Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Is attempting to enhance athletic performance new?

A

No it dates back to 776 BC in the Greek Olympic Games

  • 1800 heroin
  • 1960s amphetamine
  • 1970s-80s anabolic androgenic steroids
  • 1998 - EPO
  • 2003 THG
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2
Q

What is ergogenic aid?

A
  • “energy giving”
  • consists of substances, procedures, methods or techinques believed to:
    1- improve physical work capacity
    2- physiological function
    3- athletic performance
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3
Q

What is doping?

A

Practice of enhancing performance through use of foreign substances or other artificial means

  • derived from Dutch word Dop
  • used to be used for horses initially
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4
Q

What is the natural Health products directorate

A
  • Organization that came into effect in 2004
  • role: is to provide Canadians with ready access to a range of natural health products that are safe, effective and of high quality, while respecting freedom of choice, philosophical and cultural diversity.
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5
Q

how does one get their product on the NHP directorate?

A
  • manufacturer must obtain natural health product number from health canada (get license)
  • this will inform that it has been reviewed, safe and quality.
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6
Q

In order to receive a license from health canada, a manufacturer must have what?

A
  • product name
  • product license holder
  • NPN
  • product’s medicinal ingredients
  • products non medicinal ingredients
  • dosage form
  • recommendation or purpose
  • risk associated with use
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7
Q

What conditions must a product have to be NHP?

A
  • cannot be classified as controlled drug or substance by food and drugs
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8
Q

What are negatives aspects of NHP?

A
  • efficacy is not teste -> it is the responsibility of the manufacturer
  • only need license by justice department
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9
Q

Name examples of NHP?

A
  • vitamins and minerals
  • herbal remedies
  • homeopathic medicines
  • traditional medicine ie: Chinese
  • probiotics
  • others: AA, essential F.A
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10
Q

What are the different categories of NHP or drugs used to improve performance?

A

1- increase muscle growth (most popular)
2- speed recovery from training
3- increase CRE
4- aid weight control

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11
Q

Name the different types of substances taken to increase muscle strength and define them? do all require prescription?

A

1- androgenic anabolic steroids (AAS):

2- human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG):

  • taken from placenta of pregnant woman
  • used to increase testicular testosterone production

3: human growth hormone (HGH):

4: dehydroxyepiandrosterone (DHEA)
- OTC is banned in canada

5: androstenedione (ANDRO)
- is a precursor
- OTC is banned in canada

6- insulin:
- can result in shock

7- insulin like growth factor (IGF-I)
- stimulated by growth hormone

8- beta- agonist

  • used for asthma
  • relax muscles in the airways
As NHP (dont require prescription)
9- protein supplement, AA sup, polypeptide supplement , metabolic optimizing meals
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12
Q

What are side effects of growth hormones?

A
  • increase blood glucose []
  • high [insulin]
  • carpal tunnel syndrome
  • heart enlargement
  • increase blood fat levels
  • acromegaly
  • heart, nerve, bone and joint diseases
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13
Q

What are side effects of Beta-agonist

A
  • insomnia
  • heart arythmies
  • anxiety
  • anorexia
  • nauseas
  • heart attach/failure
  • heart enlargement
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14
Q

What substances are used to speed recovery from training?

A
  • > creatine monohydrate:
  • chromium picolinate
  • carbohydrate beverages
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15
Q

What do substances that speed recovery do?

A

Used to replenish depleted body fuel supplies that are important during exercise and recovery

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16
Q

How does creatine monophosphate work?

A
  • used to increase recovery, power, strength, muscle size
  • used for short term, high intensity, REPETITIVE exercise
  • this will increase creatine phosphate levels in muscles
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17
Q

How does chromium picolinate work?

A

Will increase action of insulin and carbohydrate metabolism

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18
Q

how do carbohydrate beverages work?

A
  • increase action of insulin and carb metabolism
  • during or right after exercise
  • speeds up replenishment of liver and muscle glycogen
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19
Q

What drugs are used to increase training intensity and overcome fatigue?

A

Would use stimulants such as:

  • amphetamines
  • caffeines
  • ephedra
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20
Q

Describe the use of amphetamines?

A
  • used by athletes to overcome fatigue and increase intensity
  • will stimulate the CNS
  • has side effects such as: aggressiveness, paranoia, hallucinate, heart arrhythmia
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21
Q

how does caffeine work to increase training intensity

A

Stimulates the CNS

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22
Q

How does ephedra work?

A
  • it stimulates CNS

- but its use is banned OTC and by FDA since 2004

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23
Q

What substances are used to increase CRE?

A
  • erythropoietin and darbepoietin (re-engineered form:
  • > drugs are used to treat anemia in cancer or kidney disease
  • will stimulate the growth of RBC
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24
Q

What are the substances that aid in weight control?

A
  • prescription that are appetite suppressants (Diethylpropion, phentermine)
  • drugs affecting Metabolic rate (caffeine, phenylpropanolamine (PPA) & ephedra, both banned in canada)
  • diuretics: will promote loss of fluids from body, in order to accentuate muscle definition
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25
Q

What is testosterone?

A
  • a steroid-base hormone

- is an anabolic androgenic hormone synthesized from choletestor

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26
Q

What does testosterone regulate?

A

1- tissue repair
2- secondary sex characteristics
3- various growth function

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27
Q

In men, what cells secrete testosterone?

In women?

A

Leyding cells in the testes

In women:

  • secreted from ovaries and adrenal glands
  • women have a much lower [] than men
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28
Q

Describe androgenic anabolic steroids?

A
  • are synthetic derivatives of male sex hormones (ie: testosterone)
  • can be administered orally or by injection
  • used by: (Olympic, professional, college, strength athl, body builders, ins. Out of org. Sports too)
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29
Q

what are designer steroids?

A

Designed in the lab to avoid detection

  • modifies structure
  • ie: THG, oral turinabol
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30
Q

Describe Bhasin and Al’s research of androgenic anabolic steroid

A
  • studied the effects of steroids in 40 healthy, 19-40 yrs
  • had placebo and testosterone enanthat give for over 10 weeks
  • > initially larger dose for 6 days, then replacement dose

Saw:

  • large increase in placebo group that exercise
  • even larger increase in the testosterone group that exercised
  • not change in placebo fo those that did not exercise
  • increase in performance for those that dont exercise
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31
Q

What are the normal ranges of steroids in the body?

A

M: 10-42 mmol/L
F: 0.7 to 2.8 mmol/L

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32
Q

Name all of the possible side effects of using steroids?

A
  • increased aggression
  • depression
  • increased arousal, self-esteem
  • insomnia
  • mood swings, psychosis
  • increased blood cholesterol/TGA
  • increases LDL
  • decreases HDL (increases CVD chances)
  • increase hypertension, risk of HA, stroke
  • prostate cancer, liver tumour, acne, alopécie
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33
Q

What are the main symptoms of AAS in men and women?

A

Men:

  • decrease [test]
  • decrease stem count
  • testicular atrophy
  • impotence, infertility
  • gynecomastia (breast development

Female:

  • masculinization (voice)
  • hiscutism (body, facial hair)
  • clitoral enhancement
  • menstrual irregularities
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34
Q

What is a prohormone?

A
  • a precursor of a hormone, a prehomrone
  • ie: androstenedione which is a precursor of testosterone
    estrogen has estrone as precursor
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35
Q

What do manufacturers claim of prohormones do?

A
  • will improve blood [test]
  • increase muscular strength
  • Increase muscle mass and size
  • help decrease body fatness
  • help sexual performance
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36
Q

Why were androstenedione use banned in 2004?

A

Their chronic use may increase the risk of:

  • CVD
  • impaired liver function
  • gynomastia in me
  • breast cancer in women
  • pancreatic cancer in men
  • prostate cancer inmen
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37
Q

What did research who do supplementation in healthy young/middle/older men of androstenedione?

A
  • no result of increased [test]
  • no muscle mass or strength or body comp
  • actual decrease in HDL which would increase risk of CVD
  • resulted in significant increase in estrogen, estrone, estradiol []
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38
Q

Describe the Kicma and all research experiment?

A

-showed increase in testosterone in women

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39
Q

Describe creatine?

A
  • is a nutritional supplement
  • first used in 1992
  • composed of AA 9met, arg, gly)
  • important for short duration, high intensity exercise
  • is a substrate for ATP formation
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40
Q

What are sources of creatine?

A

Endogenous: synthesized by liver, kidney, pancreas
Exogenous: meat and fish

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41
Q

Where is creatine stored?

A
  • in skeletal muscles (98%) 40% as creatine, 60% as creatine phosphate
  • heart
  • brain
  • testes
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42
Q

What is the recommended dosage of creatine?

A

Two methods:

Loading:

  • initial 20g/day for 4-5 days, will increase in 20% muscle
  • maintenance dose: 2g/day

No-loading:
- 3G/day will also give rise to 20% increase but slower

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43
Q

At recommended exogenetic effect will bring?

A

Improved repetitive performance

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44
Q

Describe caffeine, its sources etc?

A
  • known as 1,3,7 trimethylxanthine
  • is CNS stimulant
  • has diuretic effects (increases urination)
  • is the most widely ingested psychoactive drug
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45
Q

What are sources of caffeine?

A
  • caffe, teas, cocoa, cola nuts cola drinks, guarana
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46
Q

Is caffeine ergogenic?

A

Yes, as it increases performance of p.a

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47
Q

What are side effects of chronic use?

A
  • dépendance
  • tolerance
  • drug craving
  • withdrawal symptoms (headache, fatigue, decreased energy, anxiety, nausea, vomiting
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48
Q

Describe erythropoietin

A
  • hormone released by kidneys when oxygenation is decreased
  • acts on BM to increase RBC which will increase hB and oxygen carrying capacity
  • wil improve VO2 max and CVE exercise and performance
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49
Q

What are the risks of using EPO?

A
  • increase viscosity of blood + dehydration
  • hypertension
  • stroke
  • heart atttack
  • heart failure
  • pulmonary Edema (fluid in lungs)
  • flu-like symptoms
  • hyperkalemia (increases [k] higher than normal)
  • death
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50
Q

What are the different steps to developing a fitness plan?

A
1- set goals
2- select activities
3- set a target FITT principle
4- set up system of mini-goals and rewards
5- include lifestyle P.A in your program
6- develop tools for monitoring
7- make a commitment
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51
Q

how should the “set goals” step be ?

A
  • can be general or long term (ie: decrease risk of chronic disease, increase energy)
  • can be specific or short term ( increases VO2max by 10%, lower BMIA of 26 to 24.5
  • have SMART goals (specific, measurable, attainable, realistic, time-frame specific
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52
Q

What is necessary in order to set goals?

A

Need an assessment test

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53
Q

How often should you measure progress?

A

Every 3 months

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54
Q

how should you select activities for your fitness plan? What are two strategies?

A
  • best to have exercise that develop all health related components:
  • CVE, muscular strength, muscular endurance, flexibility, Heath body composition

First strategy:
- select one activity for each component of Physical fitness

Second strategy:

  • cross training
  • use several different activities to develop a particular physical component 9ie: for CVE; running, cycling, swimming
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55
Q

What are the factors to consider when selecting exercise for fitness plan?

A
  • fu and interest
  • current skills and level of fitness
  • time/convenience
  • special health needs
  • most popular is walking
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56
Q

What are the FITT principle recommendations for CVE

A

F: 3-5 days/wk

I: 57 / 64-95% MHR
30/ 40-89 HRR

T: 20-60 min in 10 min or more

T: continuous rhythmic activities using large muscle groups

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57
Q

Name FITT principles for resistance

A

F: 2-3 non cons days/wk

I: sufficient to fatigue muscles

T: 8-12 reps/exercise, 1 or more set

T: For all major muscle groups 8-10 exercises

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58
Q

What is FITT for flexibility training?

A

F: 2-3 days/wk min
5-7 days/wk max

I: stretch to discomfort

T: 2-4 reps/exercise held for 10-30 seconds

T: stretching exercise for all major joints

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59
Q

PHAC says what about CVE T (from FITT) about when benefits occur?

A

Must have at least 150 min/wk of mod int.

Or 75 min/wk of rig. Intensity

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60
Q

What are minigoals and rewards system?

A

To break the goals into mini goals (several steps) and have a target date for each with a reward

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61
Q

How to monitor progress?

A

Develop tools such as a record of daily progress (reps, time etc.)

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62
Q

How does the commitment occur?

A
  • make a contract with info and sign it
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63
Q

What are guidelines to put your plan into action?

A
  • start slow, increase fitness
  • find buddy
  • ask for support
  • vary activities (crosstraining)
  • cycle duration/intensity of workout
  • adapt to changing env. & schedule
  • expect fluctuations and lapses
  • choose other healthy lifestyle behaviours
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64
Q

Describe what cross-training is and how it Helps

A
  • Can prepare you for wider range of activities and challenges
  • Helps to develop balanced total body fitness
  • help to build upper + lower body
  • decreased risk of injury and overtraining
  • can alter on different days or within single workout
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65
Q

What are the guidelines for exercising in children (5-11) and adolescent (12-17)

A
  • they need a lot of exercise daily
  • minimize sedentary life
  • min 60 min of mod-Vit intensity aerobic P.A / day
  • choose dynamic family outings
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66
Q

If under 12yrs old what should be emphasized?

A

Emphasize skill development & fitness rather than excellence and competitive sports

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67
Q

If adolescent what should be emphasized?

A
  • combine participation and training in lifetime sports
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68
Q

What are guidelines for pregnant woman

A
  • continue a mild to moderate routine 3 or more times / week (HR of 100-160
  • use ratings of perceive exertion instead of HR (should be 11-13)
  • favor non or low-weight bearing
  • during first semester -> drink lots o fluids and exercise in well ventilated areas
  • after birth (resume exercise routine gradually)
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69
Q

What should be avoided in exercise for pregnant women?

A
  • vigorous until exhaustion (especially 3rd trimester)
  • avoid supine positions that can cut blood flow (after first trimester)
  • prolonged motionless standing
  • exercise with loss of balance (esp. 3rd)
  • exercise that may injure abdomen, stress joint and carry risk of fall (ie: contact sports, skiing)
  • exercise involving extremes in barometric pressures (diving, climbing)
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70
Q

What exercise is recommended for preventing incontinente and speedy after birth recovery?

A
  • performing 3-5 sets of 10 kegel daily

- involves tightening of muscles of pelvic floor for 5-15 secs

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71
Q

What are exercise reco (CVE, flex, strength, balance) for older adults (over 65yrs old)?

A

CVE:
- 150min or more of mod to vig/ week

Strength:

  • activities involving major group muscles
  • 2 or more days/ week for at least 10 min

Flexibility:
- 2 or more days/week for at least 10 min

Balance training:
- two days per week

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72
Q

What should older adults do in their fitness exercise?

A
  • drink adequate amounts of water
  • avoid exercise in too hot or cold
  • warm up slowly
  • do as much as you can
  • increase intensity/duration gradually
  • cool down slowly until HR is under 100 bpm
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73
Q

What are the recommendations for the most popular activity of walking? To lose weight without any other adjustment

A

30 min, 5x per week:

- results in loss of 2.5kg in 6-12 months, without dieting and exercise intensity

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74
Q

What is reco for waking to promote wellness?

A
  • walk at moderate intensity(9-10km/hr) for 150-300 min/wk
    OR
  • jog (at 70% of effort or more) for 75-150 min/wk
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75
Q

What is speed of walking?
Jogging?
Running?

A

Walk - <8km

Jog - 8-12

Run - pace above jogging

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76
Q

What are the major forms of CVD?

A
1- atherosclerosis
2- heart disease and heart attacks
3- stroke
4- congestive heart failure
5- hypertension
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77
Q

What is atherosclerosis?

A
  • disease in which inner layers of the artery walls are made thick and irregular by deposits of fatty substance (plaque)
  • is slow, progressive hardening and narrowing of arteries by plaque (deposits of fat, cholesterol and other subst.)
  • atherosclerosis is a form of arteriosclerosis
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78
Q

What are the main risk factors of atherosclerosis?

A
  • cigarette
  • physical inactivity
  • high [cholesterol]
  • high B.P
  • diabetes mellitus
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79
Q

What are health consequences of atherosclerosis?

A
  • coronary heart disease (CHD)
  • angina lector is
  • heart attack (myocardial infarctus - MI)
  • stroke (Cerebral vascular accident - CVA)
  • decreased supply of blood and O2 to other organs/tissues
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80
Q

what intermittent claudication?

A
  • occurs in periphery -> calf hurts and then goes away

- temporary decrease of blood supply to tissue

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81
Q

What is coronary heart disease?

A

When coronary arteries are susceptible to plaque buildup

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82
Q

What is angina pectoris?

A
  • a lack of blood supply to heart which results in chest pain
  • is NOT a heart attack
  • can be stable or unstable
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83
Q

What is a heart attack

A
  • caused by blockage of coronary arteries
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84
Q

What is a stroke?

A

Caused by blockage of cerebral artery or ruptured blood vessel

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85
Q

What are the different heart diseases / heart attacks?

A
  • coronary thrombosis: a heart attack caused by a blood clot in one of the coronary arteries supplying blood to heart
  • angina pectoris (tightness of chest, heavy pressure, breastbone, shoulder neck arm)
  • arrhythmia: irregularity in force of rhythm of heart beat. Too quick, too slow or in irregular fashion
  • sudden cardiac death (cardiac arrest)
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86
Q

What are sudden cardiac death caused by?

A

Ventricular fibrillation (an arrhythmia)

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87
Q

What are the symptoms before a sudden cardiac arrest?

A

No signs really excep fainting

- 1 hr before, may have chest pain, nausea, shortness of breath

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88
Q

What do you do if sudden cardiac arrest occur?

A
  • call 911
  • CPR
  • automated external defibrillator (AED)
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89
Q

What are the most common symptoms of heart attack?

A
  • chest discomfort
  • upper body discomfort (arms, chest, jaw, shoulders)
  • shortness of breath (can occur before or with chest pains)
  • others: cold sweats, light headed, dizziness
    • not all heart attack involve pains (women feel other symptoms)
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90
Q

Describe chest discomfort?

A
  • center or left
  • may stay or leave and come back
  • pressure squeezing feeling
  • can feel like heart burn or indigestion
  • can be mild or severe
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91
Q

how do women symptoms differ in heart attacks them men?

A
  • most likely to have other sings, such as shortness of breath, unusual fatigue, cold sweats, nausea, vomiting, pain back, shoulder
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92
Q

how can you diagnose a heart disease?

A
  • exercise stress test + ECG
  • MRI
  • electron beam computed tomography (EBC)
  • echocardiogram
  • angiogram
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93
Q

What are treatment of heart diseases?

A
  • low fat diet
  • reg exercise
  • smoking cessation
  • take aspirin daily (81mg)
  • prescription drugs
  • balloon angioplasty
  • implantation of coronary stents
  • coronary bypass surgery
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94
Q

What is a stroke?

A
  • occurs when blood supply to brain is cut off
  • can cause permanent disability or be fatal:
  • paralysis, walking disability, speech imp, memory loss, change in behavior
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95
Q

What are the two major types of strokes?

A
Ischemic stroke (80%)
hemorrhagic stroke (20%)
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96
Q

Describe an ischemic stroke and the two different types?

A

Is a blockage of a vessel. Can be:
1- thrombotic stroke:
- blood clot formed in brain - in cerebral or carotid artery which has been narrowed by atherosclerosis

2- embolic stroke: caused by embolus - wondering blood clot that is carried by blood stream and gets wedged in cerebra; artery

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97
Q

Describe hemorrhagic stroke and two types

A

When a blood vessel in brain burst, spilling blood into surrounding tissue

1- intracerebral hemorrhage: blood vessel ruptures within the brain

2- subarachnoid hemorrhage: blood vessel on the brain surface ruptures and bleeds into space between brain and skull

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98
Q

What are signs and symptoms of a stroke?

A
  • sudden numbness or weakness of face, arms, legs -> especially one side)
  • sudden confusion, trouble speaking, understanding speech
  • trouble seeing
  • trouble walking, dizziness, loss of balance
  • sudden severe headache
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99
Q

What are effective treatment of stroke?

A
  • quick recognition of sighs
  • correct diagnosis of type
  • use clot dissolving and antihypertensive drugs (TPA - which will break down clot. Must be used within 3 hrs, maybe 4.5 hrs new research)
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100
Q

What are silent strokes?

A
  • do not cause noticeable symptoms
  • leave victims at higher risk for more serious strokes
  • contributes to loss of mental and cognitive skills
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101
Q

What are transient ischemic attack (TIA)

A
  • same signs as stroke
  • symptoms usually less than 1-2 hrs but up to 24 hrs
  • may occur once or more often
  • usually warning sign that more are coming
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102
Q

Describe congestive heart failure

A

Results in heart inability to pump all blood that returns to it because heart cannot maintain a regular heart rate and force
- consequences: fluid back up in body resulting in edema (legs, ankles, sometimes lungs)

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103
Q

What is edema?

A

Occurs when capillaries leak fluid

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104
Q

What are factors that can damage the hearts pumping mechanism?

A
  • high blood pressure
  • heart attack
  • atherosclerosis
  • viral infection
  • rheumatic fever
  • birth defects
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105
Q

What are treatments for congestive heart failure?

A
  • decrease workload on heart
  • modify salt intake
  • drugs to help eliminate fluid
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106
Q

What are risk factors for CVD? What are the three categories?

A

Controllable (lifestyle factors + health)

Uncontrollable (health)

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107
Q

What are the controllable lifestyle risk factors for CVD?

A
1- tobacco use
2- unhealthy weight
3- physical inactivity
4- unhealthy diet
5- stress
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108
Q

What are health related controllable risk factors

A
  • high blood pressure
  • cholesterol levels
  • diabetes mellitus
  • atrial defibrillation
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109
Q

Describe how tobacco use affect risks for CVD?

A
  • risk increases with length, intensity and exposure
  • 70% more chance of dying fro CVD
  • double risk of cervical cancer for women
  • second hand smoking also bad
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110
Q

how does tobacco damage cv system?

A
  • damages lining of arteries
  • decreases HDL, increases LDL
  • increase triglycerides
  • increases BP and HR
  • CO displaces O2 in blood
  • causes platelets to stick together (clotting)
  • speed development of fatty deposits in arteries
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111
Q

How does an unhealthy weight affect risk of CVD?

A
2-3x more risk of CVD in obese ppl
excess weight:
- puts strain on heart = high BP
- high cholesterol
- type II diabetes
- abdominal obesity
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112
Q

how does physical inactivity affect CVD risk

A
  • 60 % of Canadian are sedentary
  • exercise lowers risk by:
  • decreases BP
  • increases HDL
  • maintaining desirable weight
  • improve blood vessel conditions
  • prevent type II
  • contra diabetes
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113
Q

How can drug and alcohol abuse affect CVD?

A
  • stimulant drug can cause H.A, stroke, sudden cardiac death (cocaine, ecstasy, methamphetamine)
  • injected drug can cause infections
  • increase alcohol can cause increase risk of heart disease and stroke
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114
Q

how does high blood pressure affect risk of CVD?

A

it increases risk of

  • Heart attacks
  • congestive heart failures
  • stroke
  • kidney failure
  • blindness
  • most controllable risk factor for stroke!
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115
Q

What are recommended changes for high blood pressure?

A
  • decrease weight
  • regular p.a
  • a healthy diet with fruits, whole grains, rich in vit. K, ca, fibre (DASH)
  • low sodium
  • mod alcohol consumption
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116
Q

What is the health canada guidelines fo sal consumption?

A

AI: 1500 mg/day
TUL: 2300 mg/day

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117
Q

What are cholesterol levels? What do they do in body?

A
  • fatty / waxy substance that circulates through bloodstream

- important component of: cell membrane, sex hormones, vit. D, fluid that coats lunc=gas, myelin sheath around nerves

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118
Q

What can excess cholesterol cause?

A
  • can clog arteries and increase risk of CVD
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119
Q

how do our bodies obtain cholesterol?

A

Liver production:

  • 80% of total body cholesterol
  • ingesting high saturated and trans F.A increase liver production of cholesterol

Food:

  • 20% of cholesterol
  • comes from animal source
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120
Q

What are lipoproteins?

A
  • are carriers of lipids (cholesterol, TAG, phospholipids) in human body
  • composed of all three + proteins
  • exists in a variety of forms
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121
Q

What are the different forms of lipid carriers?

A
  • chylomicrons
  • very low density lipoproteins (VLDLs)
  • low density lipoproteins (LDL)
  • high density lipoproteins (LDL)
122
Q

Describe chylomicrons?

A
  • synthesized in small intestine after meal
  • transports dietary lipids from small I. To blood to various tissues (adipose, msucle,liver)
  • goes in lymphatic system
123
Q

Describe VLDL?

A
  • lipoproteins synthesized in liver to transport endogenous lipids to various tissues of body
124
Q

Describe LDL?

A
  • Formed in liver by breaking down VLDLs
  • transport cholesterol from liver to organs that need it
  • bad cholesterol because excess amounts is deposited in blood vessels ie: arteries and may then be oxidized by free radicals resulting in inflammation/damage
125
Q

Describe HDL?

A
  • formed mainly in liver
  • transports cholesterol from body;s tissue back to liver for recycling or excretion
  • “good cholesterol”
126
Q

A high risk for CVD includes?

A
  • high total cholesterol
  • high LDL
  • low HDL
  • high triglyceride blood []
127
Q

How do you improve cholesterol levels?

A
  • > primary goals: reduce LDL to healthy levels
  • choose unsaturated over saturated and trans F.T
  • increase soluble fibre intake
  • fruits, veggies, whole grain
  • consume plant Stanton’s ad plat sterols
  • soy protein
  • exercise regularly
  • > supplemental goal: raise HDL
  • exercise reg.
  • lose weight
  • no smoking
  • alter amount and type of dietary fat
128
Q

Which lipoprotein is synthesized in the liver to transport endogenous cholesterol to various tissues of body?

A

VLDL

129
Q

Which lipoprotein is formed in liver and transports cholesterol from body back to liver for recycling or excretion?

A

HDL

130
Q

How does diabetes mellitus increase risk of CVD?

A

Increased glucose can damage lining of arteries and therefore more vulnerable to atherosclerosis

131
Q

Name the different types of diabetes and describe them?

A

Type I:

  • insulin dependent
  • juvenile onset <30yrs
  • 5-10% of diab
  • is acute
  • decrease B cells which secrete insulin
  • results in frequent ketoacidosis

Type 2:

  • non insulin dependent
  • 90-95%
  • adult onset (now over 25yrs)
  • slow
  • linked to obesity

Gestational diabetes
- 2-5 % of pregnancy

Other types that result from:

  • specific genetic syndromes
  • surgery, drugs,malnutrition, infection
132
Q

What is a normal, impaired and diabetic level of glucose in blood?

A

Normal < 5.6
Impaired 5.6<7
Diabetic >7

133
Q

Why are risks increase if diabetic for CVD?

A
  • increase blood glucose
  • atherosclerosis
  • hypertension
  • obesity
  • unhealthy cholesterol and triglycerides level
  • platelet/blood clotting
134
Q

Describe atrial defibrillation?

A
  • Type of arrhythmia
  • most common
  • risk increased with age
  • can lead to stroke/heart failure
  • can lead to tachycardia >150 bpm
  • resp for 1/4 of all stroke at >40yrs
135
Q

What are the uncontrollable risk factors for CVD?

A
  • hereditary (unfavourable sets of genes, modifiable by lifestyle)
  • aging (> 65 higher risk of H.A, >55 30% higher risk of stroke)
  • being a male (women until 50 are protected by estrogen)
  • ethnicity (First Nation and inuits have higher rates of CVD)
  • Inflammation
136
Q

how does inflammation play a role in CVD?

A
  • occur when artery is injured such as in smoking, hypertension, high total or LDL levels.
  • can be measured by CRP protein test (c-reactive protein)
  • high CRP increase risk for H.A + stroke (also harmful for arteries)
  • gum disease can influence progress of Hear disease
137
Q

What are the possible risk factors currently being studied?

A
  • elevated homocysteine levels
  • severe Vit. D deficiency (associated with heart dysfunction)
  • infectious agents (chlamydiae, CMV, helicobacter)
  • Gum disease (gingivitis - inflamed gums)
  • fibrinogen (proteins involved in clotting, high levels believed to be marker for CVD)
138
Q

how does elevated homocysteine affect CVD?

A
  • AA that may damage lining of blood vessel
  • levels are higher in men>women
  • higher in those with diets low in folic acid, vit b12, vit b6
  • levels can be lowered by eating fruits, veggies, supplements and grains
139
Q

how to protect yourself vs CVD?

A
  • eat heart earthy diet
  • exercise regularly
  • avoid tobacco
  • know and manage blood pressure
  • develop ways to handle stress and anger
  • know your risk factors
140
Q

What is a heart healthy diet?

A
  • decrease fat and cholesterol
  • increase fiber intake (soluble fiber)
  • decrease sodium, increase K
  • mod. Alcohol consumption
  • DASH to stop hypertension
141
Q

What is the cholesterol/ fat consumption tolerance for all Canadians vs. Ppl with risks?

A

All:

  • total fat: not more than 30% of TDCalories
  • sat fat: Not morethan 1/3 of total fat = 10%

Ppl at risk:

  • T.F: 25-35%
  • sat fat. Less than 7% of total DC
142
Q

why are soluble fibers important in diet?

A

Traps bile the liver needs to make cholesterol

  • is associated with 40-50% decrease in risk
  • need 25-38 g
143
Q

What is the reco for K+

A

4700 mg/day

144
Q

What is the reco for sodium?

A

For healthy:
TUL: 2300mg/day

Hypertensive ind.:
1500 mg/day

145
Q

What is reco for alcohol consumption

A

M- not more than 2 drinks/ day
W - no more than 1 drink per day

This will increase HDL and decrease stroke risk

146
Q

how often should you measure you BP?

A

If not at risk: once every 2 years
If at risk: yearly
If high: followed by physician

147
Q

How often should you get your lipoprotein profile verified? What is the LDL goal?

A

If above 20 yrs -> every 5 years

LDL goal depends on risk factors such as smoking, high BP, history etc.

148
Q

What is stress?

A
  • Collective physiological and emotional response to any stimulus that disturb homeostasis
  • general physical and emotional state that accompanies
149
Q

What i homeostasis?

A
  • state os stability and consistency of ind. physiological functioning.
  • state that pH, body temp,
  • range are all maintained
150
Q

What is a stressor. What are types?

A
  • any physical or psychological event or condition that produces physical and emotional rxn
  • a situation that triggers physical and emotional runs

Eustress and distress

151
Q

What is a stress response?

A
  • physiological changes associated with stress

The physicals motion also rxn to a stressor

152
Q

What systems are activated in a stress response?

A

The nervous system and the endocrine system

153
Q

What are the different organizations of the. Nervous system?

A
  • CNS (brain and spinal cord) and PNS (afférent and efferent)
    afferent
    -somatic SN and visceral SN.

Efferent

  • autonomic N.S (automatic)
  • somatic N.S (voluntary)

Autonomic has:
- parasympathetic and sympathetic

154
Q

What is the role of parasympathetic NS?

A
  • moderate excitatory effects of sympathetic
  • slows metabolism and restores energy
  • in control when relaxed
  • aids in digestion, storing food, promoting growth
155
Q

what are examples of effects of parasympathetic NS?

A
  • constrict pupils
  • decrease HR
  • constrict bronchi
  • stimulate peristalsis
  • constrict bladder
156
Q

What is the role of sympathetic NS?

A
  • reacts to danger and other challenges by increasing body processes
  • activated during arousal (exercise, emergencies)
  • nerves use NE to exert their effects
  • commands the body to mobilize all energy resources to respond to crisis
157
Q

What are examples of effects of sympathetic?

A
  • dilates pupils
  • increase HR
  • dilate bronchi
  • stops digestion
  • relaxes bladder (why want to pee when stressed)
158
Q

What is the role of the endocrine system?

A

Is a target of the Sumpathetic N.S

  • is a system of glands/tissues and cells that secrete hormones and other chemical messenger in blood stream that influence metabolism and processes
  • release from adrenal gland (cortisol, epinephrine, NE)
  • helps prepare body
159
Q

Where is ACTH released from?

A

Pituitary gland and informs adrenal cortex to release cortisol

160
Q

What is the fight to flight reaction?

A
  • Defense reaction that prepare for conflict by triggering hormonal, CV, metabolic and other changes
161
Q

What are the fight or flight pathways?

A

Endocrine:
Stressor -> hypothalamus -> pituitary gland -> ACTH -> adrenal glands

NS pathway:
Stressor -> brai > autonomic NS -> adrenal gland

162
Q

how does one return to homeostasis?

A
  • Peripheral N.S takes command when stressful situation stops
  • initiates adjustments necessary
  • calms body
  • decreases HR and BP
  • dries sweaty palms
  • returns to normal breathing
163
Q

What can influence how one reacts to a stressor?

A

The cognitive appraisal

164
Q

What are two factors that can reduce magnitude of stress response?

A
  • successful prediction of stressor

- perception of having control

165
Q

What are behavioural response to stressors contrôle by?

A
  • somatic NS and is under conscious control
166
Q

What are effective Behavioural responses?

A
  • talking, laughing, exercising, mediating, learning time-management skills
167
Q

What are ineffective behavioural responses

A
  • overheating
  • expressing hostility
  • tobacco, drugs, alcohol
168
Q

What are common emotional responses to stressors?

A
  • anxiety
  • Depression
  • fear
169
Q

What is a personality?

A
  • sum of behavioural and emotional tendencies
  • affects how ppl perceive and react to stress
  • what affects personality:
  • > personality type
  • > hardiness
  • > resilience
170
Q

What are the different personality types?

A

A - ultra competitive, impatient, aggressive -> increase heart disease

B- relaxed, more tolerant, less frustrated

C- difficulty expressing emotion, hopelessness, exaggerated response to stress

D- Tends towards neg emotional state (anxiety, depression) avoids socialization. Worry of others

171
Q

What is hardiness?

A
  • Particular form of optimism
  • one sees challenges as opportunity to grow and learn
  • perceives less situations as stressful also less intense
172
Q

What is resilience?

A
  • personality traits associated with social/academic success in groups at risk for stress (low income, phys. disability)
  • associated with emotional intelligence
  • 3 basic types
173
Q

What are the three basic types of resilience?

A

1- non reactive resilience
2-homeostatic resilience (returns to baseline quickly)
3- positive growth resilience (person learns. And grows from experience)

174
Q

What are the total response to stress (as a whole)

A

Physical:

  • dry mouth
  • gridding teeth
  • headaches
  • HBP
  • pounding heart

Emotional:

  • anxiety
  • depression
  • irritability
  • fatigue

Behavioural

  • Craig
  • trouble sleeping
  • trouble eating
  • sexual
  • social isolation
175
Q

The more intense the ____ response the more intense the ___ response

A

Emotional

Physical

176
Q

what is the general adaptation syndrome (GAS)?

A
  • developper by Hans Selye
  • used to describe a universal/predictable response to all stressors
  • can be applied to Eustress and distress
  • has three stages
177
Q

What are the 3 stages of the GAS?

A

Stage 1: alarm stage

  • activation of sympathetic and endocrine system
  • fight to flight reaction
  • body is susceptible to disease and injury

Stage 2: resistance or adaptation stage

  • body develop new level of homeostasis when prolonged stress
  • more resistant to disease/jury than normal

Stage 3: exhaustion
- if stressor persist or too many stressors will result in exhaustion

178
Q

What is allostatic load?

A
  • long term wear and tear of stress response
  • is the increase susceptibility to disease after repeated prolonged stress -> due to effect of stress response itself
  • depends on many factors (genetic, life experiences, emotional/behavioural response)
179
Q

A high allostatic load may be due to?

A
  • frequent stressor
  • poor adaptation to common ones
  • inability to shut down stress response
  • imbalances in stress responses
180
Q

high A.L is linked to?

A
  • heart disease
  • increase HBP
  • obesity
  • decrease brain and immune functioning
181
Q

What are specific conditions that stress can affect?

A
  • immune system
  • disease and inflammation (MS, heart, Type II)
  • CVD
  • others: digestive problems, tension headache, insomnia, menstrual irregularities, impotence, psychological problems
182
Q

how can stress affect the immune system?

A
  • lowers its ability to fight, vulnerable to colds/infection
  • asthma/allergy
  • susceptible to cancer
  • flare up of chronic diseases
183
Q

What results from chronic stress?

A

Prolonged exposure to cortisol levels which may accelerate course of disease that induce inflammation (MS, heart, type II)

184
Q

What increases risk of CVD

A

Certain types of emotional response

185
Q

What are common sources of stress?

A
  • major life changes
  • daily hassles
  • university/college stressor
  • job related stresses or
  • relationships & stress
186
Q

how to manage stress?

A
  • exercise
  • nutrition
  • sleep
  • communication (through self-disclosure, listening, feedback)
  • conflict resolution
  • strategies to improve time-management skills
  • cognitive techniques
  • relaxation techniques
187
Q

what are the recommendation for sleep and why is it good?

A
7-9 hours
 To improve:
- mood
- feelings of competence, self-worth
- increase mental functioning
  • lack can be both cause and effect
188
Q

What are consequence of sleep deprivation?

A
  • slows response of stress hormone
  • decrease mental/physical processes
  • irritability/headaches
  • more forgetful
  • increase risk of suicide
189
Q

What are extreme symptômes of sleep deprivation?

A

Hallucination/ psychotic

Increase heart attack risk

190
Q

What are basic négociation strategies?

A
  • clarify issue
  • what each want
  • decide how to negotiate
  • solidify agreement
  • review, renegociate
191
Q

What are strategies to improve time-management skills

A
  • set priorities
  • schedule tasks
  • set realistic goals
  • keep track
192
Q

What are cognitive techinques for?

A

To reduce stress by breaking negative impact of ideas/beliefs to reduce:

  • focusing on negative
  • expecting the worst
  • minimizing achievements
  • blaming others
  • expecting perfections
193
Q

What are techniques to break negative impacts of beliefs?

A

1- monitor yourself talk (attempts to decrease hostile, critical thoughts)
2- modify expectations (take life as it comes)
3- live in present
4- go with the flow (what you cant change)
5- cultivate sense of humour (healthy laughter)

194
Q

What is a relaxation technique used for?

A

To reach a physiological state characterized by feeling of warmth and quiet mental alertness

195
Q

Who identified the relaxation response?

A

Hebert Benson

196
Q

What is the relaxation response?

A
  • opposite of F or F
  • characterized by:
  • > decrease HR, breathing, metabolism
  • > increase blood flow to brain and skin
  • > shift in brain waves from beta to alpha
197
Q

What are the relaxation techniques to achieve relaxation response

A
  • progressive relaxation
  • visualization
  • deep breathing
  • listening to music
  • meditation
  • others: (biofeedback, hypnosis -selfhyp, massage, Hathaway yoga, taijiquan (tai chi)
198
Q

Describe the progressive relaxation technique (deep muscle relax)

A
  • involves tensing and relaxing muscles one by one
  • alternating muscle tension relaxation
  • inhale -contract / exhale-relax
  • .> consciously relaxing sends message to other body system to decrease their stress response
199
Q

Describe visualization (imagery)

A

Creates or recreates mental pictures of place or experience

200
Q

Describe deep breathing

A
  • deep, slow association with relaxation
  • rapid shallow is associated with stress response
  • for relaxation: more belly breathing, tension -release breathing
201
Q

what is meditation wha are the two general types?

A

“Self-reflective thought”
- involves quieting the mid to achieve deep relaxation
1- exclusive meditation
- focus on single word/though and eliminate others
- easier

2- inclusive meditation
- mind is allowed to wonder uncontrolled from thought to thought

202
Q

What is biofeedback?

A
  • help ppl reduce stress response by having them made aware of their level of physical arousal
  • some measure of stress (skin, sweat) is monitored
  • objective is to transfer what is learned to biofeedback to life
203
Q

Describe Hathaway yoga

A

Means: “union of mind, body and soul

  • developed system of physical postures, called asanas designed to cleanse body, unlock energy path and increase level of consciousness
  • increases strength, flexibility and stress relief
204
Q

Describe taijiquan?

A
  • martial art dev. In china
  • movements are called forms -> slow gradual graceful acne that mimics animals
  • promotes:
  • > relaxation/concentration
  • dev. Of body awareness, balance, muscular strength and endurance and flexibility
205
Q

What are counterproductive strategies for coping with stress?

A

unhealthy coping technique such as:

  • alcohol
  • tobacco
  • other drugs
  • binge eating
206
Q

how else can you deal with stress?

A
  • getting help:
  • > peer & support groups
  • professional (psychiatrist, psychologist)
207
Q

When is emotional response to stress considered serious?

A
  • if depression, anxiety interferes with school/ work performance
  • suicide attempts/ consideration
  • hallucination, delusions, loss of memory
  • alcohol/drug impair normal functioning - > experiencing withdrawal
208
Q

What is the second leading cause of death in 15-25?

A

Suicide

209
Q

What are symptoms of depression?

A
  • negative self concept
  • pervasive feelings of sadness/hopelessness
  • loss of pleasure
  • loss of appetite/weight loss
  • insomnia/ disturbed sleep
  • restlessness/fatigue
  • thought of worthlessness/guilt
  • thoughts of death/ suicide
210
Q

What is them ost common cause of death in canada?

A

Cancer

211
Q

What % of caner death could have been avoided and by changing what?

A
  • over 60%
  • by change of lifestyle such as tobacco smoking which is 1/3 of cancer deaths
  • diet/exercise and relationship to cancer death also 1/3
212
Q

what is cancer?

A
  • abnormal, uncontrollable growth of cells which if untreated can lead to death
213
Q

What is a tumour? What are the types?

A
  • benign tumor:
  • > non- cancerous, not capable of spreading
  • > composed of cells similar to surrounding normal cell and enclosed in membrane preventing penetration of neighbouring tissues

Malignant tumor:

  • cancerous, capable of spreading
  • capable of invading surrounding structures (blood vessel, lymph, nerves)
214
Q

how does a tumor spread?

A
  • through metastasis - spreading of one part to the next
  • > primary tumor
  • > secondary tumor (cancer cells that have spread)
215
Q

how does metastasis develop?

A

1- mutation
2- hyperplasia (reproduce too much -> then further mutation)
3- dysphasia (when irregular shape and increase in production)
4- malignant: if tumor beings invading underlying tissues

216
Q

What are the main causes of cancer?

A
1- genetic factors - role of DNA
2- tobacco use
3- dietary factors
4- obesity and inactivity
5- carcinogens in environement
217
Q

What is the basic unit of hereditary, which some control cell division and play critical role in developing cancer?

A

Genes

218
Q

What is a mutation?

A
  • any change in are up of genes

- can be inherited or environemetally caused 9mutagen

219
Q

What is a mutagen?

A
  • one that cause cancer: carcinogen

- ie: radiation, certain viruses (CMV), chemical substances we breathe

220
Q

What is an oncogene?

A
  • Gene in which. Mutations are associated with conversion of normal cell to cancer cell
  • when undamaged: plays a role in controlling/restricting cell growth - called Tumour Repressor genes
221
Q

What is an example of inherited gene?

A

BCRA1 (breast cancer gene 1)
- increases risk of breast ad ovarian cancer
- most mutations occur after birth
Rare: 5-10% of breast cancer
10-15% of ovarian cancer occur because of mutation. Rest are inherited.

222
Q

What does cancer promote?

A
  • accelerate the growth of cells = less tie fo repair DNA damage
  • do not directly produce mutations, but unable to fix mistakes
  • ie: estrogen that stimulates growth in female reproductive organs
223
Q

Smoking is responsible for % lung cancer and all cancer death?

A

85% of lug cancers and 30% of all cancer death

- include: larynx, mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, pancreas, kidneys, bladder, cervix

224
Q

What dietary factors affect cancer rates?

A

-> dietary fat and Meet
-> alcohol
-> food cooked at high temp
Help:
-> fiber (helps cancer)
-> fruits/ veggies (high evidence_
-> foods with phytochemicals

225
Q

What type of diet can increase risk of colon, prostate, stomach cancer?

A
  • high in fat and meat is associated with colon, prostate, stomach cancer
  • diets favouring omega 6 polyunsaturated are at higher risk
226
Q

What type of risk does alcohol consumption give you?

A
  • increase in breast cancer

- if with alcohol, increased oral cancer

227
Q

Why do foods cooked at high temp dangerous?

A
  • acrylamide which is a probable carcinogen is found at high levels of starch based food that are fried at high temps
228
Q

Has fiber been proven to have cancer fighting abilities?

A

No - but provides positive effects

229
Q

how do fruits and veggies affect cancer?

A
  • high evidence that reduce risks of cancer

- essential nutrients act as antioxidant (vit C,E, carotenoid, selenium)

230
Q

What type of foods have phytochemicals and are good to prevent cancer?

A
  • carotenoid in deep green vegies and orange
231
Q

What is obesity and inactivity associated with?

A
  • colon, breast, endometrial, kidney and prostate cancer
232
Q

Research has shown a relationship btw increase ____ and decrease ___ risk

A

P.A

Cancer

233
Q

What are the different carcinogens in environement that could affect cancer risk?

A
  • ingested chemicals
  • environmental and industrial pollution
  • radiation
  • microbes
234
Q

What type of injested chemicals are dangerous for cancer?

A
  • nitrates/nitrite
  • > found in preservatives
  • > not carcinogens on their own but can combine with chemical in stomach and form nitrosamines which is highly carcinogenic
  • foods cured with nitrite
  • > can cause esophageal cancer and stomach
  • regular exposure to charred meats
235
Q

What is the % of cancer death cause by air/water pollution, vs. Workplace?

A

2% vs. 5% (work place is more important)

236
Q

Radiation?

A

All sources of radiation are potentially carcinogenic

- xrays, radioisotopes, un rays

237
Q

how do microbes affect risk of cancer? What % are cause by them?

A
  • 15% of worlds cancers
  • certain HPV can cause oropharyngael, cervical
  • helicobacter pylori bacterium can cause ulcers, stomach cancer
  • EBV virus, that causes mono may contribute to Hopkins disease, cancer of pharynx and stomach
  • human herpes virus 8 -> linked to sarcome, + certain types of lymphoma
  • hep b and C together may cause 80% of liver cancer
238
Q

Name the different microbes that play a role in cancer?

A
  • HPV
  • helicobacter pylori
  • EBV
  • human herpes virus 8
  • hep b and c
239
Q

Give cancer statistics

A

> 200K diagnosed per year

  • 90% are over 50 yrs
  • 49% (men), 45% in women
240
Q

Wha does incidence mean? Prevalence?

A

New cases of disease

Number of existing cases

241
Q

What are the most common types of cancers?

A
  • lungs
  • colon and rectal
  • breast
  • prostate
242
Q

What is the second leading cause of cancer deaths in males and M/F combined?

A
  • colon & rectal
243
Q

What is the most common type of cancer in women and 2nd leading in cancer death in women?

A

Breast

244
Q

What is the 3rd leading cause of cancer death in male?

A

Prostate

245
Q

What is the first cause of cancer death in male and female?

A

Lung cancer

246
Q

What are the risk factors for lung cancer?

A
  • tobacco smoke
  • long term exposure
  • exposure to asbestos
247
Q

What are lung cancer symptoms?

A
  • cough, chest pain

- usually found at invasive stage

248
Q

What is prognosis for lung cancer?

A

5 yr survival of 17%

249
Q

What is treatment of lung cancer?

A
  • combination of surgery, radiation, chemo
250
Q

What are risk factors for colon and rectal cancer?

A
  • age is major factor ( 90% diag are over 50yrs)
  • preexisting polyps
  • genetics
  • lifestyle factors (inactivity, obesity, red meat, simple sugars, excessive alcohol, smoking)
251
Q

What are symptoms of colon and rectal cancer?

A

Bleeding from rectum

Change in bowel habits

252
Q

What is the 5 yrs survival rate of colon/rectal?

A

90% if early

65% overall

253
Q

how is colon/rectal diagnosed?

A
  • high sensitivity fecal occult blood test (FOBT)
  • > if you are 50-74 -> every 2 years
  • > high risk, tested more
  • if FOBT is positive:
  • Colonoscopy
  • sigmoidoscopy
  • surgery
254
Q

how to prevent colon/rectal cancer?

A
  • oral contraceptive for women
  • diet rich in fruits/veggies whole grain
  • adequate folic acid, ca, mg, vit D
  • regular use of non steroid (ibuprofen, aspirin)
255
Q

What is the 5yr survival rate i breast cancer?

A

Early - 98%

All stages: 88%

256
Q

What are genetic risk factors for breast cancer?

A
  • strong genetic factors
  • early on set mentrusation
  • late menopause
  • not having children
  • having first child after 30
  • using hormone replacement therapy
  • obesity, alcohol,smoking
  • estrogen: promotes cell growth in response to tissues produced by fat cells. Can be increased by alcohol
257
Q

What are symptoms of breast cancer?

A
  • lump
  • thickening
  • irritation, redness, flaky
  • nipple discharge
  • pain, change in size
258
Q

How does breast cancer diagnosis occur?

A
  • 50-74: mammography every 2 years
  • digital mammography which is more accurate
  • breast self-awareness not recommended anymore but be familiar
  • if lump: get biopsies or scanned
259
Q

What are treatment of breast cancer?

A
  • surgery: lumpectomy or mastectomy
  • chemo/radiation
  • drugs: SERMS, heceptin (antibody receptor)
260
Q

How to prevent breast cancer?

A
  • low fat, veggie diet
  • reg exercise
  • limit alcohol
  • body weight
  • increase vit D
261
Q

What are the risk factors in prostate?

A
  • age strong predictor (75% 65 and older)
  • family history
  • inherited genetic predisposition (5-10%)
  • ethnicity
  • diet
  • obesity
  • sexually transmitted
  • type II diabetes
262
Q

What is the 5 yr survivalof prostate cancer?

A

100 all stages

263
Q

What is diagnosis of prostate cancer?

A
  • rectal examination
  • ultrasound
  • biopsy
  • protaste specific antigen blood test: can yield false +, talk about it close to 50y, family history, have symptoms
264
Q

What are treatments for prostate cancer?

A

Surgical if malignant

  • radiation
  • alternative + chemo, hormones
265
Q

What are three important cancers in women?

A
  • cervical
  • uterine/endometrial
  • ovarian
266
Q

What is prevalence of cervical cancer?

A
  • in women in their 20-30s

- in part sexually transmitted (HPV)

267
Q

What are risk factors of cervical cancer?

A
  • HPV infection
  • STIs that cause warts
  • prior infection of herpes, chlamydias
  • smoking
268
Q

What is diagnosis of cervical cancer?

A
  • pelvic examination

- Pap test smear (cervical dysplasia)

269
Q

What are treatment for cervical?

A
  • removal of abnormal cells through surgery or ultra cold cryoscopie laser
270
Q

How to prevent cervical cancer?

A
  • paptest if sexually active by 21
  • avoid HPV
  • sexual abstinence
  • monogamous sex
  • codons
  • gardasil vaccine
271
Q

What is uterine/endometrial cancer and what is its prevalence?

A
  • cancer of lining of uterus or endometrial

- in over 55yr

272
Q

What are risk factors to uterine/endometrial?

A

Similar to breast

273
Q

how do you diagnose utérin/endometrial?

A

Pelvic examination

274
Q

What is treatment of uterine/endo?

A
  • surgically (hysterectomy)
  • radiation
  • hormones
  • chemo
275
Q

What are symptoms of ovarian cancer?

A
  • bloating, pelvic abdo, pain
  • difficulty eating, full quickly
  • urinary problems
276
Q

how is ovarian cancer diagnosed?

A
  • no approved screening test
  • often no warming signs and why diagnosed late
  • pelvic exam or transvaginal ultrasound
277
Q

How to prevent ovarian cancer?

A
  • anything that decreases the # of ovulation cycles
  • > pregnancy
  • > breast feeding
  • > oral contraceptives
278
Q

What are risk factors for skin cancer?

A
  • # of sunburnt /also severe as a child
  • suntans
  • being fair skinned
  • family history
  • having any moles
  • high altitude
  • almost all extensive UV exposure
279
Q

Describe UVA/UVB

A

UVA:

  • longer wavelength
  • less likely to cause sunburn
  • damages connective tissue
  • = prématuré agin
  • human carcinogen

UBA:

  • shorter wavelength
  • causes of sunburn
  • damages eye/immune
  • carcinogen
280
Q

What are the main types of skin cancers?

A

1- basal cell carcinoma (in deepest layer of skin)

2- squamous CC (surface layers)
* both are 95% of skin cancers, found in chronically exposed areas,appears in pale wax like, pearly nodules, painless

3- melanoma (ca occur elsewhere in body, common risk areas (back, chest, abdomen, legs) appears at site of preexisting moles

281
Q

What is diagnosis for skin cancer - melanoma?

A

ABCD test

  • A- asymmetry
  • B -border irregularity
  • C - color variation
  • D - diameter larger than 1/2 cm
282
Q

How to prevent skin cancer?

A
  • time of day and location of sun exposure
    -> 10-2 pm
    -> clouds will allo 80% to UV to pass
  • UVs are highly reflective ( snow, water, sand)
  • UVs can penetrate 1 m of water
  • protection
    -> clothing, hat, sunglasses
    -> sunscreen SPF equal or over 15, 30 for fairskin
    — SPF, only UVB are water resistant
    — apply 30 min before exposure
    — reapply every 2 hrs
283
Q

What are neck and head cancers and prevalence?

A
  • oral, pharynx, larynx, nasal cavity

- 2 x more in men than women (as of 40 yrs for men)

284
Q

What are risk factors for neck and head cancers?

A
  • tobacco use

- excessive alcohol

285
Q

What is 5 yr survival head/neck?

A

62%

286
Q

How to treat?

A
  • chemo, surgery, radiation
287
Q

Describe testicular cancer?

A
  • rare
    1% of cancer in men 20-35

Risk factors:

  • age
  • ethnicity (Caucasian>latin, Asia AfA
  • men with undescended testicular

Symptoms:

  • lump, swelling or nodules
  • sudden collection of fluid
  • feeling of heaviness
  • pain

Treatment:

  • surgical
  • chemo
288
Q

Describe pancreatic cancer prevalence and risk factors

A
  • usually advance before it appears
  • no good cure

Risk factors:

  • smoking
  • male
  • African
  • age>60
  • history
  • diabetes
  • obese, P.IN
  • diet high in meat
289
Q

Who is more at risk of bladder cancer?

A

Male>female
Caucasian > African American
Smoking

290
Q

What are symptoms of bladder cancer?

A
  • blood in urine

- increase requency

291
Q

Who is at risk of kidney cancer?

A
  • age > 50
  • smoking
  • obese
  • history
292
Q

What are symptoms of kidney?

A
  • fatigue
  • pain on side
  • blood in usine
293
Q

Describe risk factors, symptoms and treatment of brain cancer?

A
  • commonly dev. For no reason
  • ionizing radiation can be risk

Symptoms

  • headache
  • fatigue
  • behavioural change
  • seizures

Treatment:
- surgery, radiation, chemo

294
Q

Describe leukaemia?

A
  • cancer that starts in bone marrow

- spreads to lymph, sleep, liver, other organs

295
Q

Risk factors?

A
  • smoking
  • radiation
  • certain chemicals
  • infections
296
Q

Symptoms of leukaemia?

A
  • fatigue
  • anemia
  • weight loss
  • infection
297
Q

Describe lymphoma, types and risk factors

A

Begins in lymph nodes

  • two types
  • > HL
  • > NHL (more common, more deadly)

RF:

  • genetics
  • radiation
  • chemicals/infectio
298
Q

How should you help in detecting cancer?

A
  • self- monitoring is the first line of défense (RF, history)
  • inform of specific screening test
299
Q

What are the differen stages of cancer and what do they mean?

A

0: in situ
1: small and contained within organ
2: larger + spread to surrounding tissues (close to lymph nodes)
3: larger + spread to surrounding tissues
4: prend through blood or lymphatic system and started to metastasized

300
Q

What are the different types of treatments for cancer?

A
  • surgery (most effective - less when blood or metastasized)
  • chemo
  • radiation (xray and gamma rays also damage normal cells)
    Others:
  • BM transplant, stem cell, vaccines, gene. Modified immune cells
  • anti angiogenesis agents (starve cancer cells of blood supply)
  • protostomes inhibitors (stops action of malfunction protostomes
  • enzyme activators/blockers (calpase, telomerase)
  • monoclonal antibody (rituximab), created to bind to specific cancer cells
301
Q

what are guidelines to prevent cancer?

A
  • avoid tobacco
  • control diet and weight
  • exercise reg. (Linked to lower rates of colon and others)
  • protect skin from sun
  • avoid env. & occupational carcinogens
302
Q

What are 7 major warming signs of cancer?

A
1- change in bowel/bladder
2- sore that doesn’t heal
3- usual bleeding/discharge
4- thickening or lump in breast or elsewhere
5- indigestion or difficulty swallowing
6- obvious change in wart/mole
7- nagging cough or hoarseness