is an important factor for: a. Assessing potential tissue and organ damage from exposure to ionizing radiation b. Assessing the characteristics of ionizing radiation (e.g., charge, mass, and energy) c. Determining the OER d. Removing electrons from tissue exposed to ionizing radiation

Answer 219

a. Assessing potential tissue and organ damage from exposure to ionizing radiation

Question 220

If a dose of radiation is delivered at the same dose rate in equal portions at regular intervals, it is termed: a. Compartmentalization b. Fractionation c. Protraction d. Pasteurization

Answer 220

b. Fractionation

Question 221

Cataracts, leukemia, and genetic mutations are examples of: a. Diseases that are not caused by ionizing radiation b. Measurable radiation-induced late biologic damage c. Diseases caused by nonionizing radiation d. Radiation-induced biologic damage that cannot be measured

Answer 221

b. Measurable radiation-induced late biologic damage

Question 222

For a recessive mutation to appear in an offspring: a. Both parents must have the same genetic defect b. Both parents must have only dominant genes c. Neither parent needs to have a genetic defect d. Only one parent must have a genetic defect

Answer 222

a. Both parents must have the same genetic defect

Question 223

When cells are exposed to sublethal doses of ionizing radiation, repair and recovery may occur because cells: a. Are completely insensitive to radiation exposure b. Contain a repair mechanism inherent in their biochemistry (repair enzymes) c. Exposed to sublethal doses become hypoxic and recover more efficiently d. Mutate and become radioresistant

Answer 223

b. Contain a repair mechanism inherent in their biochemistry (repair enzymes)

Question 224

Which of the following systems is the most radiosensitive vital organ system in human beings? a. Cerebrovascular b. Gastrointestinal c. Hematopoietic d. Skeletal

Answer 224

c. Hematopoietic

Question 225

With respect to the law of Bergonie’ and Tribondeau, which of the following would best complete this statement? “The most pronounced radiation effects occur in cells having the ____________.” a. Least reproductive activity, shortest mitotic phases, and most maturity b. Greatest reproductive activity, shortest mitotic phases, and most maturity c. Greatest reproductive activity, longest mitotic phases, and least maturity d. Least reproductive activity, shortest mitotic phases, and least maturity

Answer 225

c. Greatest reproductive activity, longest mitotic phases, and least maturity

Question 226

When cells are exposed to sublethal doses of ionizing radiation, approximately ________ of radiation-induced damage may be repaired over time, and about _______ is irreparable. a. 25%, 75% b. 50%, 50% c. 75%, 25% d. 90%, 10%

Answer 226

d. 90%, 10%

Question 227

Epilation is another term for: a. Decrease of red blood cells b. Increase of white blood cells c. Hair loss d. Shedding of the outer layer of skin

Answer 227

c. Hair loss

Question 228

Which of the following measures the effectiveness of ionizing radiation in causing mutations? a. LD 50/30 b. Doubling dose c. Relative biologic effectiveness (RBE) d. Dose-response curve

Answer 228

b. Doubling dose

Question 229

What quantity of radiation exposure to the male reproductive organs is required to cause temporary sterility for as long as 12 months? a. 1 Gy b. 2 Gy c. 3 Gy d. 4 Gy e. 5 Gy

Answer 229

b. 2 Gy

Question 230

Which of the following local tissues will experience immediate consequences from high radiation doses? 1. Bone marrow 2. Male and female reproductive organs 3. Skin a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 230

d. 1, 2, and 3

Question 231

The stage following a large whole-body dose of ionizing radiation in which the visible symptoms of the exposure are absent is termed the: a. Manifest illness period b. Latent period c. Conception period d. Prodromal period

Answer 231

b. Latent period

Question 232

In humans with the gastrointestinal form of ARS, the part of the body most severely affected is the: a. Brain b. Heart c. Large intestine d. Small intestine e. Stomach

Answer 232

d. Small intestine

Question 233

Infection, hemorrhage, and cardiovascular collapse are symptoms that can occur as part of acute radiation syndrome during the: 1. Initial stage 2. Latent period 3. Stage called manifest illness a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 233

c. 3 only

Question 234

Most diagnostic procedures result in equivalent doses: a. Above 0.01 Sv but less than 1.56 Sv b. Less than 0.1 Sv c. Between 1.56 Sv and 1.75 Sv d. Above 1.75 Sv

Answer 234

b. Less than 0.1 Sv

Question 235

Which statement is “incorrect” with regards to radiosensitivity and cell types? a. Spermatogonia cells have a low radiosensitivity b. Nerve cells have a low radiosensitivity c. Muscle cells have a low radiosensitivity d. Brain cells have a low radiosensitivity

Answer 235

a. Spermatogonia cells have a low radiosensitivity

Question 236

The combined processes of ______ and ______ contribute to recovery from sublethal radiation damage. a. Repair and repopulation b. Repair and degeneration c. Repair and renovation d. Repair and restoration

Answer 236

a. Repair and repopulation

Question 237

Which of the following statements are true concerning early tissue reactions and their effects on organ systems? 1. Patients who underwent radiation therapy and who received orthovoltage radiation therapy (200 to 300 kVp range) treatments provide significant evidence of skin damage caused by radiation exposure. 2. Highly specialized, nondividing cells in the circulating blood with the exception of lymphocytes are relatively insensitive to radiation. 3. Moderate radiation doses can cause temporary hair loss, and large radiation doses can result in permanent hair loss. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 237

d. 1, 2, and 3

Question 238

Acute radiation syndrome presents in four major response stages. In what order do these stages occur? a. Latent period, prodromal, manifest illness, recovery or death b. Manifest illness, prodromal, latent period, recovery or death c. Prodromal, latent period, manifest illness, recovery or death d. Manifest illness, latent period, prodromal, recovery of death

Answer 238

c. Prodromal, latent period, manifest illness, recovery or death

Question 239

Radiation can induce genetic damage by which of the following? a. Interacting with somatic cells of only one parent b. Interacting with somatic cells of both parents c. Altering the essential base coding sequence of DNA d. None of the above

Answer 239

c. Altering the essential base coding sequence of DNA

Question 240

Which of the following are classified as early tissue reactions (deterministic somatic effects) as a consequence of possible high radiation dose? a. Erythema, Cataractogenesis, life span shortening b. Nausea, epilation, intestinal disorders c. Male and female sterility, embryologic effects, carcinogensis d. Blood disorders , fever, nonspecific life span shortening

Answer 240

b. Nausea, epilation, intestinal disorders

Question 241

Late effects in the body to radiation exposure that have a threshold, have consequences that appear months or years after exposure, and have a severity that depends on the absorbed dose, are classified as: a. Late stochastic effects b. Late tissue reactions (deterministic effects) c. Late birth effects d. Late chromosome effects

Answer 241

b. Late tissue reactions (deterministic effects)

Question 242

Which of the following measures of lethality may be a more relevant indicator of outcome for humans? a. LD 10/30 b. LD 50/30 c. LD 50/60 d. LD 100/60

Answer 242

c. LD 50/60

Question 243

Direct action may occur after exposure to any type of radiation, but it is much more likely to happen after exposure to: a. low-LET radiation such as x-rays. b. low-LET radiation such as gamma rays. c. high-LET radiation such as alpha particles d. nonionizing radiation such as microwaves.

Answer 243

c. high-LET radiation such as alpha particles

Question 244

What do basal cells of the skin, intestinal crypt cells, and reproductive cells have in common? a. All cells are hypoxic. b. All cells are premalignant. c. All cells are radioinsensitive d. All cells are radiosensitive.

Answer 244

d. All cells are radiosensitive.

Question 245

During the embryonic stage of development: a. All life forms seem to be most vulnerable to radiation exposure b. Only a very small percentage of life forms seem to be vulnerable to radiation exposure c. A significant percentage of life forms seem to be vulnerable to radiation exposure d. Exposure to radiation cannot damage any life form

Answer 245

a. All life forms seem to be most vulnerable to radiation exposure

Question 246

When various cells of the hematopoietic system are damaged or decreased, the body experiences: 1. increased susceptibility to aggressive infectious organisms 2. increased risk of hemorrhage 3. increased risk of anemia a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 1 and 2 only d. 2 and 3 only e. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 246

e. 1, 2, and 3

Question 247

Acute high dose radiation exposure to the skin may result in a shedding of the outer layer of skin called a. Desquamation b. Epilation c. Atrophy d. Vasculitis

Answer 247

a. Desquamation

Question 248

The most important late stochastic (probalistic) effect caused by exposure to ionizing radiation: a. Cancer b. Life span shortening c. Cataracts d. Genetic mutations

Answer 248

a. Cancer

Question 249

Some examples of measurable late biologic damage are: 1. Cataracts 2. Leukemia 3. Nausea and vomiting 4. Genetic mutations a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1, 2, and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 4 only

Answer 249

d. 1, 2, and 4 only

Question 250

When are human ovaries most radiosensitive? a. During the fetal stages of life and during early childhood b. After puberty and the onset of menstruation c. From 20 to 30 years of age d. During pregnancy

Answer 250

a. During the fetal stages of life and during early childhood

Question 251

After the reception of a high radiation dose, significant cell death usually results, leading to the shrinkage of organs or tissues. This process is referred to as: a. Atrophy b. Alopecia c. Erythema d. Desquamation e. Radiodermatitis

Answer 251

a. Atrophy

Question 252

Which of the following statements are true concerning early tissue reactions and their effects on organ systems? 1. If the effects of ionizing radiation are cell-killing and directly related to the dose received, they are called Somatic tissue reactions (nonstochastic or deterministic somatic effects). 2. A person who has received a radiation exposure sufficient to cause radiation sickness will experience the initial stage of the syndrome within hours after the whole-body absorbed dose. After this stage, no visible symptoms occur for about 1 week. 3. Intestinal disorders are caused by radiation damage to the sensitive epithelial tissue lining the intestines. 4. Skin cancer induced by ionizing radiation has a latent period of approximately 5 to 10 years and usually begins with the development of radio dermatitis. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 2, 3, and 4 only e. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer 252

e. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Question 253

Which of the following types of blood cells is the most radiosensitive in the body? a. Erythrocytes b. Granulocytes c. Lymphocytes d. Thrombocytes

Answer 253

c. Lymphocytes

Question 254

What single dose of radiation exposure to the female reproductive organs is required to cause permanent sterility in mature women? a. 1 Gy b. 2 Gy c. 3 Gy d. 4 Gy e. 5 Gy

Answer 254

e. 5 Gy

Question 255

A radiation exposure to which of the following systems will most likely result in damage to the blood forming organs? a. Central nervous system b. Urinary system c. Biliary system d. Hematopoietic system e. Reproductive system

Answer 255

d. Hematopoietic system

Question 256

Which of the following describes the ratio of the radiation dose required to cause a particular biologic response of cells or organisms in an oxygen-deprived environment to the radiation dose required to cause an identical response under oxygenated conditions? a. OER b. Oxygen biologic effectiveness ratio c. Oxygen dose-response relationship d. Oxygen threshold ratio

Answer 256

a. OER

Question 257

Most radiation-induced genetic mutations are: a. Dominant mutations b. Expressed in first-generation offspring c. Spontaneous mutations unique to radiation d. Recessive mutations

Answer 257

d. Recessive mutations

Question 258

When exposure to ionizing radiation causes proliferation of the white blood cells, the radiation-induced disease that occurs is: a. Anemia b. Erythroleukosis c. Granulocytopenia d. Leukemia

Answer 258

d. Leukemia

Question 259

The hematopoietic, gastrointestinal, and cerebrovascular syndromes are three separate dose-related syndromes that are part of the: a. Bone marrow syndrome b. Cytogenetic syndrome c. Prodromal syndrome d. Total-body syndrome

Answer 259

d. Total-body syndrome