Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NCTI FINAL > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

When providing artificial respirations on people, what happens?

A
  • Over ventilation can cause an increase in intra-thoracic pressure, causing a decrease in venous return and coronary perfusion.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

First Degree Block

A

If the R is far from the P, you have a first degree

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Second Degree Type 1

A

-long, longer, longer, drop, you have a wenkebach (second degree type 1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Second Degree Type 2

A

-If some of the Ps don’t get though, you then have a second degree type 2 (Mobitz)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Type 3 Heart Block

A

-If the Ps and Qs dont agree, then you have a type 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Pediatric Epiglottitis Signs and Symptoms

A

tripoding, drooling, acute, febrile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Croup Signs and Symptoms

A

Feels better in the cold, seal bark cough, gradual onset, viral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In order to nasal intubate, a patient

A

the Pt must be breathing breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Labor Stage1

A

Cervical dilation, contractions and full dilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Labor Stage 2

A

Full dilation to delivery of the fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Labor Stage 3

A

Delivery of the placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Diabetic Type 1

A

Insulin Dependent Diabetic or Juvenile Diabetic. Hereditary Predisposition. Pancreas fails to produce insulin and require supplemental insulin to control BGLs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Diabetic Type 2

A

Most common form in which BGLs are elevated because the body cannot produce enough insulin to compensate for the inability to utilize insulin effectively.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Diabetic Keto Acidosis

BGL Range

A

BGL of 250-600 mg/dl. Keytones are present. Can be caused by excessive food, insufficient insulin dosage , infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

DKA Respirations may be

A

Pt may have Kussmaul respirations in an attempt to eliminate excessive keytones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which diabetic type will present with DKA

A

Found in type 1 diabetics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A DKA patients end tidal will be

A

They will become hypocapnic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

DKA Signs and Symptoms are

A

Signs and symptoms include thirst and frequent urination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

DKA Treatment includes?

A

Treat w/ fluids to attempt to correct electrolyte imbalance.

treat if Hyperkalemic with Sodium Bicarbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A hyperkalemic DKA patient will show what on their EKG?

A

Observe for peaked T waves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A DKA patient who is bradycardia is given?

A

calcium chloride to antagonize potassium at the receptor site.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A patient with HHNK is what type of Diabetic?

A

Diabetic type 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A patient in HHNK will present with?

A

hyperglycemia, AMS, drowsiness and lethargy, severe dehydration, thirst, dark urine, seizures, paralysis or muscle weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A HHNK patient bgl will be above?

A

600mg/dl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A HHNK patient will be ketonic

True or False

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What happens to a pt end tidal when you hyperventilate them

A

the ETCO2 will decrease, causing hypocapnia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What happens to a pt end tidal when you hypoventilate them

A

the ETCO2 will increase causing hypercapnia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the antidote for a beta blocker overdose

A

Glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the antidote for a calcium channel blocker overdose

A

Calcium Chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the antidote for a Tricyclic Antidepressant Overdose (TCA)

A

Sodium Bicarbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When will a patient show signs of pre eclampsia

A

after the 20th week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What 3 signs will present in a pre-eclamptic patient

A

Edema, Hypertension and Protein in the urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

An eclamptic patient is treated with?

A

Magnesium Sulfate, 1-4 grams over 3 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Magnesium Sulfate is what class of drug

A

An Electrolyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The difference between eclampsia and pre-eclampsia is

A

Seizure activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Rapid infusion of Mag Sulfate may cause

A

respiratory depression, circulatory collapse and hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

An overdose of Mag Sulfate can be treated with

A

Calcium Chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The dose of Calcium Chloride is

A

500mg to 1 gram IV/IO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Terbutaline is what class of drug?

A

Sympathomimetic bronchodilator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

A patient with pregnancy induced asthma can be treated with?

A

Terbutaline .25mg sc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

A patient in preterm labor can receive what to promote uterine relaxation

A

Terbutaline, .25mg SC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Terbutaline can be repeated

A

PRN every 10 to 15 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The max dose of Terbutaline is

A

.5mg in a 4 hour period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The class of Valium is

A

Benzodiazapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Indications of Valium includes

A

Seizures, non respondent to Mag Sulfate.

Anxiety, in a HTN crisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Dosage of valium is

A

5-10mg every 10-15 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The desired dose of Valium should be administered as

A

5mg over 5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The PALS dose of Epi 1:10,000 is

A

0.01mg/kg or 0.1ml/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The PALS dose of Amiodarone for a patient in SVT or VT w/ a pulse is

A

5mg/kg over 20-60 minutes. Max dose is 300mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The PALS dose of Amiodarone for a patient in Pulseless VT or VFib is

A

5mg/kg. Repeat to 15mg/kg max dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The pediatric normal saline bolus dose is?

A

20mg/ kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Initial Pediatric Cardioversion therapy dose is

A

0.5 - 1 joule per kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

If initial pediatric cardioversion is ineffective, subsequent dose is

A

2 joules/ kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How do you treat a nuchal cord

A

Cord wrapped around fetus neck. One of the first things to assess for during birth. Slip your finger under the cord and attempt to slip over the head. If unable, clamp and cut the cord going towards mother.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How do you treat a prolapsed cord

A

Cord emerges ahead of the fetus. Cord can be compressed. Treat urgently. Position supine with hips elevated. Provide O2. Pant with each contraction. Avoid bearing down. Use 2 fingers to lift presenting part off of the cord. Cover with moistened dressing. Maintain position and transport.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How do you treat a Breech Pregnancy

A

A body part (butt) other than the head presents first. Prepare to deliver body, lifting lower limbs towards head. Head should deliver easily. If it doesn’t, form a V with your hands, and push vaginal wall away from the mouth and nose of fetus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How do you treat Shoulder Dystocia

A

Head delivers, but the shoulder can’t get past the symphysis pubis. Pt the patient into the McRoberts position to help widen the vaginal canal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

When intubating a patient and they Brady down, you should?

A

Ventilate them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

For a pediatric in cardiac arrest, first dose of electricity would be

A

2 joules per kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Pediatric cardiac arrest second dose of electricity is

A

4 joules per kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Subsequent pediatric cardiac arrest electrical dosages increase by

A

2 joules per kg

Max dose is 10 joules/ kg or adult dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Becks Triad consists of

A

Muffled Heart Tones, Jugular Venous Distention and Narrowed Pulse Pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Becks Triad is caused by

A

Cardiac Tamponade, as a result of penetrating chest trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Cushings Triad consists of?

A

Slow Pulse, Rising Blood Pressure and Erratic Respiratory patterns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Cushings Triad is caused by

A

Increased Cranial Pressure, found in head injuries or stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What nerves innervates the diaphragm

A

The Phrenic Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How is the Parkland Formula Calculated

A

2-4ml/ kg x body weight x BSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Half of the Parkland formula is given of the first

A

8 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Aerobic Metabolism is

A

Metabolism produced only in the presence of oxygen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Anaerobic Metabolism is

A

Metabolism that occurs without oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

The placenta connects to the fetus via the

A

umbilical cord to the umbilicus or navel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

The umbilical vein carries _________ blood from the placenta to the fetus

A

oxygenated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

The umbilical artery carries __________ blood to the placenta

A

arteriovenous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

The fetus receives oxygen via the

A

placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

The ductus venous connects the umbilical vein and the

A

inferior vena cava

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

The ductus arteriosus connects the pulmonary artery to the

A

aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

The fetus’ right and left atria is separated by the

A

Foramen Ovale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

The class of Pancuronium is

A

Non-Depolarizing neuromuscular blocker/ paralytic agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

The adult dosage of Pancuronium is

A

0.04 to 0.1 mg/kg slow IV, repeated every 30-60 minutes as needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

The pediatric dosage of Pancuronium is

A

0.1 mg/ kg slow IV/ IO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Adverse reactions of Pancuronium include

A

Apnea, weakness, salivation, PVCs, tachycardia; transient hypotension, increased BP; pain, burning at the injection site.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Pancuronium is contraindicated in

A

Hypersensitivity, inability to control airway and support ventilations with oxygen and positive pressure, neuromuscular disease (myasthenia gravis), hepatic or renal failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Vecuronium is what class of drug

A

Paralytic Agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

The initial dose of Vecuronium in an adult is

A

0.1 mg/kg IV push;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

The adult maintenance dose of Vecuronium is

A

0.01 – 0.05 mg/kg IV push

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

The adult maintenance dose of Vecuronium is given in what time frame

A

maintenance dose within 20 – 40 minutes:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

The initial dose of Vecuronium in an Pediatric is

A

.1 mg/kg IV/IO push;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

The pediatric maintenance dose of Vecuronium is

A

0.01 – 0.05 mg/kg IV/IO push

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

The pediatric maintenance dose of Vecuronium is given in what time frame

A

maintenance dose within 20 – 35 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Adverse reactions of Vecuronium

A

Apnea, weakness, salivation, PVCs, tachycardia, transient hypotension, increased BP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Vecuronium is contraindicated in?

A

Acute narrow angle glaucoma, penetrating eye injuries, inability to control airway or support ventilations with oxygen and positive pressure ventilation, newborns, myasthenia gravis, and hepatic or renal failure. 


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

The class of Etomidate is

A

Sedative Hypnotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

The dosage of Etomidate is

A

0.1 – 0.3 mg/kg IV over 15 – 30 seconds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Adverse Reactions of Etomidate is

A

Myoclonic skeletal muscle movement, apnea, 
hypo/hyperventilation, laryngospasm, nausea/vomiting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

The contraindications of Etomidate is

A

Known hypersensitivity; marked hypotension, severe asthma, severe cardiovascular disease, adrenal suppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

The class of Succinylcholine is

A

Depolarizing neuromuscular blocker, paralyzing agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Adverse reactions of Succinylcholine are

A

Apnea, malignant hyperthermia, arrhythmias, bradycardia, hypertension, hypotension, cardiac arrest, hyperkalemia, increased intraocular pressure, fasciculations, exacerbation of hyperkalemia in trauma patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Contraindications of Succinylcholine include

A

Acute narrow angle glaucoma, penetrating eye injuries, inability to control airway or support ventilations with oxygen and positive pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

In a child, the legs count for

A

13.5% each

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Wernikies Syndrome is caused by a

A

Deficiency of B vitamin, thiamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Thiamine metabolizes _________ to to produce energy for the brain

A

Glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What regulates body temperature, growth, appetite and plays a role in emotional response?

A

The Hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What regulates body temperature, growth, appetite and plays a role in emotional response?

A

The Hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

The pulse ox works by

A

Reading what is attached to the cell, not what is in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

If a female passes out, and is AOx4 upon arrival, you should consider

A

Hypoglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Elevated pressure from which blood is ejected from the heart. The cardiac muscle is stretched and contracts with a greater force

A

Starlings Law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

LOC, Rigidity, Arched Back, intermittent contractions of major muscle groups, lip smacking, clenched teeth. Chaotic and disorganized contractions.

A

Tonic Clonic Seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Non epileptic seizure. Loc and Positctal are present. Triggered by emotional event, lights, pain or stress. Organized rhythm with side to side head movement.

A

Pseudoseizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Formerly called petit mal seizure. Little or no movement. Typical patient is in a child. They almost come to a freeze, and will last a few seconds.

A

Absence Seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Affect a limited portion of the brain and can be divided into simple or complex seizures. May cause a wavelike motion called a Jacksonian March.

A

Partial Seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

ACE Inhibitors decrease the production of

A

angiotensin II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

ACE Inhibitors are

A

Angiotensin converting enzyme inibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Ectopic Pregnancy patients present with

A

Lower abdominal Pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

The most basic care for post partum treatment is

A

Fundal Massage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

When treating a flail chest segment

A

Provide Positive Pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

You are treating a patient in SVT and a blood pressure of 120/80 and are stable. What is your first treatment?

A

Vagal Maneuvers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Ischemia is defined as?

A

Tissue anoxia caused by diminished blood flow as a result of narrowing or occlusion of an artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Infarct is defined as?

A

Death or necrosis of a localized area of tissue, caused by ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

If a scene turns unsafe?

A

Evacuate and call the police

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Incomplete or partial separation of a normal implanted placenta is called a?

A

Abrupto Placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

When does Abrupto Placenta usually occur?

A

The last trimester

122
Q

Abrupto Placenta presents with

A

severe abdominal pain, radiating into the back, decreased fetal tones and movement

123
Q

A patient with Abrupto Placenta will have an abdomen that is?

A

Tender and a rigid uterus

124
Q

What is a spontaneous abortion

A

A miscarriage

125
Q

A patient with a spontaneous abortion will present with

A

vaginal bleeding or abdominal pain

126
Q

A spontaneous abortion may be caused by

A

Illness, toxic substances, abnormal attachment of the placenta

127
Q

Treat a spontaneous abortion by

A

Treating symptoms and being compassionate

128
Q

Placenta Previa is when

A

the placenta is implanted low in the uterus and grows covering the cervical canal

129
Q

Placenta previa presents with

A

Painless vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimesters with bright red blood

130
Q

A uterine rupture is a

A

Complication that occurs during labor

131
Q

Patients at risk for uterine rupture

A

have had a C section or multiple pregnancies

132
Q

A patient with a uterine rupture will have contractions that

A

start strong and have lessened

133
Q

Contraction pain from a uterine rupture

A

will feel sharp and tearing

134
Q

Patients with a uterine rupture will present with

A

Signs of shock and a falling blood pressure

135
Q

The P wave on an EKG represents

A

The activation of the SA node, causing Atrial Depolarization

136
Q

The QRS complex on an EKG represents

A

The measurement of time required for ventricular depolarization

137
Q

The T wave on an EKG represents

A

Ventricular Repolarization

138
Q

The PR Interval

A

is where the P wave leaves the baseline to the beginning of the QRS complex

139
Q

The RR and PP intervals

A

determine rate and rhythmicity

140
Q

The early phase of cardiac polarization where the heart muscle cannot be stimulated to depolarize is known as the?

A

Absolute Refractory Period

141
Q

A spider bite that causes cramping and numbing is caused by a

A

Black WIdow

142
Q

Extreme restlessness, spasms of the abdomen and thigh are caused by the bite of a

A

Black Widow

143
Q

A spider bite that is typically painless and may not present with any symptoms is from

A

A Brown Recluse

144
Q

Sloghing of the skin, nausea, vomiting and fever are caused by a

A

Brown Recluse spider bite

145
Q

Barrel chest, polycythemia and pursed lip breathing present in a patient with

A

emphysema

146
Q

A patient in respiratory distress, pink skin and no signs of hypoxia suffer from

A

emphysema

147
Q

What is the number one killer in young people

A

Trauma

148
Q

Alpha 1 medications cause?

A

Vasoconstriction, increased after load

149
Q

Prior to giving a vasopressor, the medic should administer?

A

A fluid bolus

150
Q

Priority care to a newborn is?

A

Dry, Warm, Stimulate

151
Q

What is the newborn respiratory rate

A

40 - 60 breaths per minute

152
Q

What is the dose of Magnesium Sulfate in a patient suffering from Cardiac Arrest due to Torsades de Pointes

A

1-2 grams given over 20 - 60 minutes

153
Q

What term is used to to describe a first pregnancy

A

Prima Gravida

154
Q

Neonatal Bradycardia is initially treated by

A

Providing positive pressure ventilations

155
Q

To provide a pediatric patient with a saline bolus you would

A

Convert pounds to kilograms. Then dose 20ml/ kg

156
Q

A patient on methamphetamines is experiencing sinus tachycardia. Should you administer Adenosine?

A

NO

157
Q

Lung Sounds in a patient with a pulmonary embolism will be?

A

Clear

158
Q

What would you look for in a pediatric patient who is being suctioned

A

Bradycardia

159
Q

Cardiac arrest in a pediatric patient is precluded by

A

Respiratory Arrest

160
Q

2 or more organs that are impaired is known as

A

Multi Organ Dysfunction Syndrome (MODS)

161
Q

A patients wheezing is improving and the wheezes stop. What may have happened?

A

The patient stopped breathing

162
Q

What is important to know when dealing with a chronically ill patient

A

Their baseline

163
Q

When dealing with a patient with facial burns, the paramedic should?

A

Prepare to intubate

164
Q

You receive an outrageous order from medical control. You should?

A

not follow it and document the reason why

165
Q

When waiting for the delivery of the placenta, do not?

A

pull on the umbilical cord

166
Q

A patient with organophosphate poisoning should be given

A

2mg of atropine

167
Q

The first sign of neonatal distress is

A

Bradycardia

168
Q

Vasoconstriction of the arteries and veins is caused by

A

Alpha 1 Stimuli

169
Q

Insulin restriction, Glucagon secretions and inhibition of norepinephrine release is caused by

A

Alpha 2 Stimuli

170
Q

Beta 2 stimuli causes

A

Bronchial relaxation, uterine relaxation and arterial dilation of certain key organs

171
Q

Beta 1 stimuli

A

Increased Inotropy, Dromotropy and Chronotropy

172
Q

A histamine is?

A

found in mast cells that when released causes vasodilation, capillary leaking and bronchiole construction, found in large amounts in basophils and increases tissue inflammation.

173
Q

An antigen is?

A

found on the surfaces of red blood cells that stimulate an immune system response and cause formation of antibodies, cells learn to recognize these as either self or non self (foreign).

174
Q

An antibody is?

A

A protein secreted by certain immune cells in response to an antigen, which binds antigens to make them more usable to the immune system’; an immunglobin.

175
Q

How do you estimate the size of a pediatric uncuffed ET Tube

A

Age of the patient + 4 / 4

176
Q

If you see a 12 lead with a pacer spike and no QRS, that may indicate there is a

A

Failure to the pacemaker

177
Q

What medications do emphysema patients take

A

Oxygen, Corticosteroids, Bronchodilators

178
Q

A patient with stroke like symptoms that resolve in an hour is having a

A

Transient Ischemic Attack

179
Q

A hemorrhagic stroke is a

A

Bleed

180
Q

An ischemic attack is a

A

blockage

181
Q

What kind of stroke is more common?

A

Ischemic

182
Q

How would a patient experiencing a stroke report their headache?

A

Worse headache of their life

183
Q

ECG changes associated with neurologic symptoms may mean?

A

Increased Intracranial Pressure

184
Q

ICP and brainstem herniation can be caused by?

A

Hemorrhagic Stroke

185
Q

A collapsed lung causing tracheal deviation, JVD, Hypotension is a

A

Tension Pneumo Thorax

186
Q

A patient with a tension pneumo may experience hypotension because of pressure on the

A

Vena Cava

187
Q

Amiodarone acts on

A

Beta adrenergic receptors

calcium channels

sodium/ potassium channels

188
Q

Diabetic patients are affected by

A

Peripheral Neuropathy

189
Q

Solid organs that develop and release and ovum are

A

Ovaries

190
Q

Tubes that are associated with ovaries where fertilization occurs are the

A

Fallopian tubes

191
Q

Where the embryo grows.

A

The uterus

192
Q

The dome shop at the top of the uterus is the

A

Fundus

193
Q

The narrowest portion of the uterus is the

A

Cervix

194
Q

The outermost layer of the uterine wall is the

A

Perimetrium

195
Q

The middle layer of the uterine wall is the

A

Myometrium

196
Q

The innermost layer of the uterine wall is the

A

Endometrium

197
Q

A patient with spinal trauma who’s skin is warm and dry is in

A

Neurogenic Shock

198
Q

Neurogenic shock is caused by the bodies

A

inability for the blood vessels to constrict below an injury site

199
Q

Epinephrine (1:1,000) dosing in anaphylaxis in pediatric patient IV/ IO is

A

0.01mg/ kg every 3-5 minutes

200
Q

IM dosing of epinephrine (1:1,000) in a pediatric patient is

A

0.01mg/ kg every 15 minutes

201
Q

Pain when pressure is released opposed to when pressed is known as

A

Rebound Tenderness

202
Q

Rebound Tenderness is a sign of

A

Appendicitis

203
Q

Zofran is what kind of drug

A

Anti- Nauseant

204
Q

The dose of Zofran is

A

4mg IV, IO or SL

205
Q

A side effect of Zofran is

A

A prolonged QT Interval

206
Q

Peritoneal irritation and guarding, indicating an injury or illness requiring immediate surgical intervention

A

Rigidity

207
Q

Increase in tissue pressure in a closed fascial space that compromises circulation

A

Compartment Syndrome

208
Q

Trauma requires?

A

A surgeon

209
Q

Bradycardia and Respiratory failure precedes?

A

Cardiac Arrest

210
Q

Dark green or black matter in amniotic fluid that indicates fetal distress and can be aspirated

A

Meconium

211
Q

A fertilized ovum that implants somewhere other than the uterus

A

Ectopic Pregnancy

212
Q

In an ectopic pregnancy, what signs will present

A

Abdominal pain

213
Q

A patient with an ectopic pregnancy is at risk for

A

Rupture of the Fallopian tube and and hypovolemic shock

214
Q

Injuries from the blast itself

A

Primary

215
Q

Injuries due to missiles being propelled by the blast force

A

Secondary

216
Q

Injuries due to impact with another object

A

Tertiary

217
Q

Collateral injuries such as burns, crush or inhaled toxins

A

Quaternary

218
Q

Long term damage from biologic, chemical or radioactive contaminants added to an explosive device

A

Quinary

219
Q

Class of Fentanyl

A

A narcotic analgesic

220
Q

Fentanyl works on

A

The opioid receptors

221
Q

Fentanyl is contraindicated in children under the age of

A

two years old

222
Q

The dose of fentanyl in adults is

A

25 - 100 mcg

223
Q

The pediatric dose of Fentanyl is

A

1-2 micrograms per kilogram

224
Q

What age range of pediatrics can receive Fentanyl

A

2 - 12 years old

225
Q

What should you have available when administering Fentanyl

A

Narcan

226
Q

A loop diuretic that disrupts sodium reabsorption

A

Furosemide (Lasix)

227
Q

Furosemide works in the loop of

A

Henle

228
Q

Side effects of lasix includes

A

Hypokalemia, increased vascular resistance and dysrhythmias

229
Q

When the brain is jarred in the skull, usually caused by rapid deceleration

A

Cerebral Contusion

230
Q

What chemical moves into the extracellular space following a concusion

A

Potassium

231
Q

The most common sign of a concussion is a

A

headache

232
Q

Amnesia, confusion, disorientation and loss of consciousness are signs of

A

Cerebral Concussion

233
Q

Brain tissue that is bruised in local area presenting with neurological deficits

A

Cerebral Contusion

234
Q

In a cerebral contusion, the most common area affected is the

A

Frontal lobe

235
Q

In an epidural hematoma, blood collects between the

A

skull and the dura matter

236
Q

In a epidural hematome, what bone may have a linear fracture

A

The temporal bone

237
Q

What is the classic sign of an epidural hematoma

A

Loss of consciousness, regain of consciousness followed by another loss of consciousness

238
Q

A headache is associated with an epidural hematoma

True or False

A

True

239
Q

Caused be penetrating injury or from rapid deceleration. Once symptoms appear, The condition rapidly deteriorates

A

Intracerebral Bleed

240
Q

A parasympathetic blocker. Blocks acetylcholine receptors. Used to treat hemodynamically significant bradycardia, SOB, chest pain, AMS,

A

Atropine

241
Q

Effects of Atropine are primarily?

A

Chronotropic

242
Q

A dose of atropine less than 0.5mg can cause

A

Paradoxical slowing of the heart.

243
Q

The class of Dopamine is

A

A sympathomimetic, inotropic agent

244
Q

The dose range of Dopamine is

A

2 - 20mcg/ kg/ min

245
Q

Domamine dose of 2-5mcg/ kg/ min results in

A

Kidney Dilation

246
Q

Dopamine dose of 5-10 mcg/ kg/ min results in

A

increased heart rate

247
Q

Dopamine dose of 10-20mcg/ kg/ min results in

A

Alpha effects and Vasoconstriction

248
Q

Push dose Epinephrine concentration is

A

1: 100,000

249
Q

For profound hypotension or bradycardia, your dose of press dose epinephrine is

A

2-10mcg/ min titrated to effect

250
Q

An epinephrine infusion adds what amount of epinephrine to a 500ml bag

A

1mg of 1;1000 Epi

251
Q

What is the typical dose of continuous epinephrine infusion

A

2 - 10 mcg/ min

252
Q

The liver is located in the

A

RUQ

253
Q

The Gall Bladder is located in the

A

RUQ

254
Q

The Pancreas is located in the

A

RUQ

255
Q

The Cecum is located in the

A

RLQ

256
Q

The Illium is located in the

A

RLQ

257
Q

The stomach is located in the

A

LUQ

258
Q

The spleen is located in the

A

LUQ

259
Q

The Sigmoid colon is located in the

A

LLQ

260
Q

The descending colon is located in the

A

LLQ

261
Q

A beta 2 agonist that results on smooth muscle relaxation.

A

Albuterol

262
Q

The dose of albuterol is

A

2.5mg in 3ml

263
Q

Albuterol is used to treat

A

bronchospasm or COPD / Asthma

264
Q

An anticholinergic that antagonizes the action of acetylcholine causing bronchodilation and relaxation is

A

Ipratroium

265
Q

When mixed with albuterol, Ipratopium creates

A

A duoneb

266
Q

The adult dose of Ipratropium is

A

500mcg in a small volume nebulizer

267
Q

The pediatric dose of Ipratropium is

A

350 - 500mcg

268
Q

Follicle Stimulating Hormones are released by the

A

Anterior Pituitary Gland

269
Q

The Pituitary is first stimulated by the release of

A

Gonadotropin

270
Q

During the menstrual cycle, the anterior pituitary gland releases a

A

Lutenizing Hormone

271
Q

The first step in neonatal resuscitation is to

A

Dry, Warm, Stimulate

272
Q

In neonatal resuscitation, if after 30 seconds, you have a pulse rate less than 100, you should

A

Provide Positive Pressure Ventilations

273
Q

Chest Compression on a neonate are began when

A

The neonate has a pulse rate less than 60

274
Q

If compressions are ineffective, administer

A

Epinephrine IV or ET

275
Q

Aggravation of symptoms or an increase in the severity of a disease is known as

A

An exacerbation

276
Q

Hyperventilation causes a patients Ph to

A

create alkalosis and a rise in the patients Ph

277
Q

Chest Pain, Carpopedal Spasms, Numbness, tingling of the hands, feet and mouth are caused by

A

Hyperventilation

278
Q

A patient in Afib needs to be treated with an antidysrhythmic. What drug choices would you use

A

Cardizem, A calcium channel blocker

279
Q

What initial dose of cardizem is used for a patient in AFib

A

0.25mg/ kg. Typical dose is 15-20 milligrams over 2 minutes.

280
Q

The repeat dose of cardizem is

A

0.35mg/ kg after 15 minutes

281
Q

The maintenance dose of cardizem is

A

5-15mg/ hr

282
Q

What is a typical dose of Mag Sulfate in a pre-eclamptic patient

A

2 grams

283
Q

An eclamptic patient will receive what dose of mag sulfate

A

4 grams

284
Q

What do you do when trying to troubleshoot a problem with an intubated patient

A

DOPE- Dislodge, Obstruction, Pneumothorax, Equipment

285
Q

What rate using a bag valve mask is considered hyperventilation

A

20 breaths per minute or 1 breath every 3 seconds

286
Q

How is cardiac output affected by ventilation

A

Ventilation is compromised but perfusion continues. Blood passes but there is no gas exchange. V/Q mismatch

287
Q

Hypoxia has an effect on

A

Cardiac Function

288
Q

Where are Histamines found

A

found in mast cells

289
Q

Histamine cause

A

that when released causes vasodilation, capillary leaking and bronchiole constriction.

290
Q

Tissues____________________ when exposed to histamines?

A

Inflame

291
Q

Pediatric Dosage of Adenosine

A

0.1mg/ kg

292
Q

Pediatric Dosage of Atropine

A

0.02mg/ kg

293
Q

Pediatric Dosage of Calcium Chloride

A

20mg/kg

294
Q

Pediatric Dosage of Nitroglycerine

A

0.25 - 0.5mg/ kg/ min

295
Q

A class 1 antidysrhythmic will

A

slow movement of sodium through channels in certain cardiac cells

296
Q

Class 2 antidysrhythmics are

A

Antidysrhythmic Medications/Beta-Adrenergic-

Beta Blockers

297
Q

Class 2 antidysrhytmics will

A

Inhibit catecholamine (epinephrine and norepinephrine) activation of beta receptor sites
Slows HR , contractility, cardiac conduction
-Metoprolol- beta blocker that reduces HR during

298
Q

Class 3 Antidysrhythmic drugs are

A

Amiodarone

299
Q

Class 3 Antidysrhythmics will treat

A

Vtach/ Vfib

300
Q

Class 4 Antidysrythmics drugs are

A

Cardizem, Digoxin

301
Q

Class 4 Antidysrythmics drugs will treat

A

AFib

NCTI FINAL (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions