Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Avian and exotics > Final exam > Flashcards

Final exam Flashcards

1
Q

Symmetrical alopecia appears on a 3 years old female guinea pig. What is your possible diagnosis?

a. Hyperthyreosis
b. Ovarian cysts
c. Zn-deficiency
d. Castratio-responsive alopecia

A

b. Ovarian cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A rodent patient has pruritic dermatitis, and the skin scraping is negative. Which is the best idea to do?

a. B-lactam antibiotics + glucocorticoids
b. Anti-parasitic treatment
c. Washing with anti-fungal shampoo 2-3 times a day
d. Intracutan alley test

A

b. Anti-parasitic treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which is the most common cause of fur chewing in chinchillas?

a. Bad husbandry, small cage
b. Vitamin and mineral deficiency
c. Disturbing the mother and the litter
d. Low fibre diet

A

a. Bad husbandry, small cage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which species does not have marking glands?

a. Syrian golden hamster
b. Roborowsky dwarf hamster
c. Mongolian gerbil
d. Degu

A

d. Degu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the ethology of malocclusion in rodents?

a. Genetic predisposition
b. Iatrogenous harm
c. Malnutrition
d. All three are possible

A

d. All three are possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is typical of mucoid enteritis?

a. Disease of old rabbits caused by E.coli
b. Yeast overgrowth in the intestines of weaning rabbits
c. Mucous-like faeces in chinchillas caused by Clostridium spp.
d. Disease of young rabbits with an unknown origin, with pH changes in the caecum

A

a. Disease of old rabbits caused by E.coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the antibiotic that can be used orally in rodents?

a. Sulfometoxazol
b. Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid
c. Clindamycin
d. None of them

A

a. Sulfometoxazol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the ethology in CRD in rats?

a. Mycoplasma pulmonic infection
b. latent virus infections
c. High ammonia level in the air
d. Traumatic injury

A

d. Traumatic injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is typical of hypercalcuria in rabbits?

a. Physiological under 2 months
b. Needs surgical treatment
c. The urinary bladder is full of crystal-sludge
d. Can be treated by lowering the pH of the urine

A

c. The urinary bladder is full of crystal-sludge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which is true for ovarian cysts in guinea pigs?

a. You need an US. examination for the diagnosis
b. It can be palpated during routine physical examination
c. You need to prove your diagnosis by needle aspiration
d. You need to prove your diagnosis by measuring progesterone levels

A

b. It can be palpated during routine physical examination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which is true for the reproduction of guinea pigs+

a. It is recommended to breed them in an intensive way
b. High calcium leves in the diet
c. Males must be kept separately after parturition
d. Males are also taking care of the youths

A

c. Males must be kept separately after parturition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which is true for pregnancy toxicosis in rodents?

a. Low calcium diet plays a big role in the aetiology
b. It is not possible to prevent the disease
c. IV glucose, and hepato-protectants are effective treatments
d. Usually poor diagnosis in spite of treatment

A

d. Usually poor diagnosis in spite of treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

You diagnose a swelling of the mammary gland on a 2 years old rat. What to do next?

a. Give Enrofloxacin, because bacterial mastitis is common
b. Cytology, surgical removal, based on cytology results
c. Glucocorticoid treatment
d. Observing the size, control examination once a year

A

b. Cytology, surgical removal, based on cytology results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How can rabbits get infected with Encephalitizoonosis?

a. The infectious form spreads with the urine
b. It is an arthropod-born disease
c. The infectious form spreads with the faeces
d. Only by eating the meat of an infected individual

A

a. The infectious form spreads with the urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When was the ferret domesticated?

a. More than 2000 years ago
b. Approximately 1000 years ago
c. Approximately 500 years ago
d. Approximately 100 years ago

A

a. More than 2000 years ago

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When can you neuter a female ferret?

a. Only after she is older than 9 months
b. Only after the first oestrus
c. Only during the first oestrus
d. At any time, when she is full-grown

A

b. Only after the first oestrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is overproduced in Ferret Adrenal Gland Disease Complex?

a. Sexual steroids
b. Mineralocorticoids
c. Glucocorticoids
d. Adrenalin

A

a. Sexual steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which is FALSE about the GnRH analogues used for treatment of Ferret Adrenal Gland Disease Complex?

a. In small dose they stimulate the secretion of LH and FSH
b. In high dose they reduce the amount of FnRH receptors
c. When injected or implanted, they reduce the secretion of the LH and FSH
d. They directly affect the melatonin secretion

A

d. They directly affect the melatonin secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What drug is used for medical treatment of insulinoma?

a. Diazoxid
b. Deslorelin
c. Dehidropiandrosteron
d. Suprelorin

A

a. Diazoxid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which is FALSE about the ferrets’ gastrointestinal tract?

a. Cannot use carbohydrates efficiently
b. Cannot digest fibre
c. Minimal gut flora
d. Meat only food is the best for ferrets

A

c. Minimal gut flora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A 9 months old, non-neutered female ferret had alopecia, but her skin is intact. Which causes is the most likely?

a. Insulinoma
b. Ovarian-remnant syndrome
c. Adrenal Gland Disease Complex
d. Prolonged oestrus

A

d. Prolonged oestrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A spayed female ferret has vulvar swelling, alopecia (intact skin), four years after the neutering. Which cause is the most likely?

a. Insulinoma
b. Ovarian-remnant syndrome
c. Adrenal Gland Disease Complex
d. Prolonged oestrus

A

c. Adrenal Gland Disease Complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Prolonged oestrus in ferrets…

a. …will disappear when the heat ends
b. …will lead to parthenogenesis
c. …can cause the death of the animal, because of the suppression of the bone marrow function
d. …can cause the death of the animal, because is induces adrenal gland tumour

A

c. …can cause the death of the animal, because of the suppression of the bone marrow function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which is true for the ovary of birds?

a. Only exists on the left side
b. Only exists on the right side
c. Both sides are the same
d. Ovulation only to the left oviduct from both ovaries

A

a. Only exists on the left side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which is FALSE for the nutrition of parrots?

a. Based on sunflower-seeds causes nutritional imbalances
b. Pulses and tropical fruits can be added to the food
c. The nutrition based on commercial pellets can cause addiction and nutritional imbalances
d. Feeding seeds with high fat content can cause hepatic disease

A

c. The nutrition based on commercial pellets can cause addiction and nutritional imbalances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which one you must not miss, while examining a bird?

a. Body temperature
b. Palpation of the pulse
c. Breathing rate
d. Observing the uropygeal gland

A

c. Breathing rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which is true for polyuria in birds?

a. Excreting much yellowish urine allows easy diagnosis
b. It is easy to differentiate from diarrhoea, because birds do not excrete urine
c. Is can only be differentiated from diarrhoea with lab work
d. Is id difficult to differentiate from diarrhoea, because birds do not excrete urine

A

a. Excreting much yellowish urine allows easy diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Spaying of the legs appears in a juvenile African grey parrot. What to do next?

a. Careful neurologic examination, vaccination of all birds against Marek-disease
b. Measuring uric-acid level, ultrasonography of the kidneys
c. X-ray to exclude rachitis
d. Biotin supplement

A

c. X-ray to exclude rachitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

You take a swab-sample from the crop for Trichomonas examination. What so you do with the sample?

a. Put it in transport medium and put in the fridge
b. Put is in transport medium, and keep it on room temperature
c. Make a smear sample and fixate it
d. Examine a native smear directly

A

d. Examine a native smear directly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is / are the best sites of venipuncture in birds?

a. Vena caudal tibialis and vena cephalica
b. Sinus venous occipitalis
c. Vena jugulars and vena cutanea ulnaris
d. Vena medialis metatarsalis

A

c. Vena jugulars and vena cutanea ulnaris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How is the erythrocyte morphology in birds?

a. Oval cells, dark nucleus, homologous abundant cytoplasm
b. Round cells, without nucleus, homologous abundant cytoplasm
c. Square cells, oval nucleus, and a small amount of homologous cytoplasm
d. Huge, amoeboid cells, small amount of homologous cytoplasm

A

a. Oval cells, dark nucleus, homologous abundant cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is typical for creatinine in birds?

a. It has no clinical significance
b. It is sensitive to kidney damage
c. After kidney damage it elevates earlier than urea
d. Even if it has no clinical significance, you should measure it in every case

A

d. Even if it has no clinical significance, you should measure it in every case

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is / are the cause(s) of the feather plucking syndrome?

a. Boredom only
b. Boredom and Ectoparasites only
c. Only psychiatric causes
d. Lots of infectious and non-infectious causes

A

d. Lots of infectious and non-infectious causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The main symptom of liver damage in birds are…

a. Greenish urates, ascites and abnormal beak / nails
b. Abdominal pain and pruritus
c. Regurgitation and CNS signs
d. Fever and increased appetite

A

a. Greenish urates, ascites and abnormal beak / nails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are hepatoprotectants in birds?

a. Ursodeoxycholic acid, lactulose, metronidazole
b. Ursodeoxycholic acid, famotidine, sucralfate
c. Ursodeoxycholic acid, S-adenosylmethionine, silymarin, vitamin E
d. Ursodeoxycholic acid, ciproheptadin, chloramphenicol

A

c. Ursodeoxycholic acid, S-adenosylmethionine, silymarin, vitamin E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The course of treatment of kidney disease is…

a. Fluid therapy, ciproheptadin, melatonin
b. Fluid therapy, silimarin, metronidazole
c. Fluid therapy, ketogenic, gentamicin
d. Fluid therapy, allopurinol, omega-3 fatty acids, vitamin A

A

d. Fluid therapy, allopurinol, omega-3 fatty acids, vitamin A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Aetiology of avian tuberculosis…

a. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
b. Mycobacterium avium
c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
d. Mycobacterium bovis

A

b. Mycobacterium avium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Possible treatment for megabacteriosis?

a. Amphotericin b
b. Metronidazole
c. Fenbendazole
d. Enrofloxacin

A

a. Amphotericin b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the aetiology of Macaw wasting disease (PDD)?

a. Intestinal hypomobility
b. Degeneration of the ganglions in the wall of the proventriculus
c. Less activity of the pancreatic enzymes
d. Fungal infection of the gastrointestinal tract

A

b. Degeneration of the ganglions in the wall of the proventriculus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which is FALSE?

a. Snakes are shedding periodically
b. Lizards are shedding periodically
c. Ceratophagia is physiological in lizards
d. There is no shedding in turtles

A

d. There is no shedding in turtles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The nutrition of tortoises is based on…

a. Lettuce and tomatoes
b. Plants and flowers collected in the garden
c. Banana
d. Fruits

A

b. Plants and flowers collected in the garden

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which is FALSE for the hibernation of Hermann’s tortoise?

a. It needs water during hibernation
b. The ideal temperature is 4-8 degrees C
c. It is only recommended for breeders
d. High fibre diet is optimal before hibernation

A

c. It is only recommended for breeders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Where to give great amount of fluid to a turtle?

a. Intracoelomial
b. Vena jugulars, through IV catheter
c. Subcutaneously to the hind legs
d. Subcutaneously to the front legs

A

a. Intracoelomial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which is not connected with the aetiology of nutritive osteodystrophia?

a. Low calcium diet
b. Vitamin D deficiency
c. High potassium diet
d. High phosphorous diet

A

c. High potassium diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which is important in the pathogeneses of vitamin A deficiency?

a. Enterocyte proliferation
b. Metaplasia in the surface of the mucous membranes
c. Pathological fat infiltration of the liver
c. Necrosis in the renal tubuli

A

b. Metaplasia in the surface of the mucous membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How to treat otitis media in turtles?

a. No treatment, it disappears spontaneously sooner or later
b. Surgical debridement, antibiotics
c. Eardrops
d. Systemic antibiotic treatment based on sensitivity

A

b. Surgical debridement, antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Follicular stasis in a green iguana can be treated with…

a. Synthetic progestagens
b. Surgery
c. Optimal husbandry
d. Calcium + oxytocin injection

A

b. Surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which characteristic of reptiles can affect negatively the success of a surgical procedure?

a. Great resistance against hypoxia
b. Low blood pressure
c. Small total blood volume
d. Great resistance against infections

A

c. Small total blood volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which can cause stomatitis in tortoises?

a. Herpes virus infection
b. Ophiomyssus matrices infection
c. Iron toxicosis
d. Too hot feeding place

A

a. Herpes virus infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What can you see in a turtle patient with wet shell rot?

a. Reddish-brown drawing like areas on the plastron
b. Blue colour on the plastron
c. Green and purple drawing on the plastron
d. Nothing, it is symptomless

A

a. Reddish-brown drawing like areas on the plastron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the aetiology of hypertrophic gastritis in snakes?

a. Iridovirus infection
b. Cryptosporidium serpentis
c. Phabdias sp. infection
c. Unknown

A

b. Cryptosporidium serpentis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Symptoms of the RNS disease are…

a. Upper respiratory infection with nasal discharge
b. Diarrhoea, inflammation in the cloaca
c. Arthritis, limb weakness

A

a. Upper respiratory infection with nasal discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which can cause pneumonia vermiosa?

a. Rhabdias sp.
b. Kalicaphalus sp.
c. Oxyuris sp.

A

a. Rhabdias sp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is a possible treatment of septicaemia in turtles?

a. Vitamin C
b. Ivermectin
c. Enrofloxacin

A

c. Enrofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Why should we protect the integrity of the plumage f an injured bird?

a. Because of animal welfare reasons
b. This is the only way if we want a successful release into the wild
c. Is the plumage is damaged abnormal behaviour starts (auto mutilation, feather picking)

A

c. Is the plumage is damaged abnormal behaviour starts (auto mutilation, feather picking)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Which is FALSE? When the neurological examination of the bird takes place…

a. The loss of pain perception means a fair prognosis
b. The judgement of the pain receptor must be the last act
c. The loss of pain perception means a very weak prognosis

A

a. The loss of pain perception means a fair prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The treatment of leat intoxication can be carried out with…

a. Ca-EDTA, D-penicillamin
b. Ca-EDTA, atropine
c. D-penicillamin, atropine

A

a. CA-EDTA, D-penicillamin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Which statement is TRUE? Atropine can be given “routinely” for intoxicated birds, if…

a. Lead intoxication is suspected
b. Copper intoxication is suspected
c. Organophosphate intoxication is suspected

A

c. Organophosphate intoxication is suspected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which method would you choose in a zoo for interventions with serious pain?

a. Neuroletanalgesia
b. Standing sedation
c. Physical restraint

A

a. Neuroletanalgesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Which statement is TRUE about primates?

a. Keeping them must be avoided, because of zoonosis
b. Because of the risk of zoonosis, personal safety must get a high priority
c. Because of the risk of zoonosis, certain species can be treated only in protection masks and spectacles

A

b. Because of the risk of zoonosis, personal safety must get a high priority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Which birds can be infected by histomonas, and that is the vector?

A

Galliform birds

Heterakis gallinae worms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the therapy of histomonosis?

A

Kilon (metronidazol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Which birds can suffer from lymphoma?

A

Canaries and parrots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the causative agent of lymphoma?

A

Retroviridae virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What non.infection agents can cause nasal discharge in birds?

A

Pollen
Dust
Smoke
Fungal spores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What infectious agents can cause nasal discharge in birds?

A

Viruses:
Paramyxovirus

Bacteria:
Mycoplasma
Chlamydophila

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the cause of purulent nasal discharge?

A

Secondary bacterial infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Which species causes mycoplasmosis of exotic pheasants?

A

Mycoplasma gallisepticum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Is mycoplasma species resistant or sensitive?

A

Sensitive

Virulence for maximum 1-2 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

How can we treat mycoplasmosis in birds?

A

Nutritional:
Vitamins, proteins, and probiotics

Antibiotics:
Enrofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the causative agent of Amazon tracheitis?

A

Parrot herpesvirus 2 and 3 (chicken are also sensitive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are the clinical symptoms of Amazon tracehitis?

A

Lethargy, loss of appetite, dyspnoea, nasal discharge, and conjunctivitis in parachute cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

How can you treat Amazon tracheitis in birds?

A

Change the place of the cage, treat secondary bacterial infections with antibiotics and vitamins, and inhalation therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the causative and clinical symptoms of paramyxovirus infection in canaries?

A

Causative:
PMV-1

Clinical symptoms:
Conjunctivitis, specific noises at respiration, sneezing and shaking the head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are the clinical signs of histomonosis?

A

Black head, and yellowish foamy diarrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Which part of the respiratory tract of birds is common for poxvirus, mycobacterium avium and trichomonas, and what is the treatment?

A

Part:
Trachea

Treatment:
Clean the house / cage of the bird and give Ivermectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the causative agent of Syngamus infection of pheasants, and what is the intermediate host?

A

Causative agent:
Syngamus tracheae

Int. host:
Ring worms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the diagnosis and therapy of Syngamus infection in pheasants?

A

Diagnosis:
Faecal examination and larval examination

Therapy:
Mebemdazol or
Fenbendazol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Which bacteria are likely to cause changes in the bird lung?

A

Tuberculosis

E. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Which stains are good for differential diagnosis of bacterial infections in the bird lung?

A

Grocott
HE
PAS
ZN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What are the causatives of serous, purulent, and chronic fibrinous airsacculitis in birds?

A

Serous: Virus, mycoplasma

Purulent: Bacteria

Chronic fibrinous: Bacteria, fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is the causative of infectious diseases of the pericardial sac in birds?

A

Microfilaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Which pathogens can cause bleeding in the pericardium?

A

Bacteria:
Pasteurella multocida, E. rhusiopathiae, E. coli

Virus:
Bird flu and others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Which birds is very sensitive to nephritis virus?

A

Tragopans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the causative if kidney coccidiosis in young geese?

A

Eimeria truncata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Which bacteria can cause inflammation of the testis in birds?

A

Salmonella species: Necrotic inflammation

Mycobacterium: Tubercles in the testis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Which birds are more likely to suffer from infectious diseases in the copulatory organs?

A

Ducks and geese due to bad keeping techniques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Do chelonians have a diaphragm?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What does the term poikilotherm mean?

A

Cold blooded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Why does it not make sense to take temperature from a reptile?

A

Because their temperature is equal to the external temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is the optimal environmental temperature for reptiles?

A

22-27 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

How many phases of shedding can be differentiated in snakes?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is a common cause of shedding problems?

A

Keeping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Is bigger always better when it comes to the size of the terrarium?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

How many hours of light is necessary each day (terrarium)?

A

8-10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

In the case of tropical species of reptiles, how high humidity do they need?

A

90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What kind of terrarium type do you have concerning habitat?

A

Rain forest
Savannah
Mediterranean
Desert

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What kind of terrarium type do you have concerning way of living?

A

Higher style
Flat style
Aqua-terrarium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Which reptiles are considered herbivorous?

A

Testudinidae

Green iguana

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Which reptiles are considered carnivorous?

A

Snake
Sweet (Fresh?) water turtle
Monitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Which reptiles are considered omnivorous?

A

Some geckos

Agamas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What are the positions for x-rays in a soft shelled turtle?

A

DV, LL, Cranio-caudal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Which sites can be used for blood sampling in a chelonian?

A

Sub-carpaxial sinus
Doral coccygeal vein
Vena jugularis
Other (Peripheral veins or heart)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Which sites can be used for blood sampling in lizards?

A

Ventral coccygeal vein
Heart
Abdominal veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Which sites can be used for blood sampling in snakes?

A

Ventral coccygeal vein
Heart
Vena palatina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What can be the consequence of too high humidity?

A

Dermatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What can be the consequence of too low humidity?

A

Shedding problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Poxvirus dermatitis is common in which species?

A

Kaiman
Green iguana
Sceloporus sp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What are the clinical signs of poxvirus dermatitis?

A

Small brownish papules, localisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What are the most common tick infection of reptiles?

A

Ophinonyssus natricis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What are the clinical signs of Ophinonyssus natricis infection?

A

Anaemia

Shedding problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What is the correct therapy is suspecting Ophinonyssus natricis infections?

A

Ivermectin

Frontline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Shell disease is most common in which type of chelonian?

A

Aqua chelonian

More common than tortoises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

In what reptiles do you most commonly find stomatitis?

A

Snakes and larger lizards

Venomous snakes especially

115
Q

How does stomatitis look like?

A

Yellowish fibrin layer

Under the fibrin you find bleeding mucosa

116
Q

Treatment of stomatitis?

A

Change keeping environment
Remove fibrin layer
Enrofloxacin 4 mg/kg for 4-5 days
Vitamin C injections every day

117
Q

When does stomatitis commonly occur in terrestrial tortoises?

A

After hibernation and shipping

118
Q

Which animals are commonly affected by hypertrophic gastritis?

A

Snakes

Geckoes

119
Q

What is the pathogen, which causes hypertrophic gastritis in reptiles?

A

Cryptosporidium serpentis

120
Q

What are the clinical signs of hypertrophic gastritis in snakes?

A

Weight loss
Good appetite
Vomiting
Water-like, smelly diarrhoea

121
Q

What are the clinical signs of hypertrophic gastritis in geckoes?

A

Weight loss

Refusal to eat

122
Q

What is the treatment for hypertrophic gastritis?

A

Spiramycin, 160mg/kg for 7 days, repeat 2 weeks later

123
Q

How to prevent hypertrophic gastritis?

A

Change in hygiene

124
Q

What are the causative agent for acute mucoid enterocolites?

A

Parvovirus, Adenovirus

Shigella, Proteus

125
Q

What are the causative agents for acute necrotic enterocolites?

A

Entamoeba invadens, Trichomonas, and HExamita spp.

126
Q

What is the pathogen causing ulcerative enteritis?

A

Kalicaphalus spp.

127
Q

Which species is highly susceptible to enteritis caused by entamoeba?

A

Herbivorous reptiles

Carnivorous species

128
Q

What are the clinical signs of entamoeba enteritis?

A

Loss of appetite
Diarrhoea
Lethargy

129
Q

What are the different forms of viral pneumonia?

A

Acute respiratory: Wide breaths with open mouth and sneezing

Chronic respiratory: Pneumonia

CNS form: Incoordination

Asymptomatic form: Virus carrier

130
Q

What pathological lesions do you find in viral pneumonia?

A

Catarrhal and purulent pneumonia

131
Q

What is the treatment for viral pneumonia?

A

Antibiotics and vitamin C

132
Q

Fungal pneumonia: Susceptible species and predisposing factors?

A

All reptile species are affected

High humidity helps fungal overgrowth

133
Q

Which snake species are sensitive to parasitic pneumonia?

A

All snakes are sensitive

134
Q

What is the causative agent of pneumonia varminosa?

A

Rhabdias species

135
Q

Routes of infection of pneumonia verminosa?

A

Contaminated feed, per cutan

136
Q

Therapy in case of parasitic pneumonia of snakes?

A

Ivermectin injection

137
Q

How to perform a blood exam?

A

Collect blood, serology examination, blood smear, stain with giemsa

138
Q

Which reptile species are susceptible to nephritis?

A

All species are susceptible

139
Q

Most common causative agent for nephritis?

A

Bacteria

140
Q

Type of nephritis found in reptiles?

A

Purulent nephritis

141
Q

What is the treatment for egg myasis?

A

Infertile egg should be taken out from the hatchery, the healthy eggs should be transferred into clean hatching medium, and the hatchery must be cleaned and all edges should be cleaned well

142
Q

In which species is it common to see post-hibernation anorexia?

A

Snakes and turtles

143
Q

Diseases which are related to hibernation include?

A

Mechanical damage
Post-hibernation anorexia
Post-hibernation icterus
Septicaemia

144
Q

Which antibiotics is not to be given per os in reptiles?

A

Gentamycin

145
Q

Which is a very good antibiotic to use with wide spectrum and less resistance (reptiles)?

A

Enrofloxacin

146
Q

Which antibiotic is highly oto- and nephrotoxic?

A

Gentamycin

147
Q

For how long should you keep trading reptiles with Amphotericin B?

A

2 weeks

148
Q

How often should you use Grisofulvin?

A

Every 3rd day

149
Q

Which disease is Nystatin highly effective against?

A

Enteral mystic infections

150
Q

Which fungi is Amphotericin B highly effective against?

A

Aspergillus

151
Q

What disease do you use metronidazole for in reptiles?

A

Entamoeba and ciliated infections

152
Q

Which species should NEVER get Ivermectin?

A

Turtles

153
Q

The colour of reptile skin depends on several factors, which are?

A 
Genetics
Condition
Season
Age
Reproduction status
154
Q

Darker skin colour may be due to what?

A

Stress
Ilness
Physiological accommodation

155
Q

In which animals is it physiological to have tattered shedding?

A

Lizards

Bird snakes

156
Q

In which species is it pathological to have tattered shedding?

A

Colubrid snakes

157
Q

What types of dermatitis is found in reptiles?

A

Necrotic
Ulcerative
Ventral derma necrosis
Nodular dermatitis

158
Q

What are the symptoms of scale rot?

A

Brownish scales and accesses

159
Q

What are the common neoplasms in reptiles?

A

Papillomatosis
Carcinoma
Melanoma

160
Q

What are the clinical signs of vitamin A hypovitaminosis?

A

Eyelids are swollen

Hyper- and parakeratosis

161
Q

What is a non-infectious case of stomatitis?

A

Uric acid excretion

162
Q

In what cases is liver lipidosis physiological in reptiles?

A

Under pregnancy
After hibernation
Before first shedding

163
Q

Under which circumstances is it physiological for reptiles to refuse feed?

A

Hibernation
Pregnancy
Breeding season
Before shedding

164
Q

What are the reasons for post-hibernation anorexia in reptiles?

A

Dehydration

165
Q

What is the therapy for post-hibernation anorexia?

A

Rehydration by swimming in low lukewarm water

166
Q

Common tumours in lung of tortoises?

A

Fibroma and fibrosarcoma

167
Q

What is the reason are atelectatic lung in reptiles?

A

Overconditioning

168
Q

What are the predisposing factors for pregnancy toxaemia?

A

Young female
Big litter
No resting time
Malnutrition

169
Q

Common tumours in lung of snakes?

A

Adenocarcinoma

170
Q

What is the treatment if you have suspected pregnancy toxaemia?

A

Warm fluid
Energy support
Shock therapy

171
Q

What are the most common pathogens causing mastitis?

A

Pasteurella
Staphylococcus
Streptococcus

172
Q

What are the clinical signs of mastitis?

A

Swollen, warm, and painful mammary glands

173
Q

Therapy in case of suspected mastitis?

A

Antibiotics
NSAIDS
Fluid therapy
Hot packs

174
Q

What is the most common mammary tumours?

A

Adenocarcinoma

175
Q

Clinical findings in case of of mammary tumour?

A

In-homogenous palpation
Not swollen
Not painful

176
Q

What is the treatment in case of mammary tumour?

A

Mammactomy of OHE

177
Q

In which animal is paraphimosis common?

A

Chinchillas

178
Q

Encephalotozoonosis is found in what species, and caused by what pathogen?

A

Found in rabbits

Caused by E. coli

179
Q

Where are the spores of encephalitozoon expelled / excreted?

A

Urine

180
Q

What is the infection route of encephalitozoon?

A

Per os or aerogenous

181
Q

What are the symptoms in a rabbit with encephalitozoon infection?

A 
Head tilt
Behavioural changes
Nystagmus
Seizures
Interstitial nephritis and renal failure
PD / PU
182
Q

Treatment of Encephalitozoon infections

A

Dexamethrason
Chloramphenicol
Oxibendazole
Diazepam

183
Q

Is Encephalitozoon infections zoonotic?

A

Yes

184
Q

Lymphocytic choriomeningitis affects which species?

A

All rodents, especially mice and hamsters

185
Q

What are the 4 different forms of Lymphocytic choriomeningitis and their clinical symptoms?

A

Cerebral form: Abnormal posture, tremor, tonic clonic seizures, and death

Visceral form: Conjunctivitis, ascites, and lethargy

Late form: 9-12 months after natal or prenatal infection, causes lethargy, ascites, and proteinuria

Vestigial form: Abnormal development and death

186
Q

What is the pathogen that causes LCM (Lymphocytic choriomeningitis)?

A

Arenavirus

187
Q

What are the clinical signs of trauma or stroke in rodents / rabbits?

A

Head tilt and CNS symptoms

188
Q

What is the preferred treatment of stroke?

A

Glucocorticoids

Vitamin B supplement

189
Q

What are the symptoms of heat stroke in rabbits and rodents?

A

Bad general status
Seizures
Dyspnoea
Warm body

190
Q

Treatment when suspecting heat stroke?

A

Cooling of the body
Shock treatment
Diuretics
Oxygen

191
Q

Hind-limb weakness, cause and treatment?

A

Spinal cord injury

Glucocorticoids
Vitamin B
Euthanasia

192
Q

Diabetes mellitus affects which species in particular?

A

Degus

193
Q

Lymphoma is common in which species?

A

Commonly in guinea pigs and rabbits

194
Q

Lymphoma in guinea pigs is caused by?

A

Retrovirus

195
Q

What are the diseases related to obesity?

A 
Pododermatitis
Hypercalcuria
Incontinentia
Dermatitis
Hepatic lipidosis
Dystochia
Joint problems
Spinal problems
196
Q

To which family does the ferret belong?

A

Mustellidae

197
Q

Which three ferret species do we have?

A

M. putenus
M. Eversmannt
M. nigripes

198
Q

What are the uses of ferrets?

A 
Rodent control
Hunting
Pelt
Biomedical research
Cable transport
Sports
Companionship
199
Q

What is the body weight of a ferret?

A
  1. 5-2 kg in males

0. 6-1 kg in females

200
Q

How long does the ferrets approximately live?

A

7-9 years

201
Q

When is a ferret mature?

A

6-12 months

202
Q

How long is the gestation period of ferrets, and when are they weaned?

A

41-43 days gestation

Weaned after 6-8 weeks

203
Q

What is the normal body temperature of the ferrets?

A

38-39,5 C

204
Q

What can you say about the digestive tract of ferrets?

A

Big, dilating stomach
Very short GI tract
Carnivorous
GI parasitism is rare

205
Q

How can the diet help prevent or treat hypocalcuria?

A 
More vegetables
Grass / hay 
Fresh water
Less seeds
Timothy-based pellets
206
Q

Chronic renal failure is common at what age?

A

Old age

207
Q

Ovarian cysts are common in which species, and at what age?

A

Guinea pigs after 1,5 years

208
Q

How do you diagnose ovarian cysts?

A

Palpation

Found behind the kidneys (round shape) and US

209
Q

What is the treatment in case of ovarian cysts?

A

Ovarian hysterectomy

210
Q

In which animals is endometritis and uterine tumours common?

A

Rabbits

211
Q

Pyometra in rabbits is caused by which pathogens?

A

Pasteurella multocida

Staph. aureus

212
Q

How do you prevent Adenocarcinoma in rabbits?

A

Spaying (under 2 years of age)

213
Q

Dystochia is common in which species?

A

Guinea pigs

214
Q

What is the cause of dystocia in guinea pigs?

A

Large foetuses
Permanent fusion of the symphysis pelvis
Abnormal position of the foetus

215
Q

What is the treatment of dystocia?

A

Calcium and oxytocin
C-section
OHE and manual removal of foetus

216
Q

How do you prevent dystocia in guinea pigs?

A

Should not breed until minimum 6 months old

Separate males and females at at 3-4 weeks of age

217
Q

When does the symphysis fusion happen in guinea pigs?

A

1-1,5 years

218
Q

How long is the resting time (between pregnancies) in guinea pigs?

A

Minimum 1 month

219
Q

Pregnancy toxaemia is especially important in which species?

A

Guinea pigs
Chinchillas
Rabbits

220
Q

What is the time period you should expect pregnancy toxaemia?

A

2 weeks of pregnancy and 1 week after delivery

221
Q

Which species are prone to vitamin B1 hypovitaminosis?

A

Water snake species

222
Q

What is the clinical symptoms of vitamin B1 hypovitaminosis?

A

Moving disorder

223
Q

What are the parts of the carpax?

A

Nuchale
Neuralia
Costalia
Marginalia

224
Q

What are the parts of the pasitrom?

A 
Gularia
Humeralia
Pectoralia
Abdominalia
Femoralia
Analia
225
Q

What type of blood sampling tubes should be used to take blood samples in reptiles?

A

Li-heparin

226
Q

What may be the reason for tattered shedding?

A 
Low humidity
High temperature
Absence og rubbing material
Absence of water
Ophionyssus natricis
227
Q

What are the clinical signs of tattered shedding?

A

Old skin remains
Nervousness
Feed refusal

228
Q

What is the appropriate therapy for tattered shedding?

A

Swimming water

229
Q

What may be the cause of failed shedding?

A

Too low or too high temperature

230
Q

What may be the cause of shortened shedding cycle?

A

Damage of skin
After surgery or bite
Too high thyroxin levels
High temperature

231
Q

Which species are referred to as large agamas?

A

Iguana iguana (Green iguana)
Barbed dragons
Water agamas

232
Q

What may be the cause of rostral skin damage in large agamas?

A

Too small terrarium
Too many adult males
Bad environment

233
Q

What is the correct therapy for rostral skin damage in large agamas?

A

Change of keeping and antibiotics

234
Q

What may be the cause of you see scarring of the skin?

A

Prey bite, fighting and fixing Bute during copulation

235
Q

What may be the reason for generalised oedema in reptiles?

A

Heart or kidney failure

236
Q

What is another name for ventral dermal necrosis?

A

Scale rot

237
Q

How to prevent egg myiasis?

A

Clean hatchery

238
Q

Why does mycosis happen in eggs?

A

Inappropriate hatching medium

239
Q

What happened is you use peat (turf) as hatching medium?

A

No mildew

240
Q

What happens if you use peril as hatching medium?

A

Mould may occur

241
Q

How to treat mycosis in eggs?

A

Affected area should be dusted with carbon activates

242
Q

In which (reptile) species does encephalitis occur?

A

Snakes

243
Q

What are the causative agents for encephalitis in snakes?

A

Paramyxovirus
Systemic mycosis
Tophus

244
Q

In which (reptile) species is internal ear inflammation common?

A

Turtles

245
Q

What is internal ear inflammation caused by?

A

Bacterial infections

246
Q

What are the symptoms of internal ear inflammation?

A

Lateral part of head is enlarged

247
Q

How to treat internal ear inflammation?

A

Surgery and antibiotic injection

248
Q

When is it physiological to have opal / white discolouration of the eyes in snakes?

A

During shedding

249
Q

What is the causative agent is you have chronic eye infections?

A

MIte infection

250
Q

What are the reasons for developing ceratopathy?

A

Post-hibernation ceratopathy, lipidosis, and erosion

251
Q

What is the proposed therapy for Entamoeba enteritis?

A

Metonidasole 250 mg / kg every 2nd day
3x high temperature
Vitamin injections

252
Q

How to prevent entamoeba enteritis?

A

Separate carnivorous snakes and lizards from herbivores

253
Q

What is the aetiology behind discilliasis of snakes?

A

Too low temperature under the digestion

254
Q

Causative agent for acute purulent-like hepatitis?

A

Bacteria

255
Q

Chronic hepatitis with tubercle formation is caused by which pathogen?

A

Mycobacterium
Fungi
Algae

256
Q

Nodular hepatitis is caused by which type of parasite?

A

Capillaria and larvae migrans viscellaris

257
Q

What types of hepatitis are found in reptiles?

A

Acute purulent
Necrotic
Chronic with tubercle formation
Nodular

258
Q

What is the most common viruses causing hepatitis?

A

Iridovirus, herpesvirus, and adenovirus

259
Q

Rhinitis and sinusitis most commonly affects which reptile species?

A

Terrestrial tortoises

260
Q

Causes for rhinitis and sinusitis?

A

Herpesvirus and iridovirus
Allergic, non-infectious
Interstitial parasitosis
Fungal spores

261
Q

Clinical signs of sinusitis and rhinitis?

A

Serous to purulent discharge

262
Q

Which snake types are sensitive to viral pneumonia?

A

Venomous and colubrid

263
Q

Causative agent for viral pneumonia in snakes?

A

Paramyxovirus

264
Q

What is the most common surgical procedures in rodents and rabbits?

A 
Explorative laparotomy
Excision of neoplasms
Ovary-hysterectomy 
Exstirpatio bulbi
Cystotomy
265
Q

What is the maintenance volume of isoflurane?

A

2 - 2.5%

266
Q

What is the introduction volume of isoflurane?

A

4 - 5%

267
Q

Dosages of painkillers intra- and postoperative?

A

Butorphanol: 3mg/kg
Flunixin: 1-10mg/kg
Ketoprofen: 5-10mg/kg

268
Q

What is the species causing intestinal coccidiosis in guinea pigs?

A

Eimeria caviae

269
Q

What are the clinical signs of intestinal coccidiosis of guinea pigs and rabbits, and what is the treatment?

A

Clinical signs: Bloody diarrhoea, weight lodd

Treatment: Sulphonamides

270
Q

What are the causative agents for alopecia and pruritus?

A

Husbandry problems

271
Q

What can be the causative agents for dermatitis?

A

Fungi
Bacteria
Parasites
Allergy

272
Q

Clinical signs of flea dermatitis?

A

Discomfort
Pruritus
Fur and skin damage

273
Q

Clinical signs of lice dermatitis?

A

Pruritus and nervous animal

274
Q

Give an example of common mites which cause dermatitis?

A

Gyropus ovalis
Chirodiscoides caviae
Trixacarus caviae

275
Q

Which animals have most commonly problems with their marking glands?

A

Hamsters and gerbils

276
Q

Which animal get atheroma?

A

Guinea pigs

277
Q

What is a good diet in case of malnutrition status in an animal?

A

Good quality commercial food
Apples
Good quality hay

278
Q

What may be the cause of malocclusion?

A 
Teeth growing the wrong way
Incomplete wear
Prognatha inferior
Trauma
Malnutrition
279
Q

What may be the symptom of malocclusion?

A

Anorexia; stop eating due to pain
Increased salivation; moist dermatitis
Injury
Ulceration

280
Q

What can you use to examine the teeth in rodents?

A

Vaginal speculum and otoscope

281
Q

Which animals primarily get cheek pouch impaction?

A

Hamsters

282
Q

Symptoms of zootrichobezoar?

A

Anorexia

Weight loss

283
Q

Treatment of zootrichobezoar?

A

Intensive fluid treatment
Laxatives
GI-motility stimulators
Enzyme extract or fresh pineapple juice

Avian and exotics (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions