final exam Flashcards

1
Q

How should you position a client with a hip replacement?

A

later

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2
Q

how do you assess a client with a hip replacement?

A

later

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3
Q

What nursing actions are needed for a patient with a hip replacement?

A

later

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4
Q

Abduction

A

later

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5
Q

Adduction

A

later

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6
Q

total joint replacement

abduction or adduction?

A

later

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7
Q

knee replacements

abduction or adduction?

A

later

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8
Q

knee replacements

A

later

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9
Q

What is CPM?

Discuss

A

later

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10
Q

What is the standard care for hip replacements?

A

later

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11
Q

what is the standard care for knee replacements?

A

later

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12
Q

Total joint replacement

activities of daily living defecit

A

later

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13
Q

total joint replacement

self-care deficit

A

later

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14
Q

total joint replacement

Assistive devices that can enable self care

A

later

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15
Q

Total joint replacement

community resources for the client and family

A

later

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16
Q

pre op and post op care

A

later

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17
Q

“impact choices” in article

A

later

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18
Q

the most common cause of painful or increased dysfunction of a joint is due to ___________.
______ loosening is the most common cause of failed joint replacement and can appear yrs after surgery by wear and tear on prosthetic device

A

loosening of the prosthetic

Aseptic

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19
Q

the number 1 reason for reoperation

A

hip dislocation

posterior hip dislocations are the most common and happen from flexion, adduction, and internal rotation of the hip joint

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20
Q

Anterior hip dislocations

A

not common

happen from extension and external rotation

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21
Q

to prevent hip dislocation, teach patient and family

A

the risk, proper positioning techniques, and use of adaptive equipment

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22
Q

confirmation of a dislocation is often a

A

x-ray

patients often complain of immediate pain and describe hearing a pop

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23
Q

infection in joint replacement occurs in less than 2% of cases, but it is the result of

A

presence of infections such as the skin or urinary tract, certain diseases such as diabetes and alcoholism, use of immunosuppressant drugs, obesity, and non-healing ulcers

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24
Q

infection of the joint capsule is usually confirmed by

A

a needle aspiration.

gram positive bacilli

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25
Q

the ultimate outcome for TJR and infection is

A

preserving the joint prosthetics

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26
Q

if the infection in a joint replacement cannot be treated,

A

remove the hardware, prolong antibiotic tx, and repeat the joint repalcement

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27
Q

to prevent infection in a joint replacement,

A

prophylactic antibiotics can be used before dental procedures and invasive tx

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28
Q

A major concern and potential life threatening complication of joint replacements is

A

DVTs!!! and pulmonary emboli

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29
Q

Virchow’s triad is a physiological bodily response to DVTs in joint replacements

A

when all are met, a blood clot can occur

The Virchow’s triad consists of:

  1. Alterations in normal blood flow
  2. Injuries to the vascular endothelium
  3. Alterations in the consistancy of blood (hypercoagulability)
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30
Q

patients with a joint replacement may meet all the triad criteria such as

A

local vessel wall damage, hypercoagulability, and venous stasis after surgery

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31
Q

to prevent DVTs in joint repalcements

A

use anticoagulants (coumadin), low-molecular weight heparin or unfractionated heparin post op (immediately post op and up to 14 days after surgery)

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32
Q

Preoperative assessment of joint replacement

A

focuses on obtaining history and physical:

past medical hx –general health, previous surgeries, hospitalizations, illnesses, immunizations, meds, allergies, hx of blood transfusions, fx status and ability to complete ADLs, transfers, and ambulation

personal hx – culture/religion, economic issues, home environment, occupation, tobacco, alcohol, drug use, diet, exercise regimen

pain – chronic vs acute, location, intensity, exacerbation, meds, home tx

musculoskeletal – inspect and palpate surgical extremity, posture, alignment, symmetry, muscle tone, ROM

vial signs – BP, temp, pulse, respiratory rate, pulse ox

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33
Q

Postop assessment of joint replacement

A

musculoskeletal – surgical area, incision line for intactness, redness, warmth, amt of drainage, amt of edema, sensation, pulses

pain – intensity, location, radiation, evaluation of previous interventions to treat pain

vitals – until stable

function – assess amt of help needed for bed mobility, transfers, ambulation, and ADLs

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34
Q

exercise for total joint replacement often begins in

A

the preoperative setting

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35
Q

total joint replacements: hips and knees

preoperative

A

complete review of medication regimen, signs and symptoms of infection, review a surgical procedure.
Physical therapy will to a musculoskeletal evaluation and instruct them to complete a preoperative home exercise program; proper transfers in and out of bed, chairs, and vehicles; instructions on use of assistive devices such as canes and walkers; and information regarding postoperative rehabilitation

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36
Q

prehabilitation exercise can have

A

long-term benefits

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37
Q

occupational therapist they provide information and instruction in the use of assistive devices

A

proper use of a long-and old sponge or stock Donner can allow the patient to safely complete activities without risk of injury

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38
Q

social workers help to coordinate evaluation of

A

home needs and initiating discharge planning

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39
Q

total joint replacement: hips and knees postoperative

A

therapeutic exercise begins shortly after surgery and continues until the patient has reached his or her maximal functional recovery

Focus of inpatient rehab postop is safe mobility. Most patients are transferred out of bed and stand on day one after surgery. Early movement with prophylactic measures is essential in diminishing the risk of postoperative DVT. Proper transfer techniques can reduce aggravation of symptoms and injury. Choice of prosthetic component may affect weight-bearing status. Some surgeons may restrict weight-bearing of patients with non-cemented THA components. Cemented components generally allow immediate full weightbearing or weight-bearing as tolerated.bone grafting or fracture during surgery may limit weight bearing

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40
Q

CPM machine for total knee replacement

A

used while in bed in an effort to improve range of motion. This is more challenging for hip replacement patients because hip precautions must be maintained at all times. For example, hip precautions for a posterolateral THA may include no hip flexion beyond 90°, no crossing of midline with the operated leg, and no rotation.

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41
Q

Rehabilitation continues upon discharge from the hospital

A

true. It continues to focus on addressing functional deficits the patient may have. For example, a patient with a total knee replacement will typically exhibit lower extremity edema, muscle weakness, especially in the quadriceps, range of motion limitations in the operated knee, and gait deficits requiring the use of assistive device

Gait training, progressive resistive exercise, balance training, patellar mobilization, soft tissue mobilization, electrical stimulation for quadriceps, strengthening and edema control, and range of motion and stretching exercises are typical interventions for this patient

Modalities, including ice and later moist heat, are commonly used to minimize edema and pain and to facilitate stretching and exercise.

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42
Q

Significant quadriceps weakness is found with

A

total knee replacement

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43
Q

a total hip replacement often has a significant weakness in the

A

hip abductor musculature. This leads to significant gait deviation, known as the Trendelenburg gait pattern. The patient with this deficit will latterly deviate his or her trunk to the weakened side in an effort to decrease pelvic drop due to the hip weakness. Patients should be encouraged to use appropriate assistive devices to avoid this deviation. As with the total knee replacement patient, range of motion exercises, progressive resistive exercise, soft tissue mobilization, and balance and gait training are standard interventions. A comprehensive home exercise program is essential

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44
Q

total hip replacement precautions

A

to not bend operated hip greater than 90°
do not cross legs or brain operated leg past the midline of the body
do not twist or turn operated leg inward
do not raise the operated leg up higher than the rest of the body ( such as a knee to chest position)

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45
Q

electrical stimulation may be used for facilitation of muscle strengthening, and ice and heat are commonly used as well. As with other joint replacements, and appropriate and comprehensive home exercise program is essential for achieving optimal functional outcomes

A

true of joint replacements

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46
Q

expected outcomes for joint replacement surgical patients

A

pain management with pain under control
adequate range of motion
return of functional mobility
increased quality of life

successful outcomes are measured in terms of return to maximal mobility and range motion, with a low incidence of complications

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47
Q

educating patients and families about the healing process after joint replacement is a key nursing interventions to promote recovery

A

nurses can actively prevent common complications and reinforced what patients are taught in physical therapy

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48
Q

nursing diagnoses of joint replacement

A
acute pain
potential for infection
impaired physical mobility
potential for ineffective tissue perfusion
constipation
inffective breathing pattern
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49
Q

for acute pain of joint replacement

A

alleviate or produce pain to a level that’s acceptable to the patient by proper positioning, I stood extremity, guided imagery, music therapy, or distraction. Use of IV and PO medications, patient controlled analgesia as prescribed by physician, administer before any activity

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50
Q

potential for infection for joint replacement

A

outcome is to have no infection at the surgical site by hand washing, universal precautions, appropriate wound care techniques, assessment of wound color temperature and drainage, appropriate antibiotic use as prescribed, teaching patient and family of proper techniques of wound care and dressing changes

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51
Q

impaired physical mobility for joint replacement

A

outcome is to increase mobility and advancement to independence with or without a device by use of adaptive equipment necessary, active/active assisted/passive range of motion exercises, mobility as soon as possible, teaching patient and family of proper mobilization techniques

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52
Q

potential for ineffective tissue perfusion for joint replacement

A

outcome is to maintain adequate tissue perfusion to extremities and to be free of thrombosis by encouraging range of motion exercises, teach ankle pumps and circular motion of feet, TED hose as appropriate, sequential devices as appropriate, frequent assessment of extremities for pulses color temperature and sensation, administer anticoagulants as ordered, monitor lab values as ordered

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53
Q

constipation for joint replacement

A

outcome is maintenance of irregular bowel pattern as per patient by encouraging activity as soon as possible, encourage fluid intake, encourage proper diet, assessed bowel sounds and monitor for nausea and vomiting, administer laxatives and stool softener as ordered

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54
Q

ineffective breathing pattern for joint replacement

A

outcome is to maintain proper ventilation by oxygen support as needed, teaching coughing and deep breathing exercises, teaching use of incentive spirometry, teach proper positioning for effective breathing: sitting position, slightly forward, and shoulders relaxed. Assess lung sounds and pulse oximetry

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55
Q

exercises for patients after hip or knee surgery

A

ankle pumps: Bend ankles to move feet up and down, alternating feet. Repeat this exercise several times throughout the day

Quad sets!!!: slowly tighten muscles on thigh of straight leg while counting to 5; repeat with the other leg

Straight leg raise: Bend un-involved leg. Keep other leg straight as possible and tighten muscles on top of thign. Slowly lift straight leg 6 to 8 inches from bed and hold for 5 seconds; lower. Relax.

Short arc quad: place large can or rolled up towel under leg. Straighten knee and leg. Hold for 5 seconds and repeat with other leg

Heel slides: bend knee and pull heels towards buttocks. hold for 5 seconds. Return to starting point and repeat with other knee

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56
Q

In preparation for total knee surgery, a 200-lb client with osteoarthritis must lose weight. Which of the following exercises should the nurse recommend as best if the client has no contraindications?

  1. Weight lifting.
  2. Walking.
  3. Aquatic exercise.
  4. Tai chi exercise.
A
  1. When combined with a weight loss program, aquatic exercise would be best because it cushions the joints and allows the client to burn off calories. Aquatic exercise promotes circulation, muscle toning, and lung expansion, which promote healthy preoperative conditioning. Weight lifting and walking are too stressful to the joints, possibly exacerbating the client’s osteoarthritis. Although tai chi exercise is designed for stretching and coordination, it would not be the best exercise for this client to help with weight loss.
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57
Q

Prior to surgery, the nurse is instructing a client who will have a total hip replacement tomorrow. Which of the following information is most important to include in the teaching plan at this time?

  1. Teaching how to prevent hip flexion.
  2. Demonstrating coughing and deep-breathing techniques.
  3. Showing the client what an actual hip prosthesis looks like.
  4. Assessing the client’s fears about the procedure.
A
  1. Before implementing a teaching plan, the nurse should determine the client’s fears about the procedure. Only then can the client begin to hear what the nurse has to share about the individualized teaching plan designed to meet the client’s needs. In the preoperative period, the client needs to learn how to correctly prevent hip flexion and to demonstrate coughing and deep breathing. However, this teaching can be effective only after the client’s fears have been assessed and addressed. Although the client may appreciate seeing what a hip prosthesis looks like, so as to understand the new body part, this is not a necessity.
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58
Q

The client has just had a total knee replacement for severe osteoarthritis. Which of the following assessment findings should lead the nurse to suspect possible nerve damage? 1. Numbness.

  1. Bleeding.
  2. Dislocation.
  3. Pinkness.
A
  1. The nurse should suspect nerve damage if numbness is present. However, whether the damage is short-term and related to edema or long-term and related to permanent nerve damage would not be clear at this point. The nurse needs to continue to assess the client’s neurovascular status, including pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, and paralysis (the five P’s). Bleeding would suggest vascular damage or hemorrhage. Dislocation would suggest malalignment. Pink color would suggest adequate circulation to the area. Numbness would suggest neurologic damage.
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59
Q

After surgery and insertion of a total joint prosthesis, a client develops severe sudden pain and an inability to move the extremity. The nurse correctly interprets these findings as indicating which of the following?

  1. A developing infection.
  2. Bleeding in the operative site.
  3. Joint dislocation.
  4. Glue seepage into soft tissue.
A
  1. The joint has dislocated when the client with a total joint prosthesis develops severe sudden pain and an inability to move the extremity. Clinical manifestations of an infection would include inflammation, redness, erythema, and possibly drainage and separation of the wound. Bleeding could be external (e.g., blood visible from the wound or on the dressing) or internal and manifested by signs of shock (e.g., pallor, coolness, hypotension, tachycardia). The seepage of glue into soft tissue would have occurred in the operating room, when the glue is still in the liquid form. The glue dries into the hard, fixed form before the wound is closed.
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60
Q

A client who had a total hip replacement 2 days ago has developed an infection with a fever. The nursing diagnosis of fluid volume deficit related to diaphoresis is made. Which of the following is the most appropriate outcome?

  1. The client drinks 2,000 mL of fluid per day.
  2. The client understands how to manage the incision.
  3. The client’s bed linens are changed as needed.
  4. The client’s skin remains cool throughout hospitalization.
A
  1. An average adult requires approximately 1,100- 1,400 mL of fluids per day. In some instances, such as when a person has an increase in body temperature or has increased perspiration, additional water may be necessary. With an increase in body temperature, there is also an increase in insensible fluid loss. The increased loss of fluid causes an increased need for fluid replacement. If the loss is significant and/ or goes untreated, an individual’s intake will not be balanced with output. Managing the incision, changing the bed linens, or keeping the client’s skin cool are not outcomes indicative of resolution of a fluid volume deficit.
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61
Q

After knee arthroplasty, the client has a sequential compression device (SCD). The nurse should do which of the following?

  1. Elevate the sequential compression device (SCD) on two pillows.
  2. Change the settings on the SCD to make the client more comfortable.
  3. Stop the SCD to remove dressings and bathe the leg.
  4. Discontinue the SCD when the client is ambulatory.
A
  1. After knee arthroplasty, the knee will be extended and immobilized with a firm compression dressing and an adjustable soft extension splint in place. A sequential compression device (SCD) will be applied. The SCD can be discontinued when the client is ambulatory, but while the client is in bed the SCD needs to be maintained to prevent thromboembolism. The SCD should be positioned on the bed, but not on two pillows. Settings for the SCD are ordered by the orthopedic surgeon. Initial dressing changes are completed by the orthopedic surgeon and changed as needed per physician order.
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62
Q

The nurse is preparing the discharge of a client who has had a knee replacement with a metal joint. The nurse should instruct the client about which of the following? Select all that apply.

  1. Notify health care providers about the joint prior to invasive procedures.
  2. Avoid use of Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) scans. 3. Notify airport security that the joint may set off alarms on metal detectors.
  3. Refrain from carrying items weighing more than 5 lb.
  4. Limit fluid intake to 1,000 mL/ day.
A

1, 2, 3.
The nurse should instruct the client to notify the dentist and other health care providers of the need to take prophylactic antibiotics if undergoing any procedure (e.g., tooth extraction) due to the potential of bacteremia. The nurse should also advise the client that the metal components of the joint may set off the metal-detector alarms in airports. The client should also avoid MRI studies because the implanted metal components will be pulled toward the large magnet core of the MRI. Any weight bearing that is permitted is prescribed by the orthopedic surgeon and is usually not limited to 5 lb. Post surgery, the client can resume a normal diet with regular fluid intake.

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63
Q

Following a total hip replacement, the nurse should position the client in which of the following ways?

  1. Place weights alongside of the affected extremity to keep the extremity from rotating.
  2. Elevate both feet on two pillows.
  3. Keep the lower extremities adducted by use of an immobilization binder around both legs.
  4. Keep the extremity in slight abduction using an abduction splint or pillows placed between the thighs.
A
  1. After total hip replacement, proper positioning by the nurse prevents dislocation of the prosthesis. The nurse should place the client in a supine position and keep the affected extremity in slight abduction using an abduction splint or pillows or Buck’s extension traction. The client must not abduct or flex the operated hip because this may produce dislocation.
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64
Q

Following a total hip replacement, the nurse should do which of the following? Select all that apply.

  1. With the aid of a coworker, turn the client from the supine to the prone position every 2 hours.
  2. Encourage the client to use the overhead trapeze to assist with position changes.
  3. For meals, elevate the head of the bed to 90 degrees. 4. Use a fracture bedpan when needed by the client.
  4. When the client is in bed, prevent thromboembolism by encouraging the client to do toe-pointing exercises.
A

2, 4, 5.
Following total hip replacement, the client should use the overhead trapeze to assist with position changes. The head of the bed should not be elevated more than 45 degrees; any height greater than 45 degrees puts a strain on the hip joint and may cause dislocation. To use a fracture bedpan, instruct the client to flex the unoperated hip and knee to lift buttocks onto pan. Toe-pointing exercises stimulate circulation in the lower extremities to prevent the formation of thrombi and potential emboli. The prone position is avoided shortly after a total hip replacement.

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65
Q

A client is to have a total hip replacement. The preoperative plan should include which of the following? Select all that apply.

  1. Administer antibiotics as prescribed to ensure therapeutic blood levels.
  2. Apply leg compression device.
  3. Request a trapeze be added to the bed.
  4. Teach isometric exercises of quadriceps and gluteal muscles.
  5. Demonstrate crutch walking with a 3-point gait.
  6. Place Buck’s traction on the bed.
A

1, 3, 4.
Administration of antibiotics as prescribed will aid in the acquisition of therapeutic blood levels during and immediately after surgery to prevent osteomyelitis. The nurse can request that a trapeze be added to the bed so the client can assist with lifting and turning. The nurse should also demonstrate and have the client practice isometric exercises (muscle setting) of quadriceps and gluteal muscles. The client will not use crutches after surgery; a physical therapy assistant will initially assist the client with walking by using a walker. The client will not use Buck’s traction. The client will require anti-embolism stockings and use of a leg compression device to minimize the risk of thrombus formation and potential emboli; the leg compression device is applied during surgery and maintained per physician order.

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66
Q

The nurse is teaching the client to administer enoxaparin (Lovenox) following a total hip arthroplasty? The nurse should instruct the client about which of the following? Select all that apply.

  1. Report promptly any difficulty breathing, rash, or itching. 2. Notify the health care provider of unusual bruising.
  2. Avoid all aspirin-containing medications.
  3. Wear or carry medical identification. 5. Expel the air bubble from the syringe before the injection. 6. Remove needle immediately after medication is injected.
A

1, 2, 3, 4.
Client/ family teaching should include advising the client to report any symptoms of unusual bleeding or bruising, dizziness, itching, rash, fever, swelling, or difficulty breathing to healthcare provider immediately. Instruct the client not to take aspirin or nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs without consulting health care provider while on therapy. A low-molecular weight heparin is considered to be a high-risk medication and the client should wear or carry medical identification. The air bubble should not be expelled from the syringe because the bubble insures the client receives the full dose of the medication. The client should allow 5 seconds to pass before withdrawing the needle to prevent seepage of the medication out of the site.

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67
Q

A client who had a total hip replacement 4 days ago is worried about dislocation of the prosthesis. The nurse should respond by saying which of the following?

  1. “Don’t worry. Your new hip is very strong.”
  2. “Use of a cushioned toilet seat helps to prevent dislocation.”
  3. “Activities that tend to cause adduction of the hip tend to cause dislocation, so try to avoid them.”
  4. “Decreasing use of the abductor pillow will strengthen the muscles to prevent dislocation.”
A
  1. Dislocation precautions include: avoid extremes of internal rotation, adduction, and 90-degree flexion of affected hip for at least 4 to 6 weeks after the procedure. Use of an abduction pillow prevents adduction. Decreasing use of the abductor pillow does not strengthen the muscles to prevent dislocation. Informing a client to “not worry” is not therapeutic. A cushioned toilet seat does not prevent hip dislocation.
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68
Q

The nurse is assessing a client who had a left hip replacement 36 hours ago. Which of the following indicates the prosthesis is dislocated? Select all that apply.

  1. The client reported a “popping” sensation in the hip.
  2. The left leg is shorter than the right leg.
  3. The client has sharp pain in the groin.
  4. The client cannot move his right leg.
  5. The client
A

1, 2, 3.
Dislocation of a hip prosthesis may occur with positioning that exceeds the limits of the prosthesis. The nurse must recognize dislocation of the prosthesis. Signs of prosthesis dislocation include: acute groin pain in the affected hip, shortening of the affected leg, restricted ability or inability to move the affected leg, and reported “popping” sensation in the hip. Toe wiggling is not a test for potential hip dislocation.

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69
Q

A client who has had a total hip replacement has a dislocated hip prosthesis. The nurse should first?

  1. Stabilize the leg with Buck’s traction.
  2. Apply an ice pack to the affected hip.
  3. Position the client toward the opposite side of the hip.
  4. Notify the orthopedic surgeon.
A
  1. If a prosthesis becomes dislocated, the nurse should immediately notify the surgeon. This is done so the hip can be reduced and stabilized promptly to prevent nerve damage and to maintain circulation. After closed reduction, the hip may be stabilized with Buck’s traction or a brace to prevent recurrent dislocation. If ordered by the surgeon, an ice pack may be applied post reduction to limit edema, although caution must be utilized due to potential muscle spasms. Some orthopedic surgeons may order the client be turned toward the side of the reduced hip but that is not the nurse’s first response.
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70
Q

The nurse is planning care for a group of clients who have had total hip replacement. Of the clients listed below, which is at highest risk for infection and should be assessed first? 1. A 55-year-old client who is 6 feet tall and weighs 180 lb. 2. A 90-year-old who lives alone.

  1. A 74-year-old who has periodontal disease with periodontitis.
  2. A 75-year-old who has asthma and uses an inhaler.
A
  1. Infection is a serious complication of total hip replacement and may necessitate removal of the implant. Clients who are obese, poorly nourished, elderly, have poorly controlled diabetes, rheumatoid arthritis, or concurrent infections (e.g., dental, urinary tract) are at high risk for infection. Clients who are of normal weight and have well-controlled chronic diseases are not at risk for infection. Living alone is not a risk factor for infection.
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71
Q

The nurse has established a goal with a client to improve mobility following hip replacement. Which of the following is a realistic outcome at the time of discharge from the surgical unit?

  1. The client can walk throughout the entire hospital with a walker.
  2. The client can walk the length of a hospital hallway with minimal pain.
  3. The client has increased independence in transfers from bed to chair.
  4. The client can raise the affected leg 6 inches with assistance.
A
  1. Expected outcomes at the time of discharge from the surgical unit after a hip replacement include the following: increased independence in transfers, participates in progressive ambulation without pain or assistance, and raises the affected leg without assistance. The client will not be able to walk throughout the hospital, walk for a distance without some postoperative pain, or raise the affected leg more than several inches. The client may be referred to a rehabilitation unit in order to achieve the additional independence, strength, and pain relief.
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72
Q

The nurse is assessing a client’s left leg for neurovascular changes following a total left knee replacement. Which of the following are expected normal findings? Select all that apply.

  1. Reduced edema of the left knee.
  2. Skin warm to touch.
  3. Capillary refill response.
  4. Moves toes.
  5. Pain absent.
  6. Pulse on left leg weaker than right leg.
A

1, 2, 3, 4.
Postoperatively, the knee in a total knee replacement is dressed with a compression bandage and ice may be applied to control edema and bleeding. Recurrent assessment by the nurse for neurovascular changes can prevent loss of limb. Normal neurovascular findings include: color normal, extremity warm, capillary refill less than 3 seconds, moderate edema, tissue not palpably tense, pain controllable, normal sensations, no paresthesia, normal motor abilities, no paresis or paralysis, and pulses strong and equal.

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73
Q

On the evening of surgery for total knee replacement, a client wants to get out of bed. To safely assist the client the nurse should do which of the following?

  1. Encourage the client to apply full weight-bearing.
  2. Order a walker for the client.
  3. Place a straight-backed chair at the foot of the bed.
  4. Apply a knee immobilizer.
A
  1. The knee is usually protected with a knee immobilizer (splint, cast, or brace) and is elevated when the client sits in a chair. Pre- and post-surgery, the physician prescribes weight-bearing limits and use of assistive devices for progressive ambulation. Positioning a straight-backed chair at the foot of the bed is not an action conducive for getting the client out of bed on the evening of surgery for a total knee replacement.
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74
Q

When preparing a client for discharge from the hospital after a total knee replacement, the nurse should include which of the following information in the discharge plan? Select all that apply.

  1. Report signs of infection to health care provider.
  2. Keep the affected leg and foot on the floor when sitting in a chair.
  3. Remove anti-embolism stockings when sleeping.
  4. The physical therapist will encourage progressive ambulation with use of assistive devices.
  5. Change the dressing daily.
A

1, 4.
After a total knee replacement, efforts are directed at preventing complications, such as thromboembolism, infection, limited range of motion, and peroneal nerve palsy. The nurse should instruct the client to report signs of infection, such as an increased temperature. To prevent edema, the affected leg must remain elevated when the client sits in a chair. After discharge, the client may undergo physical therapy on an outpatient basis per physician order. The client should leave the dressing in place until the follow-up visit with the surgeon.

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75
Q

Following a total joint replacement, which of the following complications has the greatest likelihood of occurring?

  1. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
  2. Polyuria.
  3. Intussception of the bowel.
  4. Wound evisceration.
A
  1. Deep vein thrombosis is a complication of total joint replacement and may occur during hospitalization or develop later when the client is home. Clients who are obese or have previous history of a DVT or PE are at high risk. Immobility produces venous stasis, increasing the client’s chance to develop a venous thromboembolism. Signs of a DVT include: unilateral calf tenderness, warmth, redness, and edema (increased calf circumference). Findings should be reported promptly to the physician for definitive evaluation and therapy. Polyuria may be indicative of diabetes mellitus. Intussusception of the bowel and wound evisceration tend to occur after abdominal surgeries.
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76
Q

Which of the following should the nurse identify as the least likely factor contributing to a client’s peripheral vascular disease?

  1. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus for 15 years.
  2. A 20-pack-year history of cigarette smoking.
  3. Current age of 39 years.
  4. A serum cholesterol concentration of 275 mg/ dL.
A
  1. Typically, peripheral vascular disease is considered to be a disorder affecting older adults. Therefore, an age of 39 years would not be considered as a risk factor contributing to the development of peripheral vascular disease. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus is considered a risk factor for peripheral vascular disease because of the macroangiopathic and microangiopathic changes that result from poor blood glucose control. Cigarette smoking is a known risk factor for peripheral vascular disease. Nicotine is a potent vasoconstrictor. Serum cholesterol levels greater than 200 mg/ dL are considered a risk factor for peripheral vascular disease.
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77
Q

A client has severe arterial occlusive disease and gangrene of the left great toe. Which of the following findings is expected?

  1. Edema around the ankle.
  2. Loss of hair on the lower leg.
  3. Thin, soft toenails.
  4. Warmth in the foot.
A
  1. The client with severe arterial occlusive disease and gangrene of the left great toe would have lost the hair on the leg due to decreased circulation to the skin. Edema around the ankle and lower leg would indicate venous insufficiency of the lower extremity. Thin, soft toenails (i.e., not thickened and brittle) are a normal finding. Warmth in the foot indicates adequate circulation to the extremity. Typically, the foot would be cool to cold if a severe arterial occlusion were present.
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78
Q

A client with absent peripheral pulses and pain at rest is scheduled for an arterial Doppler study of the affected extremity. When preparing the client for this test, the nurse should:

  1. Have the client sign a consent form for the procedure.
  2. Administer a pretest sedative as appropriate.
  3. Keep the client tobacco-free for 30 minutes before the test.
  4. Wrap the client’s affected foot with a blanket.
A
  1. The client should be tobacco-free for 30 minutes before the test to avoid false readings related to the vasoconstrictive effects of smoking on the arteries. Because this test is noninvasive, the client does not need to sign a consent form. The client should receive an opioid analgesic, not a sedative, to control the pain as the blood pressure cuffs are inflated during the Doppler studies to determine the ankle-to-brachial pressure index. The client’s ankle should not be covered with a blanket because the weight of the blanket on the ischemic foot will cause pain. A bed cradle should be used to keep even the weight of a sheet off the affected foot.
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79
Q

The client with peripheral arterial disease says, “I’ve really tried to manage my condition well.” Which of the following should the nurse determine as appropriate for this client? 1. Resting with the legs elevated above the level of the heart.

  1. Walking slowly but steadily for 30 minutes twice a day.
  2. Minimizing activity as much and as often as possible.
  3. Wearing antiembolism stockings at all times when out of bed.
A
  1. Slow, steady walking is a recommended activity for the client with peripheral arterial disease because it stimulates the development of collateral circulation needed to ensure adequate tissue oxygenation. The client with peripheral arterial disease should not minimize activity. Activity is necessary to foster the development of collateral circulation. Elevating the legs above the heart is an appropriate strategy for reducing venous congestion. Wearing antiembolism stockings promotes the return of venous circulation, which is important for clients with venous insufficiency. However, their use in clients with peripheral arterial disease may cause the disease to worsen.
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80
Q

Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client with arterial insufficiency to the feet that is being managed conservatively?

  1. Daily lubrication of the feet.
  2. Soaking the feet in warm water.
  3. Applying antiembolism stockings.
  4. Wearing firm, supportive leather shoes.
A
  1. Daily lubrication, inspection, cleaning, and patting dry of the feet should be performed to prevent cracking of the skin and possible infection. Soaking the feet in warm water should be avoided because soaking can lead to maceration and subsequent skin breakdown. Additionally, the client with arterial insufficiency typically experiences sensory changes, so the client may be unable to detect water that is too warm, thus placing the client at risk for burns. Antiembolism stockings, appropriate for clients with venous insufficiency, are inappropriate for clients with arterial insufficiency and could lead to a worsening of the condition. Footwear should be roomy, soft, and protective and allow air to circulate. Therefore, firm, supportive leather shoes would be inappropriate.
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81
Q

A client says, “I hate the idea of being an invalid after they cut off my leg.” Which of the following would be the nurse’s most therapeutic response?

  1. “At least you will still have one good leg to use.”
  2. “Tell me more about how you’re feeling.”
  3. “Let’s finish the preoperative teaching.”
  4. “You’re lucky to have a wife to care for you.”
A

2.
Encouraging the client who will be undergoing amputation to verbalize his feelings is the most therapeutic response. Asking the client to tell more about how he is feeling helps to elicit information, providing insight into his view of the situation and also providing the nurse with ideas to help him cope. The nurse should avoid value-laden responses, such as, “At least you will still have one good leg to use,” that may make the client feel guilty or hostile, thereby blocking further communication. Furthermore, stating that the client still has one good leg ignores his expressed concerns. The client has verbalized feelings of helplessness by using the term “invalid.” The nurse needs to focus on this concern and not try to complete the teaching first before discussing what is on the client’s mind. The client’s needs, not the nurse’s needs, must be met first. It is inappropriate for the nurse to assume to know the relationship between the client and his wife or the roles they now must assume as dependent client and caregiver. Additionally, the response about the client’s wife caring for him may reinforce the client’s feelings of helplessness as an invalid.

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82
Q

The client asks the nurse, “Why can’t the physician tell me exactly how much of my leg he’s going to take off? Don’t you think I should know that?” On which of the following should the nurse base the response?

  1. The need to remove as much of the leg as possible.
  2. The adequacy of the blood supply to the tissues.
  3. The ease with which a prosthesis can be fitted.
  4. The client’s ability to walk with a prosthesis.
A
  1. The level of amputation often cannot be accurately determined until during surgery, when the surgeon can directly assess the adequacy of the circulation of the residual limb. From a moral, ethical, and legal viewpoint, the surgeon attempts to remove as little of the leg as possible. Although a longer residual limb facilitates prosthesis fitting, unless the stump is receiving a good blood supply the prosthesis will not function properly because tissue necrosis will occur. Although the client’s ability to walk with a prosthesis is important, it is not a determining factor in the decision about the level of amputation required. Blood supply to the tissue is the primary determinant.
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83
Q

A client who has had an above-the-knee amputation develops a dime-sized bright red spot on the dressing after 45 minutes in the postanesthesia recovery unit. The nurse should:

  1. Elevate the stump.
  2. Reinforce the dressing.
  3. Call the surgeon.
  4. Draw a mark around the site.
A
  1. The priority action is to draw a mark around the site of bleeding to determine the rate of bleeding. Once the area is marked, the nurse can determine whether the bleeding is increasing or decreasing by the size of the area marked. Because the spot is bright red, the bleeding is most likely arterial in origin. Once the rate and source of bleeding are identified, the surgeon should be notified. The stump is not elevated because adhesions may occur, interfering with the ability to fit a prosthesis. The dressing would be reinforced if the bleeding is determined to be of venous origin, characterized by slow oozing of darker blood that ceases with the application of a pressure dressing. Typically, operative dressings are not changed for 24 hours. Therefore, the dressing is reinforced to prevent organisms from penetrating through the blood-soaked areas of the initial postoperative dressing.
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84
Q

A client in the postanesthesia care unit with a left below-the-knee amputation has pain in her left big toe. Which of the following should the nurse do first?

  1. Tell the client it is impossible to feel the pain.
  2. Show the client that the toes are not there.
  3. Explain to the client that her pain is real.
  4. Give the client the prescribed opioid analgesic.
A
  1. The nurse’s first action should be to administer the prescribed opioid analgesic to the client, because this phenomenon is phantom sensation and interventions should be provided to relieve it. Pain relief is the priority. Phantom sensation is a real sensation. It is incorrect and inappropriate to tell a client that it is impossible to feel the pain. Although it does relieve the client’s apprehensions to be told that phantom sensations are a real phenomenon, the client needs prompt treatment to relieve the pain sensation. Usually phantom sensation will go away. However, showing the client that the toes are not there does nothing to provide the client with relief.
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85
Q

The client with an above-the-knee amputation is to use crutches while his prosthesis is being adjusted. In which of the following exercises should the nurse instruct the client to best prepare him for using crutches?

  1. Abdominal exercises.
  2. Isometric shoulder exercises.
  3. Quadriceps setting exercises.
  4. Triceps stretching exercises.
A
  1. Use of crutches requires significant strength from the triceps muscles. Therefore, efforts are focused on strengthening these muscles in anticipation of crutch walking. Bed and wheelchair push-ups are excellent exercises targeted at the triceps muscles. Abdominal exercises, range-of-motion and isometric exercises of the shoulders, and quadriceps and gluteal setting exercises are not helpful in preparing for crutch walking.
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86
Q

The nurse teaches a client about using the crutches, instructing the client to support her weight primarily on which of the following body areas?

  1. Axillae.
  2. Elbows.
  3. Upper arms.
  4. Hands.
A
  1. When using crutches, the client is taught to support her weight primarily on the hands. Supporting body weight on the axillae, elbows, or upper arms must be avoided to prevent nerve damage from excessive pressure.
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87
Q

The client is to be discharged on a low-fat, low-cholesterol, low-sodium diet. Which of the following should be the nurse’s first step in planning the dietary instructions?

  1. Determining the client’s knowledge level about cholesterol.
  2. Asking the client to name foods that are high in fat, cholesterol, and salt.
  3. Explaining the importance of complying with the diet.
  4. Assessing the client’s and family’s typical food preferences.
A
  1. Before beginning dietary instructions and interventions, the nurse must first assess the client’s and family’s food preferences, such as pattern of food intake, life style, food preferences, and ethnic, cultural, and financial influences. Once this information is obtained, the nurse can begin teaching based on the client’s current knowledge level and then building on this knowledge base.
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88
Q

Nurse Jessie is caring for an elderly woman who has had a fractured hip repaired. In the first few days following the surgical repair, which of the following nursing measures will best facilitate the resumption of activities for this client?

a. arranging for the wheelchair
b. asking her family to visit
c. assisting her to sit out of bed in a chair qid
d. encouraging the use of an overhead trapeze

A
  1. Answer D. Exercise is important to keep the joints and muscles functioning and to prevent secondary complications. Using the overhead trapeze prevents hazards of immobility by permitting movement in bed and strengthening of the upper extremities in preparation for ambulation. Sitting in a wheelchair would require too great hip flexion initially. Asking her family to visit would not facilitate the resumption of activities. Sitting in a chair would cause too much hip flexion. The client initially needs to be in a low Fowler’s position or taking a few steps (as ordered) with the aid of a walker.
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89
Q
  1. The nurse is instructing a 65 year-old female client diagnosed with osteoporosis. The most important instruction regarding exercise would be to
    a. exercise doing weight bearing activities
    b. exercise to reduce weight
    c. avoid exercise activities that increase the risk of fracture
    d. exercise to strengthen muscles and thereby protect bones
A
  1. Answer A. Weight bearing exercises are beneficial in the treatment of osteoporosis. Although loss of bone cannot be substantially reversed, further loss can be greatly reduced if the client includes weight bearing exercises along with estrogen replacement and calcium supplements in their treatment protocol.
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90
Q
  1. A 46-year-old female with chronic constipation is assessed by the nurse for a bowel training regimen. Which factor indicates further information is needed by the nurse?
    a. The client’s dietary habits include foods high in bulk.
    b. The client’s fluid intake is between 2500-3000 ml per day
    c. The client engages in moderate exercise each day
    d. The client’s bowel habits were not discussed.
A
  1. Answer D. Foods high in bulk are appropriate. Exercise should be a part of a bowel training regimen. To assess the client for a bowel training program the factors causing the bowel alteration should be assessed. A routine for bowel elimination should be based on the client’s previous bowel habits and alterations in bowel habits that have occurred because of illness or trauma. The client and the family should assist in the planning of the program which should include foods high in bulk, adequate exercise, and fluid intake of 2500-3000 ml.
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91
Q

A plaster cast can tolerate weight bearing once it is dry which varies from?

A

24-72 hrs

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92
Q

A client has a fiberglass -nonplaster- cast applied to the lower leg. The client asks the nurse when he will be able to walk on the cast. The nurse replies that the client will be able to bear weight on the cast within

A

20-30 min

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93
Q

A nurse is giving the client with a left leg cast crutch walking instruction using the three-point gait. The client is allowed touch-down of the affected leg. The nurse tells the client to advance the:

A

crutches and the left leg, then advance the right leg

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94
Q

A client with right sided weakness needs to learn how to use a cane. The nurse plans to teach the client to position the cane by holding it with the:

A

the client is taught to hold the can on the opposite side of weakness. Left hand and 6 inches lateral to the left foot

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95
Q

A nurse is caring for the client who has developed compartment syndrom from a severely fractured arm. The client asks the nurse how this can happen. The nurse response is based on what understanding

A

compartment syndrom is caused by bleeding and swelling within a compartment lined by fascia which does the expand.

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96
Q

A nurse is repostitioning the client who has returned to the nursing unit following internal fixation of a fractured right hip. The nurse plans to use what

A

pillow to keep the right leg abducted druing turning

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97
Q

A client who has had a right total knee replacement asks the nurse how long the right leg must be kept in the contiuous passive motion (CPM) maching. The nurse’s response is based on the understanding that the device should be used

A

as much as the client can tolerate

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98
Q

A nurse has an order to get the client out of bed to a chair on the first postoperative day after total knee replacement. The nurse plans to do which of the following to protect the knee joint

A

apply a knee immobilizer before getting the client up and elevate the client’s surgical leg while sitting

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99
Q

A client has just undergon spinal fusion after suffering a heniated lumbar disk. THe nurse would avoid what in the room

A

an overhead trapeze because it use could promote twisting of the spine after surgery

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100
Q

A throarcolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO) is applied when

A

the device (back brace) is applied in the morning before getting out of bed. The back brace is fitted to the client. THe closures should be secure but not overly looses or tight. A layer of clothing is worn between the orthosis and the skin

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101
Q

A client is being transferred to the nursing unit from the postanesthesia care unit following spinal fusion with rod insertion. THe nurse would prepare to transfer the client from the stretcher to the bed by using what

A

a slider board and the assistance of four people

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102
Q

A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of gout. Which of the following laboratory values would the nurse expect to note in the client

A

uric acid level of 8mg/dl
gout is diagnosed by the prsence of persisitent hyperuricmia, with the uric acid level higher than 7mg/dl. Additionally uric acid in an aspirated sample of synovial fluid confirms the diagnosis

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103
Q

A patient with osteomalacia (softening of bone tissue characterized by inadequate mineralization of osteoid) is deficient in what vitamin

A

vitamin D

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104
Q

The stiffness and joint pain that occurs in osteoarthritis increase with what?

A

pain increases with activity and is relieved by rest

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105
Q

What is the earlies symptom of compartment syndrom

A

paresthesia (numbness and tingling in the fingers)

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106
Q

An older cient is brought to the ER department via ambulance after sustaining a fall. An x-ray indicates that the client sustained a femoral neck fracture(hip fracture). The nurse would expect to note that following inspection of the client’s leg

A

shorteing of the affected leg, adduction, and external rotation. The client may also report slight groin pain or pain in the medial side of the knee

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107
Q

A client who has had a total knee replacement tells the nurse that there is pain with extension of the knee. The nurse should do what

A

pain with knee extension is a common compaint after knee replacement.The nurse should encourage client to keep the knee extended and administer analgesics PRN

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108
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who had above the knee amputation 2 days ago. THe residual limb was wrapped with an elastic compression bandage that has fallen off. THe nurse immediately does what

A

rewraps the residual limb with an elastic compression bandgae otherwise excessive edema will rapidly form

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109
Q

If a nurse supects a fat embolim the initial action of the nurse is what?

A

initial action is to place the client in a fowler’s position

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110
Q

A client has had sugery to repair a fractured left hip. The nurse plans to use which of the following important items when repositioning the client from side to side in the bed

A

following surgery to repair a fractrued hip, an abductor splint is used to maintain teh affected extremity in god alignment. An overhead tapeze and bed pillow are also use, but they are not PRIORITY item to be used

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111
Q

A nurse is caring for a client following a total hip replacement. The client has been diagnosed with iron deficiency enemia. The nurse instructs the client to increase intake of what

A

meat, liver, other organ meats, blackstrap molasses and oysters

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112
Q

Following knee arthocopy the client is instructed to do what

A

avoid excessive use of the joint for several days, to elevate the knee while sitting, to avoid twisting the knee, and to return to the physcician for follow up in about 7 days. Ice is applied to the affected joint for pain and swelling. Administer analgesics as ordered

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113
Q

joint replacement nursing indications

A

Encourage fluid intake of 3L per day. Enourage client to perform self-care activities at maximal level.
Get client out of bed as soon as possible.
Keep client out of bed as much as possible.
Keep abductor pillow in place while client is in bed (hip replacement).
Use elevated toilet seat and chairs with high seats for those who have had hip or knee replacements (prevents dislocation).
Do not flex hip more than 90 degrees (hip replacement)

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114
Q

joint replacement: whats the normal amt of drainage fluid post op?

A

Orthopedic wounds have a tendency to ooze more than other wounds. A suction drainage device usually accompanies the client to the postoperative floor. Check drainage often. 200-400 ml in a 24 hr time frame is normal

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115
Q

joint replacement problems

A

A big problem after joint replacement is infection.

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116
Q

fractures of bone predispose the patient to what?

A

Fractures of bone predispose the client to anemia, especially if long bones are involved. Check H&H every 3-4 days to monitor erythropoiesis. Iron can be given PO with meals. (watch for constipation)

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117
Q

after hip replacement, instruct the client not to…

A

After hip replacement, instruct the client NOT to lift the leg upward from a lying position or to elevate the knee when sitting. This upward motion can pop the prosthesis out of the socket.

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118
Q

joint replacement hazards of immobility

A

Hazards of Immobility:
Immobile clients are prone to complications: skin integrity problems; formation of urinary calculi (client’s milk intake may be limited); and venous thrombosis (client may be on prophylactic anticoagulants).

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119
Q

osteoarthritis

A

Noninflammatory arthritis. OA is characterized by a degeneration of cartilage, a wear-and-tear process. It usually affects on or two joints. It occurs asymmetrically. Obesity and overuse are predisposing factors.
NURSING ASSESSMENT:Joint pain that increases with activity and improves with rest. Morning stiffness. Asymmetry of affected joints. Crepitus (grating sound in the joint). Limited movement. Visible joint abnormalities indicated on radiographs. Joint enlargement and bony nodules.
NURSING INTERVENTIONS:(same as RF)
Instruct in weight-reduction diet.
Remind client that excessive use of the involved joint aggravates pain and may accelerate degeneration.
Teach client to: Use correct posture and body mechanics.
Sleep with rolled terry cloth towel under cervical spine if neck pain is a problem.
Relieve pain in fingers and hands by wearing stretch gloves at night.
Keep joints in functional position.
Tylenol or NSAIDs

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120
Q

hip fracture complication

A

In clients with hip fractures, thromboembolism is the most common complication. Prevention includes passive ROM exercises, use of ted hose, elevation of the foot of the bed 25 degrees to increase venous return, and low-dose anticoagulation therapy (lovenox IM or xarelto PO). **hip fx compare effected to unaffected side- it will be shorter and externally rotated

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121
Q

amputation

A

DESCRIPTION: Surgical removal of a diseased part or organ.
Causes for amputation include the following:
Peripheral vascular disease, 80% (75% ar diabetics).
Trauma.
Congenital deformities.
Malignant tumors
Infection.
Amputation necessitates major lifestyle and body-image adjustments.
NURSING ASSESSMENT: Prior to amputation, symptoms of peripheral vascular disease include:
Cool extremity.
Absent peripheral pulses.
Hair loss on affected extremity.
Necrotic tissue or wounds: blue or blue-gray, turning black. Drainage possible with or without odor.
Leathery skin on affected extremity.
Decrease of pain sensation in affected extremity.
Inadequate circulation is determined by: Arteriogram and Doppler flow studies.
NURSING PLANS AND INTERVENTIONS:Provide wound care:
Mark dressing for bleeding, and check marking at least every 8 hours.
Measure suction drainage every shift.
Change dressing as needed (physician usually performs initial dressing change): large tourniqiet at bedside for frank hemorrhage
Maintain aseptic technique.
Observe wound color and warmth.
Observe for wound healing.
Monitor for signs of infection: fever, tachycardia, redness of incision area.
Maintain proper body alignment in and out of bed.
Position client to relieve edema and spasms at residual limb (stump) site.
Elevate stump for the first 24 hours postop
Do not continually elevate stump after 48 hrs postop. (can cause contracture).
Keep stump in extended position, and turn client to prone position three times a day to prevent hip flexion contracture.
Be aware that phantom pain is real; it will eventually diappear, and it responds to pain meds.
Handle affected ody part gently and with smooth movements.
Provide passive ROM until client is able to perform active ROM. Collaborate with rehab team members for mobility improvement.
Encourage independence in self-care, allowing sufficient time for client to complete care and to have input into care.

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122
Q

amputation

A

The residual limb or stump should be elevated on one pillow. If the residual limb is elevated too high, the elevation can cause a contracture.

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123
Q

Describe postop residual lib care after amputation for the first 48 hours?

A

Elevate stump for first 24 hours. Do not elevate stump after 48 hours. Keep stump in extended position, and turn client to prone position three times a day to prevent flexion contracture.

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124
Q

Describe nursing care for the client who is experiencing phantom pain after amputation.

A

Be aware that phantom pain is real and will eventually disappear. Administer pain meds; phantom pain responds to meds.

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125
Q

List three nursing interventions for the prevention of thromboembolism in immobilized clients with musculoskeletal problems.

A

Passive ROM exercises, elastic stockings, and elevation of foot of bed 25 degrees to increase venous return.

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126
Q

degenerative joint disease

A

loss of articular cartilage. Slow deterioration. Non-inflammatory. Mobile joints such as spine, knee, hip, and, foot, knees and hips are most predominant because of weight-bearing. Equal opportunity disease for men women and race.

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127
Q

Generative joint disease and joint versus normal joint

A

yellow, opaque, rough, areas of malacia, increased cartilage growth
Loose fissures and cartilage become loose and is first seen on x-ray

a normal joint is smooth white and translucent cartilage

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128
Q

risk factors of degenerative joint disease

A

aging, obesity, occupations, athletic overuse, gymnastics, metabolic disease such as diabetes and hemophilia, genetics.

Secondary degenerative joint disease can occur from a congenital anomaly, sepsis.

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129
Q

Signs and symptoms of degenerative joint disease

A

symptoms are initially in the joint. It is not a systemic problem. Signs and symptoms depend on the point or joint. Pain on weightbearing and motion and relieved by rest is initial symptom. As it progresses rest does not relieve the pain in the patient is often awakened at night, this is when surgery becomes an option.
Fatigue, fever

Will have stiffness after rest. If they sit for an hour or two and then get up you can see their symptoms in the way they get up. People with degenerative joint disease will usually use some assistance getting up and stand there for a minute or two and then go on. Weather can cause more pain in the joint as it is affected by a lowering of the barometric pressure and increased humidity. There may be crepitus and the joint when they move. There may be some malalignment so that the legs don’t look symmetrical.

Major point is that degenerative joint disease is not a system problem is a joint problem. Over time you will get some systemic response such as fatigue from pain and the body trying to protect itself from the pain and they will also get a fever if synovitis is going on.

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130
Q

Degenerative joint disease in the hips

A

men. Can be very disabling. It is a joint problem but is frequently seen in both hips because as you tried to splint the pain on one side, it changes your alignment and starts to break down on the other side. The patient will say that the pain is in the leg, inside of the leg, around the knee, in the client, and has general hip pain. With this kind of pain it becomes difficult to sit and stand. Important consideration of living for these patients: don’t have them sit in a chair where their needs are higher than their but because this is about alignment for them and they boost the ability to get up easily because it takes more momentum. There is a decreased range of motion in the hip, crepitus, flexion deformity.

Lifestyle considerations are to decreased walking. Older adults will have lots of other symptoms as well when they stopped walking

With hip involvement there is pain: weight bearing, sitting and rising become difficult.

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131
Q

Degenerative joint disease of the knees

A

more common in younger people. Dancers. Softening of posterior surface of knee or patella. Seen in older female clients because of degeneration of femoral and tibial condyles

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132
Q

degenerative joint disease lab and xray findings

A

there are no significant lab findings or x-ray changes. X-ray changes are seen in late stages when you get cracks and fragments. The ESR may be elevated if there is synovitis.

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133
Q

nursing management for degenerative joint disease is to conserve energy and conserve structural integrity. To conserve energy, the nurse can provide pain relief by

A

medications – effective if you add an anti-spasmodic, if there is synovitis he made need a mad that decreases inflammation. Aspirin and nonsteroidal’s are used as well as injections of cortisone or hyaluron. Aspirin is used in larger amounts than normal because he can decrease joint inflammation and decreased pain but you have to teach the patient that if they get ringing in their ears they need to decrease the dose immediately. side effects include GI irritation such as ulcers skew can prescribe an enteric coated med. With osteoarthritis, nonsteroidal’s are better. injection of cortisone can be very painful and the next day you may become stiff. It can only be done two times a year and the pain it may not be relieved for a long time. Injection of hyaluron prolongs the time they have to have a joint replacement because it cushions the joint. There’s low adverse side effects and reduce the need for pain medication. There is a series of 3 to 4 injections and it is a technique associated paint.

Decrease pain
relieve spasm
decrease secondary inflammation
rest – can decreased pain perception.

if it is acutely inflamed you can splint it but if you splinted for too long you lose mobility in the joint

Systemic – allow for naps periods: 1 to 2 rest periods per day but this is unrealistic with employment

Psychological rest will decrease pain because you are decreasing the stress in the environment

You can use TENS if the pain is vertebral as other pain relief measures.acupuncture, glucosamine sulfate with condroitin, hypnosis and music therapy can also work

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134
Q

to conserve structural integrity for degenerative joint disease

A

position the body for functional alignment, not for comfort so encourage patients not to put pillows under her knees and to bend the knees and encouraged them to walk

CPM machines can be used because keeping the knee in constant motion prevents it from becoming staff and it decreases start pain when the patient starts weight bearing. CPMs do not replace weight-bearing walking, range of motion, and activity. Research doesn’t support functional or quickness of recovery change.

heat – good for long-term pain
ice – better for acutely inflamed joints or immediately postop. Keep it on for maximum of 20 min. and leave it off for one hour.

Diet therapy – with obesity you want to decrease caloric intake. Standard postop diet should be high in proteins and high in calcium her bill and health

surgery – is done for functionality and to relieve pain. Major surgery

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135
Q

general preoperative ortho concerns

A

dehydration, medications, and insulin levels if the patient is a diabetic

Hydration – the patient in pain may self immobilize so they have problems with dehydration, so check blood in preop. They want to get up and go to the bathroom so they have dehydration issues. For hydration status check skin turgor, input and output, urine specific gravity, smell and look at urine, ask them if they’re thirsty. In dehydration, RBCs increase, H&H increases

With current medications anticoagulant ability as a concern because orthopedic surgery is bloody. Ask them if they have been taking long-term aspirin. Corticosteroids are a concern because they can delay healing. Look at their insulin

Possible infection – preop make sure you have no indwelling Foley for this patient because infection is a major postop concern. The majority of postop total joint replacement infection comes from intraoperative procedures itself such as the equipment or sterile field. Before surgery prevent infection with high-dose antibiotics. An infection in a joint replacement is more problematic or likely to occur because the peripheral vascular circulation in a joint is very minimal and antibiotic is hard to get into it and the immune system doesn’t respond well to it. Sepsis can occur and this will cause if removal of the joint. You can only do one revision and then they end up with a frozen joint. You can use a clean operating room and only have nurses work in that operating room

stop smoking preoperatively. If not teach them about incentive spirometers

Exercise such as quad setting and gluteal setting, isometric contractions for both sides because a complication of the replacements are DVT’s especially in the operative leg because it is very swollen

cleaning regimen a day or two p preop must be done

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136
Q

hip replacement

A

assess cardiovascular for DVT’s. The patient with varicose veins are more likely to get DVT’s
respiratory
renal
hepatic
infection. You can look at the mouth preoperatively for infection indicated by gum disease, dental caries. Urine cultures can be done preop to rule out a UTI 2 to 3 days preop. Most infection however is intraoperative

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137
Q

hip replacements

A

preoperative preparation includes home of environment evaluation and norms established for postoperative period. Stairclimbing is avoided for three months postop. May have to sleep on first floor. Assess their pedal pulses and document prior to surgery because if they are absent postop it is a major concern. If they were absent preop and also postop this is not abnormal.

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138
Q

Hip replacements

A

preop teaching can be done on positioning, isometric foot and ankle exercises and calf exercises, upper extremity strengthening exercises for a Walker, gait training for a Walker and assistive devices such as Fox polls were grabbers so they don’t have to bend over.
C & DB and IS

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139
Q

hip replacement postop

A

you want a firm mattress, pillows for the abduction splint so that they don’t had adduct. You have to keep the legs apart and put a wedge or a pillow between the legs otherwise you can pop the full moral head out of the socket. Raise the head of the bed is more than 45°. You don’t want to sit them all the way up because the full moral head will pop out to to the bending action. Have them lying or walking. If they sit in a chair postoperatively or on a commode have them recline and put a pillow behind their back study don’t set up but are more at an angle, so bad posture is good for them. When you’re turning them, turn them on the unaffected side. We don’t want like dropping.

Exercise
ambulation – when getting them out of bed by them on their unaffected side, elevate the head of the bed and give it in bed to the unaffected side and then they stand. Have bank get out more frequently because it increases movement and is good for aeration. They may experience orthostatic hypotension so be careful getting them up

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140
Q

hip replacement postop

A
teach them the importance of abduction
do not sleep on the operated side
keep affected leg elevated when seated
do not cross the legs
no stooping
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141
Q

dislocation of prosthetic

A

worst-case scenario. Immediately stop activity and call the physician

signs and symptoms include shortening of extremity which is often the right is shorter than the left and there may be a lump on the right side. They suddenly scream in pain and states they can move the extremity they don’t want to go to therapy and pain meds are asked for more frequently. Immediately stop activity and call the physician. They may have a malalignment such as the turned leg, abnormal rotation

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142
Q

treating increased pain with joint replacement

A

treat their pain. Narcotics are well used because surgery is very invasive. It is more effective with anti-spasmodic because of stretching done during surgery. Pre-Medicaid for physical therapy this is a principle of rehab. Pre-Medicaid about 30 min. prior to therapy

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143
Q

total joint replacement postop

A

they may have a trained for the first 24 hours with 200 to 500 mL of bloody drainage in the hemovak, then 10 mL after the first day. It is a vascular supply so there is a lot of initial drainage. 47 days postop you will see a swollen extremity that is darker on one side and if you have a blowout it’s terrifying because the patient has had a decrease in drainage and the train is out but there is some drainage in the knee that’s been holding so when the patient then signees and blood squirts out everywhere it’s scary. A blowout is not an acute hemorrhage just get some 4 x 4’s and tell them that this is not uncommon that this is a blood pocket and it will allow you to live a little better now that it is out. Apply pressure. Can happen and hips and knees. Can continue to ooze for a little bit then stops. warmth decreases

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144
Q

total joint replacement postop

A

THROMBOEMBOLISM
you want to assess every day, use anti-embolic stockings, do ankle exercises. Early ambulation and anti-coagulation is extremely important. 20% of patients with a total joint replacement will have a pulmonary embolism! This is a major concern postop

iNFECTION
this population is at an increased risk
remove their wound suction and indwelling catheter as soon as possible. Assess her temperature routinely postop. they will have a temperature elevation postop. You are looking for a temperature that is higher than this temperature to assess for infection or if it is elevated a week later

With hip replacements the pain postop decreases

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145
Q

knee replacement postop

A

same concerns as total joint replacement postop. They will have the suction drainage up to the first day with 200 mL in the first eight hours.

Use a CPM machine to keep the joy moving. You will see 10° of extension and 50° of flexion the first day and then 90° of flexion by discharge

General postop ortho includes bleeding, pain, impaired mobility, and tissue perfusion. With tissue perfusion and he becomes extremely swollen. You may have a hotter need temperature in the affected knee postop and you become concerned about infection or a clot.

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146
Q

amputation is

A

the partial or complete surgical removal of the limb as the result of an injury, intolerable pain, gangrene, vascular obstruction, uncontrollable infection, or congenital anomalies

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147
Q

rehab goals for amputation

A

provide the client with the knowledge and skills needed for physical, emotional, and social adjustment.

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148
Q

Major causes of amputations

A

Medical (most common reason for amputation) : diabetes, peripheral vascular disease, cancer, gangrene, infection. It is usually the lower extremity for medical reasons and accounts for most amputations.

Trauma such as accidents that involve a crushing injury, Burns, frostbite. It is often the upper extremity

Congenital anomalies can be upper or lower extremities or birth defects. Least cause of amputations

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149
Q

the increase in the number of people living with amputation is thought to be related to the

A

aging population and the increase in dysvascular conditions such as diabetes

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150
Q

African Americans with diabetes have a

A

higher chance of getting amputation compared to Caucasians with diabetes.

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151
Q

Traumatic amputations occur most commonly in

A

among adolescents and adults younger than age 45 years

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152
Q

the surgeon determines the level of amputation depending on the reason for the amputation such as gangrene, cancer, infection

A

circulation in the witness evaluated for ample blood flow to support a wound or incision healing. As much of the length of the limb as possible is saved to increase the clients ability to use the prosthetic. It is easier for the client to use a prosthesis if they have their own knee joint (transtibial amputation)

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153
Q

obesity risk

A

obesity often results in diabetes and contributes to dysvascular disease. A minor injury to the lower extremity of the diabetic can result in infection and amputation.

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154
Q

Amputation prevention for the diabetic client

A

focuses on control of diabetes, proper foot care, and foot screening to reduce the risk of foot ulcers and amputation

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155
Q

diabetic foot care

A

begins with daily foot inspection for discoloration and open areas of skin. But screening by a healthcare provider at least every six months includes the use of a monofiliment tto detect changes in sensation of the feet. It is applied to several locations on the bottom of the foot with enough pressure to bend filament. With eyes closed, the client asks to indicate if they can feel the monofilament. Lack of feeling indicates lack of sensation and possible diabetic neuropathy.

Other studies include foot and ankle systolic blood pressure, vibration perception threshold, and thermal sense testing. A decrease in circulation may also result in subsequent or sequential amputations involving the same limb. A bypass may have to be done in order to improve blood flow

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156
Q

clients with poor circulation are at risk for amputation of the remaining leg within 3 to 5 years of

A

the first leg

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157
Q

risk factors for amputation also includes

A

advanced age, young age, and poly trauma.

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158
Q

Common effects of aging that could affect success with rehab of the older adults with an amputation include

A
changes in cardiopulmonary capacity
reduced neuromuscular coordination
visual and hearing impairments
weakened musculature
limited range of motion
changes in memory, learning, executive function, and behavior

Other considerations include multiple comorbidities such as heart failure and pulmonary disease which decrease the available energy that can affect rehab outcomes. They may also have dual diagnoses such as blindness and imputation. These problems are a factor in determining if the client will be a prosthetic candidate or not.

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159
Q

A geriatric client with bilateral amputations may not be a candidate for bilateral prosthesis due to the energy required to walk and a higher risk for falls

A

true.

They may however be fitted with the prosthesis to enable transfers.

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160
Q

Geriatric clients are at a higher risk for complications such as

A

depression, pressure ulcers, falls, and infections

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161
Q

with pediatric clients and amputations

A

the parents make the decision about surgical amputation for the child and often go through the stages of grief the lost when and future consequences.

Training maay be incorporated into play therapy. The child will require multiple evaluations and changes in prosthetic devices due to growth and development.

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162
Q

Poly trauma is defined as

A

to a more injuries to physical regions or organ systems, one of which may be life-threatening, resulting in physical, cognitive, psychosocial, psychological impairments and functional disability. They may have to have more than one imputation. Traumatic amputation should be evaluated for other injuries that will affect their ability to participate and we have.

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163
Q

Depression, fear, anxiety, changes in body image, and role alterations are some of the common issues faced by those with a new amputation

A

true.

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164
Q

Outward signs of depression include

A

anger, crying, tremors, clenched fists, pursed lips

Less obvious signs include withdrawal, denial increase, loss of appetite, insomnia, decreased energy, weight gain or loss, headache, chronic pain, and thoughts of suicide

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165
Q

with amputations, the client is often grieving not only the loss of the body part but also

A

the loss of function and the loss of independence.

clients express fear and go three grieving process: denial, anger, are getting, and acceptance.

There may be decreased energy, fatigue, weight gain or loss, restlessness, irritability, chronic pain, and fear of intimacy.

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166
Q

it is important to note the family has the willingness, resources, and abilities to help meet the needs of the client

A

this is true for amputation

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167
Q

the role of amputation rehabilitation team is to assist the client and family to cope and adapt to the new changes of the amputation and to provide the knowledge and skills necessary for self-care

A

true

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168
Q

preoperative education for amputations

A

bed mobility, use of ambulatory aids such as a Walker, crutches, or wheelchair; and care of the residual limb to prevent contractures and pressure sores.

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169
Q

if a prosthesis is available, the client is observed with and without the prosthesis

A

gait deviations should be noted and any prosthetic issues identified should be corrected

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170
Q

that mobility is one of the first things assessed by the physical therapist

A

to be able to roll and delay prone independently can essentially determine the client prognosis in terms of other high-level activities such as walking. Transfer is out of the bed, toilet, tub, and car are all tasks that need to be practiced by the client to live as independently and safely as possible

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171
Q

care of the residual limb

A

teach them to check their skin of the residual land after the amputation especially when they are in the gait training fees while using a prosthesis. This is important for those with diabetes because they may be unable to feel pain and other types of sensation to their plan.

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172
Q

A knee immobilizer is first issued by the surgeon for below the knee amputation to help prevent

A

knee flexure contractures and to protect the land in case of a fall or impact. A knee immobilizeris a long orthopedic brace that prevents those medial or lateral movement and prevents flexion or extension

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173
Q

a rigid dressing is

A

a hard plastic device that also serves to protect the freshly sutured limb while maintaining the extension

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174
Q

managing edema in amputations

A

edema of the residual limb is a challenge for the treatment team. Edema is present to some extent and it makes bidding of the prosthesis challenging. If the person with an amputation has a rigid dressing and it has been removed, compression of the lamb for a prosthesis is provided prepares the residual limb.
The use of elastic soft dressing is often used in lieu of a shrinker sock to manage edema. When using a soft dressing or elastic bandage, care should be taken to reapply at regular intervals about every four hours. Shrinker Sock generally maintain their position and function for a longer period

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175
Q

Ace wrapping is performed once the client is out of the

A

frigid dressing. Read wrapping of the limb should occur every 3 to 4 hours. Once there is no longer drainage and the incision is healed, shrinker stocks for the residual limb or stump shrinker’s are ordered for edema control and for reshaping the limb

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176
Q

stump shrinker’s are made of elastic and should be washed daily with warm water. They are worn all day until liners are issued.

A

A liner is shaped like a residual limb and is of a thicker material. It is donned with the prosthetic. Once the client begins to use a liner and starts gait training using a prosthesis your she is instructed to wear the liner during the day and the shrinker at night

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177
Q

clients are encouraged to buy a_________ so that they can continually monitor their plans for any redness or abrasions

A

handheld mirror

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178
Q

an exercise program is initiated when the client is medically stable in amputations

A

lower extremity exercises are given to both sides. Strengthening exercises focus on the extensors of the hip and knee and the hip abductors which act to stabilize the pelvis during gait. Examples of initial exercises include quad sets, bridges, supine hip abduction, abductor pillow squeezes, single knee to chest stretch, and supine internal rotation

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179
Q

positions to avoid for the client with below the knee amputation

A

prolonged flexion and external rotation at the hip and knee flexion

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180
Q

positions to avoid for above the knee amputation

A

flexion, abduction, and external rotation of the hip

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181
Q

Proning, in amputations, is essential to prevent

A

hip flexure contractures. Clients are urged to lie prone which is on their stomach, beginning for 5 min. at a time, a pillow under the head may be added for greater comfort to the lower back. Clients are to progress from being as tolerated, up to 20 min. for 3 to 4 times a day. Laying supine, and especially sleeping, with their affected leg on a pillow should be avoided –> Leads to need flexure contractures for below the knee invitation and it leads to hip flexure contractures for above the knee amputation. They will not be able to use the prosthetic if these contractures occur.

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182
Q

Determining if the client is a candidate for prosthetic use

A

client is motivated to learn and has the skills necessary for self-care
client and/or family are able and willing to learn and have the skills for self-care
there is absence of hip or knee contractures
other medical problems such as respiratory, cardiac, stroke, or visual problems will not interfere with use of prosthetic limb.

Just because a person is not a candidate for gait training with a prosthesis does not mean he or she will not receive any physical therapy.
Prosthetics can be fabricated for cosmetic purposes or if they are doing transfers only

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183
Q

Phantom limb pain

A

the feeling of pain in a lamb or portion of a lamb that is no longer there

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184
Q

methods to help reduce phantom limb pain

A

massage, gentle stroking of the land, tapping on the residual limb, and ice, meds which include opioid analgesics, antidepressants, anticonvulsants, and benzodiazepines.

Alternative modalities include biofeedback, transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS), hypnosis and acupuncture

There may also be residual limb pain especially to palpation. Other bodily pains can also affect a person’s gait and functional ability

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185
Q

complications of limb healing

A

cardiac disease, diabetes, renal disease, smoking, and physiological problems can influence wound heali. Ischemia or infection may result in residual limb skin breakdown H

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186
Q

comorbidities and amputations

A

cardiopulmonary deconditioning may result from bed rest even before any amputation surgery. Deconditioning refers to a decline in ability to perform functional daily activities due to a prolonged period of inactivity. Past medical history is of any cardiac or pulmonary disease can affect outcomes after amputation, and a diagnosis of peripheral vascular disease will assess the level amputation required

The age of the patient and the level of amputation are two most significant predictors of functional outcomes

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187
Q

preventing secondary complications and amputations

A

falls, skin breakdown, and additional complications related to prosthetic use.
1 in 5 patients with lower extremity amputations would experience a fall during inpatient rehabilitation. It is important for him or her to now have to get up as independently as possible. A fall early in the recovery process can lead to the opening of the sutures and the need for revision by the surgeon. protecting the residual limb is of utmost importance, so clients are given a rigid protector to protect the land when they are out of bed.

Redness, rashes, and skin lesions must be treated seriously. Clients are taught to inspect their skin before and after putting or taking off a prosthetic. It should be noted if their skin integrity is compromised especially along bony prominences and weight-bearing areas. The prosthetic can be modified to accommodate

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188
Q

the amputated client is usually first be trained on the parallel bars and then advances to a

A

front wheeled walker. If the client ambulate as well they may progress to bilateral auxiliary crutches, a single crutch, a single point cane, and finally to know assistive devices.

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189
Q

Outpatient care is commonly used for the amputee because

A

rehabilitation of the amputee is a long process. This may mean that the person goes home in a wheelchair level and comes back to therapy for prosthetic training to achieve a normalized gait.

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190
Q

Prosthetics

A

not everyone is a candidate for prosthetic. The amputee must have adequate strength, range of motion, and control of the proximal joints of both lens. Balance, fear, pain, attitude, and proprioception which is the knowledge of the position of limb and joint in space. Each play a role in determining the appropriateness of a prosthetic. Other key factors include the level of the imputation, the condition of the residual land, and overall health and fitness. Individual goals of a person with the name patient was the considered. If a person with an amputation is able to ambulate on crutches or walkers before amputation here she will be able to function with a prosthetic

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191
Q

fitting a prosthesis soon after the suture line has healed helps to combat

A

edema, reduces the possibility of contracture, generally improves overall physical condition, and improves psychological well-being.

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192
Q

The socket of the prosthesis is the part that contracts and contains the residual limb

A

it provides a means for transferring the weight of the body to the ground through the prosthesis. The shape of socket is critical to both comfort and function.

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193
Q

A prosthetic stock is typically worn between the socket and residual land to provide for

A

ventilation and general comfort. It should be put in the laundry daily.

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194
Q

A prosthetic knee unit is required for all transfemoral amputations

A

also known as above the knee amputations.

195
Q

Dynamic alignment is referred to as

A

when the prosthetists adjusts the alignment to make walking have effortless and natural as possible

196
Q

different shoes can be used by an amputee with a prosthetic but as long as

A

heel heights are consistent in all shoes

197
Q

fitting a prosthesis may take up to

A

2 to 6 weeks. During prosthetic fitting and alignment the prosthesis provide initial training in the basic principles of standing and walking. To achieve an optimal gait and prosthetic function, training in the use of the prosthesis is necessary.

198
Q

Any new prosthesis should be worn initially for

A

short periods of several hours and wearing time increases as appropriate

199
Q

walking with a below the knee prosthesis requires 40% more energy and with an above the knee prosthesis requires 60% more energy compared to a self-propelled wheelchair

A

there is an increase in oxygen consumption by that dysvascular amputee using the prosthesis. If the client has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or other respiratory problems increase in energy and oxygen needs may preclude the client from being a prosthetic candidate.

200
Q

educational objectives for the client with an amputation

A

table 19.6

201
Q

nursing diagnoses, outcomes and interventions for the imputation patient

A

knowledge deficit, self-care deficit, impaired mobility, body image disturbance, grieving related to loss of body part, and alteration in comfort due to phantom pain or operative stump pain.

202
Q

Self-care deficit for amputations

A

involve the client, family, and caregiver in setting goals. Encourage client independence

203
Q

What type of patients shouldn’t perform isometric therapeutic exercises?

A

Patients with an MI, ICP, or glaucoma intervene if see happening (patient alternates contraction and relaxation of muscle).

204
Q

How far should crutches be moved in front of the person?

A

6” and to the side so that don’t trip over

205
Q

How much space should be between armpits and crutches?

A

2” (2 fingers)

206
Q

what point gait is a walker?

A

3 point gait

207
Q

Which way should the legs face on a quad cane?

A

Outward so the pt doesn’t trip on them

208
Q

What side should a cane be placed on?

A

The strong side. Move with bad leg

209
Q

What is the proper way to walk upstairs with crutches?

A

Good leg 1st because up to heaven

210
Q

What is the proper way to walk downstairs with crutches?

A

Beg leg 1st because down to hell

211
Q

What is the safest between crutches, cane, and quad cane?

A

quad cane

212
Q

What is a good conditioning technique to help patient in the hospital strengthen their arm muscles?

A

pull ups on trapeze hanging on ceiling

213
Q

If someone has a plaster cast and you are assessing in the 1st 24 hours what should you make sure to do?

A

Move limb/cast with palm of hand not fingers bc takes 24 hours to dry and can leave indents that can cause compression or bruising.

214
Q

What if a patient is itching under their cast?

A

Don’t stick anything down to scratch blow cool air with hair dryer down cast.

215
Q

What is the proper cleaning post cast removal?

A

Warm soapy water and lotion. NO infection if smells=normal.

216
Q

thrombophlebitis

A

Clot slowing or decreasing venous return, it affects a vein, the leg is warm, reddened, slightly swollen, pain is moderately or easily controlled, a complication is PE, and it is treated with anticoagulants and bedrest.

217
Q

compartment syndrome

A

Severe swelling after trauma or tight cast/dressing. It affects an artery, numbness and tingling will be present, the extremity will be cool and pale, pain will be severe and uncontrolled with narcotics, if untreated can lose extremity, and tx is to remove cast or flay open skin.

218
Q

education for hip replacement

A

Dont bend more than 90*, keep pillow between legs and sit with knees slightly apart, sit on edge of seat and slide affected leg up slightly when getting up or down (toilet elevator), keep knee and foot facing forward, and don’t slide leg off of bed (both together).

219
Q

Teach a client taking NSAIDS

A

Side effects: ototoxicity, hepatic necrosis, nephritis, report dark tarry stools, coffee ground emesis, GI distress, or ringing in ears. Inform health care providers prior to procedures (dental/surgery) they should be discontinued 5-7 days prior to surgery to prevent bleeding, and take with food to decrease GI irritation.

220
Q

What should you teach the patient to do after the stump wound has healed?

A

DO not apply anything to stump (alcohol->dries, lotion ->too soft), encourage prosthesis when gets up all day to prevent swelling.

221
Q

What should you question if an NA places a post amputation client in a chair and offers to massage the stump?

A

The pt shouldn’t be up in the chair bc places at risk of contractures. Massage is encourage to aid in blood flow and decrease pain.

222
Q

What should you recognize a patient who is crying over a lost limb as?

A

progress

223
Q

What should you teach the pt with a prosthesis to do if a sore develops?

A

remove and call MD

224
Q

What is cold therapy used to treat?

A

Inflammation, slows bleeding, reduces early edema, decreases bacterial activity, and eases pain.

Don’t apply ice directly to patients skin, don’t fill ice bag or collar with large pieces of ice-they prevent the device from molding, and don’t leave the device full of air because it hampers cold conduction (squeeze to expel air).

225
Q

proper way to wrap an amputation stump

A

Wrap the bandage upward and diagonally 2-4 turns to secure the part covering the stump, decrease tightness as wrap upward, down wrap with in dependent position, don’t apply lotion to stump, don’t secure the bandage to the inner part of the leg (OUTSIDE) to prevent irritation.

226
Q

pt needs to strenghten the upper body (amputee)

A

b/c they’re missing a limb and need to compensate

227
Q

you want the stump to be shaped…

A

like a cone???

228
Q

For amputees, do not elevate the limb on a pillow…

A

rather, elevate the FOB

229
Q

hip/knee contractures can be prevented…

A

by extending the limb by placing the pt in the prone position

230
Q

Amputation: Post op nurse should keep…

A

a tourniquet at the bedside in case of massive hemmorhage

231
Q

CPM: continuous passive motion

A

a mechanical device designed to provide continuous motion for a particular joint using a predetermined range and speed with the knee being the most common joint treated. This prevents the formation of scar tissue
the machine is set to gradually increase flexion and extension of the knee
Keep CPM off of the floor

232
Q

the knee should never be…

A

hyperextended or hyperflexed

233
Q

the nurse needs to provide

A

pain relief, and do neruovascular checks. Keep CPM off the floor

234
Q

total hip replacement nursing considerations

A

neurovascular checks; monitor drains (don’t want fluid to accumulate in tissue); over-bed trapeze to build upper body strength

235
Q

THR pt positioning…

A

Neutral Rotation is important - toes to the cieling; Limit flexion; we want extension of hip and abduction

236
Q

The client needs to perform…

A

isometric exercises while still confined to bed, b/c we want to ensure good venous return and muscle tone

237
Q

Trochanter roll is the ________ and purpose is_______

A

padding placed onsides of legs and feet of a client in bed, to prevent abnormal outward rotation and related sequela.

It prevents external rotation

238
Q

total hip replacement edu

A

No weight bearing, and minimize stress until the doctor says so, avoid crossing legs and bending over. it is NOT okay to sleep on operated side. Hydration is very important

239
Q

Dont give pain meds in the operative hip

A

true

240
Q

complications of THR

A

dislocation; infection; avascular necrosis; and immobility problems

241
Q

THR, dislocation can lead to…

A

circulatory and nerve damage. you’ll see shortening of leg, abnormal rotation, pt is in pain and unable to move extremity

242
Q

THR can lead to infection so…

A

so give prophylactic antibiotics (just like heart valve replacement); Remove foley and drains asap, these can serve as a portal for infection

243
Q

THR can lead to avascular necrosis which is ______

A

death of tissue due to insufficient blood supply

244
Q

The best exercise for THR is

A

walking, swimming, rocking chair for grandma

245
Q

THR patient must avoid flexion…

A

low chairs, traveling long distances, sitting more than 30 mins, lifting heavy objects, excessive bending or twisting, stair climbing

246
Q

foot drop is

A

The foot falls down at the ankle; permanent plantar flexion, they have boards and boots and hi-tops that prevent his

247
Q

A 49-year-old woman was admitted to a physical rehabilitation unit 2 weeks before surgery for a below-the-knee amputation on her right leg. She asks, “why do I have to keep wrapping my stump?” The nurse’s best response is:

  1. “You will have to shrink and shape the residual limb to fit the prosthesis.”
  2. “You want to increase the size of the residual limb to fit the prosthesis.”
  3. “You need to because it is what your physical therapist wants.”
  4. “You need to speak to your doctor.”
A
  1. Shrinking the residual limb and shaping it into a conical form help to ensure the comfort and fit of the prosthetic device; wrapping helps to shrink the size.
248
Q

A client being measured for crutches asks the nurse why the crutches cannot rest up underneath the arm for extra support. The nurse
s response is based on the understand that this could result in

A

injury to the brachial plexus nerves

249
Q

the standard amputation client is a

A

male, diabetic, African-American. Has more amputations for failed peripheral vascular surgeries.

250
Q

**Difference between phantom limb pain and phantom limb phenomena
and stump pain

A

phantom limb pain is actual perceived pain, Internet a cases the phantom pain doesn’t last as long. And phantom limb phenomena there may not be pain he may just feel coldness, heat, numbness, tingling. It is an awareness.

Stump pain is not abnormal

251
Q

assessment for amputee

A

nno other general conditioning and their self-care ability. If they were not walking and doing self-care prior to the amputation they won’t do it post amputation. With a below the knee amputation it takes 100% more energy to walk. With an above the knee amputation it takes 200% more energy so if they weren’t walking before they won’t be walking afterwards.

252
Q

Semi-rigid dressing pros and cons

A

pros:
it can help shape it. You can take it off and look to see what’s going on. We do it because it shapes and you can have them up and walking within 72 hours. This becomes important because it increases body image and self-esteem

Cons:
it is not weight bearing because the can break. They cast in the OR so if the mold is interrupted it can cause indentation of the skin and skin breakdown. You can’t clean inside it or see if there’s an infection. It is a warm dark and moist so it can harbor bacteria

253
Q

soft dressing or gauze pros and cons

A

pros:
it doesn’t inhibit circulation. You can see what it’s doing. It’s open to air and you can check on it

Cons:
it is open to air and can get infected. It does not form the limb

254
Q

There are modifiers that can trigger or increase the pain and sometimes they can take the pain away for the amputee

A

micturition (urinating), defecation, coughing, yawning, crying, eject elation

255
Q

telescoping is defined as!!!!!!!!!!!

A

the feeling of a shortening of the lost limb or changes shape. With phantom limb phenomena you feel that when but over time it telescopes and save away. You perceive that you can pronate and supinate the lamb but it’s not there. Over time it loses distinctness and seems to retract up into the area that it was amputated

256
Q

fading is defined as!!!!!!!!!!!!!

A

it occurs and telescoping when, the proximal part shortens, the distal part moves up the stump

It refers to the fact that over time the fingers somewhat good together the can only have the use of three fingers, then to, then the hand. The perception of the land fades away in the brain or memory

257
Q

phantom limb pain

A

the cause is unknown we should treat the symptom which is pain. Signs and symptoms include:
It appears in the distal part such as the toes fingers and insipid foot
The extremity feels as if it is in a variety of positions and it sometimes feels like the fingernails are digging into the palms like a vise grip
Intensity ranges from discomfort to intolerable pain

258
Q

if there is mechanical irritation from the prosthesis

A

send them to the prosthetician

259
Q

relieving factors for phantom limb pain

A

cold or heat with manipulations
Stump elevation
Electrical stimulation
Emotional pleasure such as ejaculation and orgasm
Massage
Rest because when you are tired pain gets worse
Well fitted prosthesis
Precaution
Blood pressure cuff but tell them to inflated to the point where they can still get a blood supply down and back

260
Q

treatment for phantom limb pain**

A

diet. Some patients should have 60% carbs, low protein, moderate fat
Analgesics because narcotics are discontinued
Anticonvulsants for cramping or shooting pain
GABA
Tricyclic antidepressants
Beta blockers (PROPRANDOL)
Sympathetic block
Stump manipulation such as a good fitted prosthesis
Acupuncture because it releases endorphins
Electrical stimulation massage (TENS)

261
Q

wrapping a stump

A

use a stump shrinker. It is custom-made. Should get a new stump shrinker when the stump shrinker gets loose. It takes three days to make. They will have a lot of swelling postop so they may do it after the first week following surgery?

262
Q

IED amputations

C-leg

A

it articulates of the foot and knee. The difference is that this has a computerized chip.. They do a gait study to identify how a person walks and then they change the distribution of the body and they don’t have to change the body position (hips) two sit or stand. There gait becomes more normal. You can’t go into water because his computerized. It is hooked up to a telephone and can make adaptations without going somewhere. The average soldier with an above the knee amputation has three different lags and eight different feet.

Perfect skin: they take an impression and put it onto a plastic and covered over prosthetic. It’s big for older adults but it is not popular with younger populations.

263
Q

spinal cord injury

There are two categories of coping behaviors

A

emotion focused behavior uses avoidance efforts to divert away from thoughts and feelings caused by stress. These are maladaptive and result in poor outcomes

Problem focused behavior utilizes adaptation and results in improved outcomes

264
Q

the acceptance and action questionnaire is a tool that used to detect

A

avoidance coping characterized by both active and passive attempts to avoid thoughts, feelings, memories, and bodily sensations the individual considers negative. This detection is critical because it can be extremely disruptive and is related to increased levels of depression. Detection can also prevent complications in selected rehabilitation outcomes. Intervention to prevent avoidance is likely to produce positive outcomes. Promotion of acceptance and encouraging a strong commitment to engage in three hours of inpatient therapy as well as outpatient settings and physician appointments is essential for long-term success

265
Q

African-American perception of prayer helpfulness as well as hoping and praying coping strategies scored significantly higher than whites on the coping strategies questionnaire

A

true.

266
Q

The spinal cord lesion coping strategies questionnaire provides

A

specific coping mechanisms of acceptance, sightings., And social reliance

267
Q

spinal cord lesion emotional well-being questionnaire indicated

A

emotional consequences to the spinal cord injury and evaluated the positive emotional outcomes of personal growth and negative outcomes of helplessness and intrusion.

268
Q

Cognitive deficits were believed to impair an individual’s ability to use adaptive coping strategies and contributed to the likelihood of using maladaptive coping strategies

A

true for multiple sclerosis patients and other persons with diagnoses that involve cognitive decline such as dramatic and non-traumatic brain injuries

269
Q

the family crisis oriented personal evaluation scale shows

A

the decree of faith and religious belief in relation to medical care.

270
Q

Maladaptive coping may contribute to complications after spinal cord injuries, strokes, and brain injuries

A

nurses should use diagnostic tools to determine the degree of coping strategies. Teaching materials should be designed to encourage productive coping strategies such as problem solving, focusing on the positive, and reaction and relaxation.

271
Q

Overall life expectancy has improved for persons with a spinal cord injury but it is less than that of a person without a spinal cord injury

A

true

272
Q

two major factors that impact life expectancy after spinal cord injury are

A

the severity of injury and the EU chat time of injury

Pneumonia, pulmonary embolism, and septicemia are leading causes of death after spinal cord injury

273
Q

nontraumatic causes of the SCI include

A

spinal tumors, degenerative changes, infections, embolic events, or congenital abnormalities

274
Q

acute phase of spinal cord injury

A

stabilizing respiratory, cardiac, and musculoskeletal systems. Corticosteroids are given during this phase within 48 hours of injury. The goal in stabilizing the fracture is to decompress the spinal cord and realign the vertebra

275
Q

spinal shock is observed in the initial phases of spinal cord injury and is defined as

A

the absence of spinal reflex activity BELOW the level of lesion. Spinal shock can result in disruption of the autonomic system and can lead to HYPOtension and bradycardia. Spinal shock can last 812 weeks after injury. Return of reflexes below the level of injury signals of the resolution of spinal shock

276
Q

systems and function impacted by a spinal cord injury include

A

bowel and bladder, respiratory system, sensation, muscle tone, circulation, and sexuality and fertility

Secondary complications include UTIs, pressure ulcers, pain, depression, specificity, pneumonia, autonomic dysreflexia, heterotrophic bone ossification, and renal damage

277
Q

a complete spinal cord injury is

A

no motor or sensory function below the level of injury

278
Q

spinal cord injuries are either an ___injury or a ______injury

A

upper motor neuron injury or a lower motor neuron injury

279
Q

upper motor neuron injuries

A

damage to the motor pathway between the cerebral cortex and the end of spinal cord.
Injuries @ T-11 to L-1 and above (cervical and thoracic)
They typically demonstrate a reflexic (spastic) motor pattern.

280
Q

lower motor neuron injuries

A

represent damage to the motor neurons connecting the spinal cord to muscle fibers.
Injury @ L1 and below (lumbar and sacral)
Demonstrate an areflexic (FLACCID) motor pattern

281
Q

paraplegia is the impairment or loss of motor and/or sensory function in the trunk, legs, and pelvic organs. It occurs In injuries at or below

A

T2

282
Q

toucher plea Jia is the impairment or loss of motor and/or sensory function in the trunk, legs, pelvic organs, and the arms. It occurs and injuries at or above

A

T1

283
Q

spasticity does not signify a return of function in a spinal cord injury

A

true

284
Q

C1-3 injury

A

upper motor neuron injury
Has neck flexion, extension, rotation

Weakness: total paralysis of trunk and upper and lower extremities

VENT DEPENDENT because the diaphragm may be paralyzed and they are unable to clear secretions.

TOTAL ASSISTANCE in all realms of daily care however they may be able to operate with a POWER/TILT WHEELCHAIR with a “sip ‘n puff” assistive device which allows them to control devices such as a wheelchair by inhaling or exhaling through a straw

Goals of rehab include bladder care, bowel regulation, pulmonary care, increasing sitting tolerance, determining and providing appropriate equipment and technology, educating the patient to direct care is needed

24 hour care is typically needed

285
Q

C4 injury

A

upper motor neuron injury
Remaining movement include neck flexion, extension, rotation, and scapular movements.

Weakness: trunk, upper and lower extremity weakness, inability to cough, and respiratory reserve may be diminished secondary to paralysis of the intercostal muscles.

Total assistance is needed within all rounds of daily care however this patient may be able to breathe without a ventilator.

Can operate a power/tilt wheelchair.

Goals of rehab include bowel and bladder care, pulmonary care including cough assist, increasing sitting tolerance, determining and providing appropriate equipment and technology, and educating patient to direct care is needed

24 hour care typically needed

286
Q

C5 injury

A

upper motor neuron injury
movements remaining include shoulder and elbow movements.

Weakness: absence of elbow extension/supination and all risk/hand movements as well as total paralysis of trunk and lower extremities.

Can perform self-feeding with equipment and set up as well as grooming tasks, turning pages, writing, pressing buttons with adaptive equipment.

Respiratory endurance and vital capacity or diminished so they may require assistance to clear secretions. They remain dependent with bowel and bladder care.

personal and home care are required

287
Q

C6

A

upper motor neuron injury
Remaining movements include C5 movements (movements remaining include shoulder and elbow movements.) plus wrist extension and forearm supination.

Weakness: absinthe the wrist flexion, elbow extension, and hand movement. There is a total paralysis of trunk and lower extremities.

May be able to empty a leg a bag, assist with level transfers, feed self with minimal assistance, bathe and dress upper body, and drive a car from wheelchair level. They should be able to propel a wheelchair manually on indoor surfaces. Respiratory endurance and vital capacity remains diminished and they may continue to require assistance to clear secretions.

Some personal and home care needed

288
Q

C7-8 injury

A

upper motor neuron injury
Movements remaining include C6 movements plus elbow/wrists extension and finger and thumb movements.

Weakness: limited hand dexterity and paralysis of trunk and lower extremities.

May require assistance with bladder, that nobility, and lower extremity dressing activities that can use the triceps are muscles and thus performed manual pressure release independently.

Independent with eating, grooming, level transfers, and upper extremity dressing and may be able to drive a car from a bona fide captains chair. Is able to propel a manual wheelchair on even outdoor terrain.
Respiratory endurance and vital capacity remain low and they may continue to require assistance to clear secretions.

289
Q

T1-9 injury

A

LOWER motor neuron injury
move the remaining includes fully intact upper extremities with limited upper trunk stability

Weakness: lower trunk and lower extremity paralysis.

Independent with most realms of self-care, in car with hand controls, with light housekeeping, and with management of wheelchair. Vital capacity and endurance remain compromised and they remain the wheelchair dependent. Minimal home making assistance is required

290
Q

T10-L1 injury

A

lower motor neuron injury
remaining movement includes good chunk stability and upper extremity movement.

Weakness: paralysis a lower extremities. Has same funcitonal expectations as T9. However, they have an intact respiratory function unlike T1-9

291
Q

An L2-S5 injury

A

lower motor neuron injury
Remaining movements include partial to full control of lower extremities

Weakness: partial paralysis a lower extremities

Expected functional outcomes include bathing with the tub bench, standing and heavy housekeeping, and functional ambulation with appropriate orthotics or assistive devices. They may still require hand controls for driving

292
Q

complete verse incomplete injury

A

complete injuries indicated total damage to the spinal cord nerve pathways

Incomplete injuries present with varying degrees of sensory, motor, and autonomic function and varying degrees of recovery from partial to complete

293
Q

central cord syndrome

A

hyperextension injury to cervical region and older adults
Motor deficits are greater in the upper extremities and lower extremities so they present with the gate that is less affected that they have difficulty in feeding themselves, performing hygiene needs, and dressing. Degree of bowel and bladder dysfunction is variable. The functional goal of walking is usually achieved in these individuals

294
Q

anterior cord syndrome

A

rare
Occurs when there is damage to the interior spinal artery which can be caused from the fragments or a herniated disc.
Results in paralysis and loss of pain, temperature, and touch sensation. However position sensors preserved. Not very many patients experience return of motor function.

p. 272

295
Q

spinal cord injury patients having neurogenic bowel

A

true., Incontinence is a major contributor to psychological distress and represent a limitation factor in independence and resumption of normal activities which include sex.
Bowel management programs are usually a lifelong consequence of spinal cord injury. A successful bowel program should be scheduled at the same time every day within 30 min. of ingestion of food or warm liquids which stimulate the gastrocolic reflex.

296
Q

Neurogenic bowel in spinal cord injury typically presents either as a reflexic (UMN) or an areflexic (LMN) bowel pattern

A

true

297
Q

a reflexic bowel program consists of the following

A

put patient inside line position
Rectal check and manual removal if needed
insertion of suppository
Digital stimulation which may cause autonomic dysreflexia
Assume an upright position if possible
Rectal check post evacuation
Repeat program is no results or if stool present post evacuation

Stool should be soft

298
Q

Areflexic bowel program consists of

A

put the client in an upright position..or a sideline position is not possible
encourage patient to perform a Valsalva maneuver or lean forward while bearing down. The bladder should be empty before performing this maneuver
If evacuation does not occur perform manual removal
Digital stimulation may or may not be effective
Repeat manual removal and told rectum is clear

Stool should be firm but not hard

299
Q

urinary Center is located at

A

S2-4 so most spinal cord injuries result in some type of bladder or avoiding involvement. Spinal cord injury above the level of the sacrum results in uninhibited bladder contractions also known as reflex bladder.
Spinal cord injury at or below the level of the sacral cord results in an areflexic bladder pattern. They have a flaccid bladder which leads to platter over distention.

300
Q

Complications with a letter program may be

A

noncompliance with catheterization times, recurring UTIs, urethral irritation, and development of false urethral passage.

301
Q

Indwelling urethral cath programs are appropriate for those with little or no hand movement, high fluid intake, I’d detrusor muscle pressures, or limited caregiver assistance.

A

true

302
Q

there are 4 muscles that help an individual to breathe

A

intercostal muscles, neck muscles, diaphragm, and abdominal muscles. After spinal cord injury in the muscles might be effective. Injuries above T 12 maintain the function of the for respiratory muscle groups. The hired injury the creative the lost respiratory muscle controls. Respiratory complications after spinal cord injury remained the number one cause of morbidity and mortality in acute and chronic spinal cord injuries.

303
Q

Muscle spasms and spinal cord injury are often triggered by range of motion and stretching. Increased muscle spasms have been associated with UTIs, they’ll fullness, and other medical complications. Because this muscle spasm can be used as an early warning sign before regular signs and symptoms occur.

A

Spasms may assist them with the evening, transferring, or walking. Spasticity should not be confused with the return of function or seizures. Though in voluntary due to their intensity, muscle spasms take a lot of body energy and can the person who has frequent spasms tired.

304
Q

Baclofen is a common medication used to

A

decreased muscle spasms. Side effect is drowsiness

305
Q

autonomic dysreflexia in spinal cord injury is a medical emergency

A

if left untreated it can cause seizures, brain hemorrhage, and death. It occurs with spinal cord injuries at or above T6. More common in males. It is caused by anything the body interprets as a noxious stimulus below the level of injury. Most commonly caused by a distended bladder were bowel. Other triggers include ingrown toenails, tight clothing, women’s, sexual activity, infection, pregnancy, fractures, DVT’s.

PRIMARY SYMPTOM: is rise in blood pressure of 20 to 40 above patient’s baseline with an accompanying headache..

Other symptoms include bradycardia, Flushing, goosebumps, nasal congestion, and sweating above the level of injury. Every patient manifests autonomic dysreflexia differently was important to note each patient symptoms

306
Q

treatment for autonomic dysreflexia

A

finding and removing the irritating stimulus. The first step is to check the patient’s blood pressure. If autonomic dysreflexia is confirmed the patient’s head should be raised and their legs lowered to decreased blood pressure. The next step is to remove any type of constricting clothing which helps lower blood pressure further. Third step is to find the cause. Indeed the bladder and bowel to look for cause. If you can find a cause keep the blood pressure under control. Nitro paste or nitro pills are often used to bring the blood pressure down rapidly. Surgery may be needed if the cause is internal such as kidney stones.

307
Q

Autonomic dysreflexia can be prevented by

A

bowel, bladder, and skin care

308
Q

after the initial blood pressure confirms an episode of autonomic dysreflexia, the nurse should notify the physician and continue to monitor the blood pressure every 5 min.

A

true

309
Q

spinal cord injury at the T6 level has orthostatic hypotension

A

the patient is not able to adapt to changes in position. If symptoms occur the head of the bed is lowered for the wheelchair is a client in the legs or elevated. Compression stockings should be applied to the lower extremities and an abdominal binder can be used to help increase venous return. Drink adequate amts of water, slowly change positions, and do ankle pumps. ProAmatine can be administered. balanced diet. extra time may be needed for a patient to safetly attempt movement after eating. Use an TILT TABLE. after a person with a SCI is able to tolerate sitting up in a bed then sitting up in a chair, use a tilt table –stimulates a standing position by securing the pt to the table when it is flat then increasing the incline as tolerated.

310
Q

SCI and thermoregulation

A

the body’s ability to maintain temperature within normal limits of 97 - 100 degrees Fahrenheit. With a spinal cord injury of the autonomic system may be impaired in such a way that it interrupts the normal regulatory functions of the body. The spinal cord injury patient becomes
POIKILOTHERMIC –so they have a body temperature that varies with the temperature of their environment

311
Q

how do you lower the environmental temperature of a person with a spinal cord injury

A

use a fan or application of ice packs if not contraindicated room decreased sensation. if they are too hot you can’t remove blankets or heavy clothing, spray the body with cold water, stay in the shade, or drink cool liquids. Body temperature is below 97 that occur in colder climates can be managed by adding coverings or covering the had. Hot and cold liquids should be used with caution because of the risk of burns. Do not place hot packs or cold packs directly on the skin of a person with a spinal cord injury.

312
Q

Spinal cord injury and pain

A

difficult problem after spinal cord injury. The experience neuropathic and musculoskeletal pain. Chronic pain is from abnormal communication and processing between the brain and the rest of the body. Musculoskeletal pain results from overuse of tissues in the body such as bones, joints, and muscles. This type of pain is usually relieved with narcotics and nonsteroidals. Neuropathic pain is unrelated to movement and often worsens with infections. It is a pins and needles pain. It is associated with allodynia which is pain from something that is usually not painful. It is also from hyperalgesia which is extreme pain from something that normally causes little pain. Anticonvulsants or antidepressants may help manage it.

TENS, acupuncture, massage, and relaxation

313
Q

most important topic for spinal cord injury

page 279

A

level: generally a complete lower level injury precludes the ability to have an erection. Patients with an upper level injury can have erections. The higher the injury the more chance of achieving and maintaining a complete erection
severity: if the injury is incomplete there is a better chance for a complete erection

Time elapsed since injury; men who are unable to have an erection shortly after the injury may regain the capability during the first year

Type: spastic paraplegics have a much greater chance of achieving an erection than individuals with flaccid paraplegia

314
Q

spinal cord injury and depression

A

common. Chronic pain sufferers often experience depression. It is important to alleviate pain to help with the patient’s psychological well-being

315
Q

aging and spinal cord injury

A

age-related changes have been found to occur as early as 15 years after injury and around 45 years of age. The experience high rates of shoulder dysfunction, overuse syndrome, and carpal tunnel syndrome. They’re more likely to develop pressure ulcers, osteoporosis, and fractures and more likely to have decreases in pulmonary function, insulin resistance, cancer, gallstones, pancreatitis, coronary artery disease and paint. This may result in the need for more assistance with self-care, new equipment, and changes in the working and living environment.

316
Q

Spinal cord injury patients often benefit from the services of a life care partner

A

true. Page 475 has, diagnoses addressed by life care partner.

317
Q

Which nursing action will the home health nurse include in the plan of care for a patient with paraplegia in order to prevent autonomic dysreflexia?

A

Teach the purpose of a prescribed bowel program.

rationale:
Fecal impaction is a common stimulus for autonomic dysreflexia. The other actions may be included in the plan of care but will not reduce the risk for autonomic dysreflexia.

318
Q

When caring for a patient who has Guillain-Barré syndrome, which assessment data obtained by the nurse will require the most immediate action?

a. The patient complains of severe tingling pain in the feet.
b. The patient has continuous drooling of saliva.
c. The patient’s blood pressure (BP) is 106/50 mm Hg.
d. The patient’s quadriceps and triceps reflexes are absent.

A

The patient has continuous drooling of saliva.

rationale:
Drooling indicates decreased ability to swallow, which places the patient at risk for aspiration and requires rapid nursing and collaborative actions such as suctioning and possible endotracheal intubation. The foot pain should be treated with appropriate analgesics, and the BP requires ongoing monitoring, but these actions are not as urgently needed as maintenance of respiratory function. Absence of the reflexes should be documented, but this is a common finding in Guillain-Barré syndrome.

319
Q

A patient who has numbness and weakness of both feet is hospitalized with Guillain-Barré syndrome. The nurse will anticipate the need to teach the patient about

A

IV infusion of immunoglobulin (Sandoglobulin).

rationale:
Because the Guillain-Barré syndrome is in the earliest stages (as evidenced by the symptoms), use of high-dose immunoglobulin is appropriate to reduce the extent and length of symptoms. Mechanical ventilation and tube feedings may be used later in the progression of the syndrome but are not needed now. Corticosteroid use is not helpful in reducing the duration or symptoms of the syndrome.

320
Q

A patient with a neck fracture at the C5 level is admitted to the intensive care unit. During initial assessment of the patient, the nurse recognizes the presence of neurogenic shock on finding

A

hypotension, bradycardia, and warm extremities.

rationale:
Neurogenic shock is characterized by hypotension, bradycardia, and vasodilation leading to warm skin temperature. Spasticity and hyperactive reflexes do not occur at this stage of spinal cord injury. Lack of movement and sensation indicate spinal cord injury, but not neurogenic shock.

321
Q

A patient has an incomplete right spinal cord lesion at the level of T7, resulting in Brown-Séquard syndrome. Which nursing action should be included in the plan of care?

A

Positioning the patient’s right leg when turning the patient

rationale:
The patient with Brown-Séquard syndrome has loss of motor function on the ipsilateral side and will require the nurse to move the right leg. Pain sensation will be lost on the patient’s left leg. Left arm weakness will not be a problem for a patient with a T7 injury. The patient will retain position sense for the left leg.

322
Q

A patient with a T1 spinal cord injury is admitted to the intensive care unit. The nurse will teach the patient and family that

A

full function of the patient’s arms will be retained.

rationale:
The patient with a T1 injury can expect to retain full motor and sensory function of the arms. Use of only the shoulders is associated with cervical spine injury. Loss of respiratory function occurs with cervical spine injuries. Bradycardia is associated with injuries above the T6 level.

323
Q

A patient with paraplegia resulting from a T10 spinal cord injury has a neurogenic reflex bladder. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care?

A

Teach the patient how to self-catheterize.

rationale:
Because the patient’s bladder is spastic and will empty in response to overstretching of the bladder wall, the most appropriate method is to avoid incontinence by emptying the bladder at regular intervals through intermittent catheterization. Assisting the patient to the toilet will not be helpful because the bladder will not empty. The Credé method is more appropriate for a bladder that is flaccid, such as occurs with a reflexic neurogenic bladder. Catheterization after voiding will not resolve the patient’s incontinence.

324
Q

When the nurse is developing a rehabilitation plan for a patient with a C6 spinal cord injury, an appropriate patient goal is that the patient will be able to

A

push a manual wheelchair on flat, smooth surfaces.

rationale:
The patient with a C6 injury will be able to use the hands to push a wheelchair on flat, smooth surfaces. Because flexion of the thumb and fingers is minimal, the patient will not be able to grasp a wheelchair during transfer, drive a car with powered hand controls, or turn independently in bed.

325
Q

A patient who sustained a spinal cord injury a week ago becomes angry, telling the nurse “I want to be transferred to a hospital where the nurses know what they are doing!” Which reaction by the nurse is best?

A

Ask for the patient’s input into the plan for care.

rationale:
The patient is demonstrating behaviors consistent with the anger phase of the mourning process, and the nurse should allow expression of anger and seek the patient’s input into care. Expression of anger is appropriate at this stage and should be tolerated by the nurse. Reassurance about the competency of the staff will not be helpful in responding to the patient’s anger. Ignoring the patient’s comments will increase the patient’s anger and sense of helplessness.

326
Q

After a 25-year-old patient has returned home following rehabilitation for a spinal cord injury, the home care nurse notes that the spouse is performing many of the activities that the patient had been managing during rehabilitation. The most appropriate action by the nurse at this time is to _______________

A

develop a plan to increase the patient’s independence in consultation with the patient and the spouse.

rationale:
The best action by the nurse will be to involve all the parties in developing an optimal plan of care. Because family members who will be assisting with the patient’s ongoing care need to feel that their input is important, telling the spouse that the patient can perform activities independently is not the best choice. Reminding the patient about the importance of independence may not change the behaviors of the spouse. Supporting the activities of the spouse will lead to ongoing dependency by the patient.

327
Q

When caring for a patient who was admitted 24 hours previously with a C5 spinal cord injury, which nursing action has the highest priority?

A

Assessment of respiratory rate and depth

rationale:
Edema around the area of injury may lead to damage above the C4 level, so the highest priority is assessment of the patient’s respiratory function. The other actions also are appropriate but are not as important as assessment of respiratory effort.

328
Q

A 24-year-old patient is hospitalized with the onset of Guillain-Barré syndrome. During this phase of the patient’s illness, the most essential assessment for the nurse to carry out is ________________

A

observing respiratory rate and effort.

rationale:
The most serious complication of Guillain-Barré syndrome is respiratory failure, and the nurse should monitor respiratory function continuously. The other assessments also will be included in nursing care, but they are not as important as respiratory assessment.

329
Q

When caring for a patient who had a C8 spinal cord injury 10 days ago and has a weak cough effort and loose-sounding secretions, the initial intervention by the nurse should be to _____________

A

place the hands on the epigastric area and push upward when the patient coughs.

rationale:
Since the cough effort is poor, the initial action should be to use assisted coughing techniques to improve the ability to mobilize secretions. Administration of oxygen will improve oxygenation, but the data do not indicate hypoxemia. The use of the spirometer may improve respiratory status, but the patient’s ability to take deep breaths is limited by the loss of intercostal muscle function. Suctioning may be needed if the patient is unable to expel secretions by coughing but should not be the nurse’s first action.

330
Q

To evaluate the effectiveness of IV methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) given to a patient with a T4 spinal cord injury, which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

A

Leg strength and sensation

rationale:
The purpose of methylprednisolone administration is to help preserve motor function and sensation. Therefore the nurse will assess this patient for lower extremity function. The other data also will be collected by the nurse, but they do not reflect the effectiveness of the methylprednisolone.

331
Q

A patient with a history of a T2 spinal cord injury tells the nurse, “I feel awful today. My head is throbbing, and I feel sick to my stomach.” Which action should the nurse take first?

A

Check the blood pressure (BP).

rationale:
The BP should be assessed immediately in a patient with an injury at the T6 level or higher who complains of a headache to determine whether autonomic dysreflexia is occurring. Notification of the patient’s health care provider is appropriate after the BP is obtained. Administration of an antiemetic is indicated after autonomic dysreflexia is ruled out as the cause of the nausea. The nurse may assess for a fecal impaction, but this should be done after checking the BP and lidocaine jelly should be used to prevent further increases in the BP.

332
Q

The nurse is assessing a patient who is being evaluated for a possible spinal cord tumor. Which finding by the nurse requires the most immediate action?

A

The patient has new onset weakness of both legs.

rationale:
The new onset of symptoms indicates cord compression, an emergency that requires rapid treatment to avoid permanent loss of function. The other patient assessments also indicate a need for nursing action but do not require intervention as rapidly as the new onset weakness.

333
Q

Which of these nursing actions for a patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome is most appropriate for the nurse to delegate to an experienced nursing assistant?

A

Passive range of motion to extremities q8hr

rationale:
Assisting a patient with movement is included in nursing assistant education and scope of practice. Administration of tube feedings, administration of ordered medications, and assessment are skills requiring more education and scope of practice, and the RN should perform these skills.

334
Q

A 26-year-old patient with a T3 spinal cord injury asks the nurse about whether he will be able to be sexually active. Which initial response by the nurse is best?

A

Multiple options are available to maintain sexuality after spinal cord injury.

rationale:
Although sexuality will be changed by the patient’s spinal cord injury, there are options for expression of sexuality and for fertility. The other information also is correct, but the choices will depend on the degrees of injury and the patient’s individual feelings about sexuality.

335
Q

hen caring for a patient who experienced a T1 spinal cord transsection 2 days ago, which collaborative and nursing actions will the nurse include in the plan of care?

A

a) Urinary catheter care
c) Continuous cardiac monitoring
d) Avoidance of cool room temperature
e) Administration of H2 receptor blockers

rationale:
The patient is at risk for bradycardia and poikilothermia caused by sympathetic nervous system dysfunction and should have continuous cardiac monitoring and maintenance of a relatively warm room temperature. Gastrointestinal (GI) motility is decreased initially and NG suctioning is indicated. To avoid bladder distention, a urinary retention catheter is used during this acute phase. Stress ulcers are a common complication but can be avoided through the use of the H2 receptor blockers such as famotidine.

336
Q

In which order will the nurse perform the following actions when caring for a patient with possible C6 spinal cord trauma who is admitted to the emergency department? _

A

e) Immobilize the patient’s head, neck, and spine.
c) Administer O2 using a non-rebreather mask.
b) Monitor cardiac rhythm and blood pressure.
a) Infuse normal saline at 150 mL/hr.
d) Transfer the patient to radiology for spinal computed tomography (CT).

rationale:
The first action should be to prevent further injury by stabilizing the patient’s spinal cord. Maintenance of oxygenation by administration of 100% O2 is the second priority. Because neurogenic shock is a possible complication, monitoring of heart rhythm and BP are indicated, followed by infusing normal saline for volume replacement. A CT scan to determine the extent and level of injury is needed once initial assessment and stabilization are accomplished.

337
Q

Parkinson’s dx nursing care

A

Degenerative Nuerological disorder- S/S: Hypokinesia, Microghraphia, Dysphonia, Dysphagia, sweating, urinary retention, Dementia, Stooped posture, slow tremors, abnormal movements.- Tx: Give MAOI- Maintain Joint mobility, high fiber diet, avoid thin liquids, speech therapy.

338
Q

Myasthenia gravis

A

progressive decrease in muscle strength; activity resumes and strength returns after a period of rest- S/S: weak muscles, loss of facial expression, and risk for respiratory failure. -

339
Q

Myasthenic crisis

A

an acute exacerbation of disease caused by inadequate amount of meds, infection fatigue, stress, or hot temperature

340
Q

Cholinergic crisis

A

Too much medication-N&V, diarrhea, cramps hypotension. TX: Tensilon to distinguish from Myasthenia Crisis, Atropine to reverse, Respiratory support may be needed

341
Q

myasthenia gravis nursing care

A

Give medication ON TIME, Frequent rest periods, soft foods, pureed diet, (Crisis): Respiratory function is priority, suction and postural drainage, I & O, Wt. daily.

342
Q

Guillian barre

A

Rapidly ascending progressive paralysis or weakness that leads to respiratory failure- starts from legs to face.

343
Q

ALS

A

a degenerative disease which patients become progressively weaker until they are completely paralyzed- S/S: facial twitching, loss of coordination, voice change, repetitive movements.- Enteral feedings, Rehab

344
Q

Autonomic hyperreflexia

A

Caused from bladder distention- Sudden and dangerous increase in blood pressure

345
Q

autonomic dysreflexia

A

emergency situation-hypertensive crises (elevated systolic pressures of 260-300mm Hg), bradycardia, severe headache and possibly stroke or seizure activity- S/S: full bladder, fecal impaction, wrinkle in clothing, cramps, ingrown toenail, etc. Drug of choice is nitroprusside sodium (Nipride) or Nifedipine (procardia)

346
Q

A 22-year-old client with quadriplegia is apprehensive and flushed, with a blood pressure of 210/100 and a heart rate of 50 bpm. Which of the following nursing interventions should be done first?

A

Raise the head of the bed immediately to 90 degrees

347
Q

Which of the following clients on the rehab unit is most likely to develop autonomic dysreflexia?

A

A client with a high cervical spine injury

348
Q

A nurse assesses a client who has episodes of autonomic dysreflexia. Which of the following conditions can cause autonomic dysreflexia?

A

noxious stimuli

349
Q

During an episode of autonomic dysreflexia in which the client becomes hypertensive, the nurse should perform which of the following interventions?

A

Put the client in the high-Fowler’s position

350
Q

After falling 20’, a 36-year-old man sustains a C6 fracture with spinal cord transaction. Which other findings should the nurse expect

A

Quadriplegia with gross arm movement and diaphragmic breathing

351
Q

A client with a spinal cord injury is prone to experiencing autonomic dysreflexia. The nurse would avoid which of the following measures to minimize the risk of recurrence?

A

Limiting bladder catherization to once every 12 hours

352
Q

The nurse is evaluating neurological signs of the male client in spinal shock following spinal cord injury. Which of the following observations by the nurse indicates that spinal shock persists?

A

Inability to elicit a Babinski’s reflex

353
Q

. A patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome asks the nurse what has caused the disease. In responding to the patient, the nurse explains that Guillain-Barré syndrome

a. results from an acute infection and inflammation of the peripheral nerves.
b. is due to an immune reaction that attacks the covering of the peripheral nerves.
c. is caused by destruction of the peripheral nerves after exposure to a viral infection.
d. results from degeneration of the peripheral nerve caused by viral attacks.

A

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Guillain-Barré syndrome is believed to result from an immunologic reaction that damages the myelin sheath of the peripheral nerves. Acute infection or inflammation of the nerves is not a cause. The peripheral nerves are not destroyed and do not degenerate.

354
Q

A 24-year-old patient is hospitalized with the onset of Guillain-Barré syndrome. During this phase of the patient’s illness, the most essential assessment for the nurse to carry out is

a. monitoring the cardiac rhythm continuously.
b. determining the level of consciousness q2hr.
c. evaluating sensation and strength of the extremities.
d. performing constant evaluation of respiratory function.

A

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most serious complication of Guillain-Barré syndrome is respiratory failure, and the nurse should monitor respiratory function continuously. The other assessments will also be included in nursing care, but they are not as important as respiratory assessment.

355
Q

A patient who has numbness and weakness of both feet is hospitalized with Guillain-Barré syndrome. The nurse will anticipate that collaborative interventions at this time will include

a. intubation and mechanical ventilation.
b. insertion of a nasogastric (NG) feeding tube.
c. administration of methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol).
d. IV infusion of immunoglobulin (Sandoglobulin).

A

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Because the Guillain-Barré syndrome is in the earliest stages (as evidenced by the symptoms), use of high-dose immunoglobulin is appropriate to reduce the extent and length of symptoms. Mechanical ventilation and tube feedings may be used later in the progression of the syndrome but are not needed now. Corticosteroid use is not helpful in reducing the duration or symptoms of the syndrome.

356
Q

A patient with a neck fracture at the C5 level is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) following initial treatment in the emergency room. During initial assessment of the patient, the nurse recognizes the presence of spinal shock on finding

a. hypotension, bradycardia, and warm extremities.
b. involuntary, spastic movements of the arms and legs.
c. the presence of hyperactive reflex activity below the level of the injury.
d. flaccid paralysis and lack of sensation below the level of the injury.

A

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Clinical manifestations of spinal shock include decreased reflexes, loss of sensation, and flaccid paralysis below the area of injury. Hypotension, bradycardia, and warm extremities are evidence of neurogenic shock. Involuntary spastic movements and hyperactive reflexes are not seen in the patient at this stage of spinal cord injury.

357
Q

When caring for a patient who had a C8 spinal cord injury 10 days ago and has a weak cough effort, bibasilar crackles, and decreased breath sounds, the initial intervention by the nurse should be to

a. administer oxygen at 7 to 9 L/min with a face mask.
b. place the hands on the epigastric area and push upward when the patient coughs.
c. encourage the patient to use an incentive spirometer every 2 hours during the day.
d. suction the patient’s oral and pharyngeal airway.

A

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse has identified that the cough effort is poor, so the initial action should be to use assisted coughing techniques to improve the ability to mobilize secretions. Administration of oxygen will improve oxygenation, but the data do not indicate hypoxemia, and oxygen will not help expel respiratory secretions. The use of the spirometer may improve respiratory status, but the patient’s ability to take deep breaths is limited by the loss of intercostal muscle function. Suctioning may be needed if the patient is unable to expel secretions by coughing but should not be the nurse’s first action.

358
Q

As a result of a gunshot wound, a patient has an incomplete right spinal cord lesion at the level of T7, resulting in Brown-Séquard syndrome. Which nursing action should be included in the plan of care?

a. Assessment of the patient for left leg pain
b. Assessment of the patient for left arm weakness
c. Positioning the patient’s right leg when turning the patient
d. Teaching the patient to look at the left leg to verify its position

A

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The patient with Brown-Séquard syndrome has loss of motor function on the ipsilateral side and will require the nurse to move the right leg. Pain sensation will be lost on the patient’s left leg. Left arm weakness will not be a problem for a patient with a T7 injury. The patient will retain position sense for the left leg.

359
Q

A patient with a T1 spinal cord injury is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU). The nurse will teach the patient and family that

a. use of the shoulders will be preserved.
b. full function of the patient’s arms will be retained.
c. total loss of respiratory function may occur temporarily.
d. elevations in heart rate are common with this type of injury.

A

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The patient with a T1 injury can expect to retain full motor and sensory function of the arms. Use of only the shoulders is associated with cervical spine injury. Total loss of respiratory function occurs with injuries above the C4 level and is permanent. Bradycardia is associated with injuries above the T6 level.

360
Q
  1. The health care provider orders administration of IV methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) for the first 24 hours to a patient who experienced a spinal cord injury at the T10 level 3 hours ago. When evaluating the effectiveness of the medication the nurse will assess
    a. blood pressure and heart rate.
    b. respiratory effort and O2 saturation.
    c. motor and sensory function of the legs.
    d. bowel sounds and abdominal distension.
A

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The purpose of methylprednisolone administration is to help preserve neurologic function; therefore, the nurse will assess this patient for lower-extremity function. Sympathetic nervous system dysfunction occurs with injuries at or above T6, so monitoring of BP and heart rate will not be useful in determining the effectiveness of the medication. Respiratory and GI function will not be impaired by a T10 injury, so assessments of these systems will not provide information about whether the medication is effective.

361
Q

A patient with a paraplegia resulting from a T10 spinal cord injury has a neurogenic reflex bladder. When the nurse develops a plan of care for this problem, which nursing action will be most appropriate?

a. Teaching the patient how to self-catheterize
b. Assisting the patient to the toilet q2-3hr
c. Use of the Credé method to empty the bladder
d. Catheterization for residual urine after voiding

A

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Because the patient’s bladder is spastic and will empty in response to overstretching of the bladder wall, the most appropriate method is to avoid incontinence by emptying the bladder at regular intervals through intermittent catheterization. Assisting the patient to the toilet will not be helpful because the bladder will not empty. The Credé method is more appropriate for a bladder that is flaccid, such as occurs with a reflexic neurogenic bladder. Catheterization after voiding will not resolve the patient’s incontinence.

362
Q

A patient with a history of a T2 spinal cord tells the nurse, “I feel awful today. My head is throbbing, and I feel sick to my stomach.” Which action should the nurse take first?

a. Notify the patient’s health care provider.
b. Check the blood pressure (BP).
c. Give the ordered antiemetic.
d. Assess for a fecal impaction.

A

orrect Answer: B
Rationale: The BP should be assessed immediately in a patient with an injury at the T6 level or higher who complains of a headache to determine whether autonomic dysreflexia is causing the symptoms, including hypertension. Notification of the patient’s health care provider is appropriate after the BP is obtained. Administration of an antiemetic is indicated after autonomic dysreflexia is ruled out as the cause of the nausea. The nurse may assess for a fecal impaction, but this should be done after checking the BP and lidocaine jelly should be used to prevent further increases in the BP.

363
Q

The nurse discusses long-range goals with a patient with a C6 spinal cord injury. An appropriate patient outcome is

a. transfers independently to a wheelchair.
b. drives a car with powered hand controls.
c. turns and repositions self independently when in bed.
d. pushes a manual wheelchair on flat, smooth surfaces.

A

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The patient with a C6 injury will be able to use the hands to push a wheelchair on flat, smooth surfaces. Because flexion of the thumb and fingers is minimal, the patient will not be able to grasp a wheelchair during transfer, drive a car with powered hand controls, or turn independently in bed.

364
Q

A patient who sustained a T1 spinal cord injury a week ago refuses to discuss the injury and becomes verbally abusive to the nurses and other staff. The patient demands to be transferred to another hospital, where “they know what they are doing.” The best response by the nurse to the patient’s behavior is to

a. ask for the patient’s input into the plan for care.
b. clarify that abusive behavior will not be tolerated.
c. reassure the patient that the anger will pass and rehabilitation will then progress.
d. ignore the patient’s anger and continue to perform needed assessments and care.

A

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient is demonstrating behaviors consistent with the anger phase of the mourning process, and the nurse should allow expression of anger and seek the patient’s input into care. Expression of anger is appropriate at this stage and should be tolerated by the nurse. Refusal to acknowledge the patient’s anger by telling the patient that the anger is just a phase is inappropriate. Continuing to perform needed assessments and care is appropriate, but the nurse should seek the patient’s input into what care is needed.

365
Q

A 26-year-old patient with a C8 spinal cord injury tells the nurse, “My wife and I have always had a very active sex life, and I am worried that she may leave me if I cannot function sexually.” The most appropriate response by the nurse to the patient’s comment is to

a. advise the patient to talk to his wife to determine how she feels about his sexual function.
b. tell the patient that sildenafil (Viagra) helps to decrease erectile dysfunction in patients with spinal cord injury.
c. inform the patient that most patients with upper motor neuron injuries have reflex erections.
d. suggest that the patient and his wife work with a nurse specially trained in sexual counseling.

A

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Maintenance of sexuality is an important aspect of rehabilitation after spinal cord injury and should be handled by someone with expertise in sexual counseling. Although the patient should discuss these issues with his wife, open communication about this issue may be difficult without the assistance of a counselor. Sildenafil does assist with erectile dysfunction after spinal cord injury, but the patient’s sexuality is not determined solely by the ability to have an erection. Reflex erections are common after upper motor neuron injury, but these erections are uncontrolled and cannot be maintained during coitus.

366
Q

A 25-year-old patient has returned home following extensive rehabilitation for a C8 spinal cord injury. The home care nurse visits and notices that the patient’s spouse and parents are performing many of the activities of daily living (ADLs) that the patient had been managing during rehabilitation. The most appropriate action by the nurse at this time is to

a. tell the family members that the patient can perform ADLs independently.
b. remind the patient about the importance of independence in daily activities.
c. recognize that it is important for the patient’s family to be involved in the patient’s care and support their activities.
d. develop a plan to increase the patient’s independence in consultation with the with the patient, spouse, and parents.

A

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The best action by the nurse will be to involve all the parties in developing an optimal plan of care. Because family members who will be assisting with the patient’s ongoing care need to feel that their input is important, telling the family that the patient can perform ADLs independently is not the best choice. Reminding the patient about the importance of independence may not change the behaviors of the family members. Supporting the activities of the spouse and parents will lead to ongoing dependency by the patient.

367
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient who is being evaluated for a possible metastatic spinal cord tumor. Which of these data obtained when assessing the patient requires most immediate action by the nurse?

a. The patient has new onset weakness of both legs.
b. The patient complains of chronic level 6 pain on a 10-point scale.
c. The patient starts to cry and says, “I feel hopeless.”
d. The patient expresses anxiety about having surgery.

A

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The new onset of symptoms indicates cord compression, an emergency that requires rapid treatment to avoid permanent loss of function. The other patient assessments also indicate a need for nursing action but do not require intervention as rapidly as the new onset weakness.

368
Q

Which of these nursing actions for a patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome is most appropriate for the nurse to delegate to an experienced nursing assistant?

a. Nasogastric tube feeding q4hr
b. Artificial tear administration q2hr
c. Assessment for bladder distension q2hr
d. Passive range of motion to extremities q8hr

A

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Assisting a patient with movement is included in nursing assistant education and scope of practice. Administration of tube feedings, administration of ordered medications, and assessment are skills requiring more education and scope of practice, and the RN should perform these skills.

369
Q

When caring for a patient who was admitted 24 hours previously with a C5 spinal cord injury, which nursing action has the highest priority?

a. Continuous cardiac monitoring for bradycardia
b. Administration of methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) infusion
c. Assessment of respiratory rate and depth
d. Application of pneumatic compression devices to both legs

A

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Edema around the area of injury may lead to damage above the C4 level, so the highest priority is assessment of the patient’s respiratory function. The other actions are also appropriate but are not as important as assessment of respiratory effort.

370
Q

When caring for a patient who experienced a T1 spinal cord transsection 2 days ago, which collaborative and nursing actions will the nurse include in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.)

a. Endotracheal suctioning
b. Continuous cardiac monitoring
c. Avoidance of cool room temperature
d. Nasogastric tube feeding
e. Retention catheter care
f. Administration of H2 receptor blockers

A

Correct Answer: B, C, E, F
Rationale: The patient is at risk for bradycardia and poikilothermia caused by sympathetic nervous system dysfunction and should have continuous cardiac monitoring and maintenance of a relatively warm room temperature. Gastrointestinal (GI) motility is decreased initially and NG suctioning is indicated. To avoid bladder distension, a retention catheter is used during this acute phase. Stress ulcers are a common complication but can be avoided through the use of the H2 receptor blockers such as famotidine.

371
Q

In which order will the nurse perform the following actions when caring for a patient with possible cervical spinal cord trauma who is admitted to the emergency department?

a. Administer O2 using a non-rebreathing mask.
b. Monitor cardiac rhythm and blood pressure.
c. Immobilize the patient’s head, neck, and spine.
d. Transfer the patient to radiology for spinal CT.

A

Correct Answer: C, A, B, D
Rationale: The first action should be to prevent further injury by stabilizing the patient’s spinal cord. Maintenance of oxygenation by administration of 100% O2 is the second priority. Because neurogenic shock is a possible complication, continuous monitoring of heart rhythm and BP is indicated. CT scan to determine the extent and level of injury is needed once initial assessment and stabilization is accomplished.

372
Q

Which of the following is the priority nursing diagnosis for a patient diagnosed with a spinal cord injury?

  1. Fluid Volume Deficit
  2. Impaired Physical Mobility
  3. Ineffective Airway Clearance
  4. Altered Tissue Perfusion
A

Correct Answer: 3
Rationale: Ineffective Airway Clearance is the priority nursing diagnosis for this patient. The nurse utilizes the ABCs (airway, breathing, circulation) to determine priority. With Ineffective Airway Clearance, the patient is at risk for aspiration and therefore, impaired gas exchange. Fluid Volume Deficit is the nurse’s next priority (circulation), and then Altered Tissue Perfusion. If the patient does not have enough volume to circulate, then tissue perfusion cannot be adequately addressed. The last priority for this patient is Impaired Physical Mobility.

373
Q

A patient with a spinal cord injury at the T1 level complains of a severe headache and an “anxious feeling.” Which is the most appropriate initial reaction by the nurse?

  1. Try to calm the patient and make the environment soothing.
  2. Assess for a full bladder.
  3. Notify the healthcare provider.
  4. Prepare the patient for diagnostic radiography.
A

Correct Answer: 2
Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia occurs in patients with injury at level T6 or higher, and is a life-threatening situation that will require immediate intervention or the patient will die. The most common cause is an overextended bladder or bowel. Symptoms include hypertension, headache, diaphoresis, bradycardia, visual changes, anxiety, and nausea. A calm, soothing environment is fine, though not what the patient needs in this case. The nurse should recognize this as an emergency and proceed accordingly. Once the assessment has been completed, the findings will need to be communicated to the healthcare provider.

374
Q

A hospitalized patient with a C7 cord injury begins to yell “I can’t feel my legs anymore.” Which is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

  1. Remind the patient of her injury and try to comfort her.
  2. Call the healthcare provider and get an order for radiologic evaluation.
  3. Prepare the patient for surgery, as her condition is worsening.
  4. Explain to the patient that this could be a common, temporary problem.
A

Correct Answer: 4
Rationale: Spinal shock is a condition almost half the people with acute spinal injury experience. It is characterized by a temporary loss of reflex function below level of injury, and includes the following symptomatology: flaccid paralysis of skeletal muscles, loss of sensation below the injury, and possibly bowel and bladder dysfunction and loss of ability to perspire below the injury level. In this case, the nurse should explain to the patient what is happening.

375
Q

A patient with a spinal cord injury (SCI) is admitted to the unit and placed in traction. Which of the following actions is the nurse responsible for when caring for this patient?
Select all that apply.
1. modifying the traction weights as needed
2. assessing the patient’s skin integrity
3. applying the traction upon admission
4. administering pain medication
5. providing passive range of motion

A

Correct Answer: 2,4,5
Rationale: The healthcare provider is responsible for initial applying of the traction device. The weights on the traction device must not be changed without the order of a healthcare provider. When caring for a patient in traction, the nurse is responsible for assessment and care of the skin due to the increased risk of skin breakdown. The patient in traction is likely to experience pain and the nurse is responsible for assessing this pain and administering the appropriate analgesic as ordered. Passive range of motion helps prevent contractures; this is often performed by a physical therapist or a nurse.

376
Q

A patient with a spinal cord injury was given IV Decadron (dexamethasone) after arriving in the emergency department. The patient also has a history of hypoglycemia. During the hospital stay, the nurse would expect to see which of the following?

  1. increased episodes of hypoglycemia
  2. possible episodes of hyperglycemia
  3. no change in the patient’s glycemic parameters
  4. both hyper- and hypoglycemic episodes
A

Correct Answer: 2
Rationale: A common side effect of corticosteroids is hyperglycemia. Stress as well as the medication could cause this person to have periods of elevated blood sugars.

377
Q

Which patient is at highest risk for a spinal cord injury?

  1. 18-year-old male with a prior arrest for driving while intoxicated (DWI)
  2. 20-year-old female with a history of substance abuse
  3. 50-year-old female with osteoporosis
  4. 35-year-old male who coaches a soccer team
A

Correct Answer: 1
Rationale: The three major risk factors for spinal cord injuries (SCI) are age (young adults), gender (higher incidence in males), and alcohol or drug abuse. Females tend to engage in less risk-taking behavior than young men.

378
Q

The nurse understands that when the spinal cord is injured, ischemia results and edema occurs. How should the nurse explain to the patient the reason that the extent of injury cannot be determined for several days to a week?

  1. “Tissue repair does not begin for 72 hours.”
  2. “The edema extends the level of injury for two cord segments above and below the affected level.”
  3. “Neurons need time to regenerate so stating the injury early is not predictive of how the patient progresses.”
  4. “Necrosis of gray and white matter does not occur until days after the injury.”
A

Correct Answer: 2
Rationale: Within 24 hours necrosis of both gray and white matter begins if ischemia has been prolonged and the function of nerves passing through the injured area is lost. Because the edema extends above and below the area affected, the extent of injury cannot be determined until after the edema is controlled. Neurons do not regenerate, and the edema is the factor that limits the ability to predict extent of injury.

379
Q

A patient with a spinal cord injury is recovering from spinal shock. The nurse realizes that the patient should not develop a full bladder because what emergency condition can occur if it is not corrected quickly?

  1. autonomic dysreflexia
  2. autonomic crisis
  3. autonomic shutdown
  4. autonomic failure
A

Correct Answer: 1
Rationale: Be attuned to the prevention of a distended bladder when caring for spinal cord injury (SCI) patients in order to prevent this chain of events that lead to autonomic dysreflexia. Track urinary output carefully. Routine use of bladder scanning can help prevent the occurrence. Other causes of autonomic dysreflexia are impacted stool and skin pressure. Autonomic crisis, autonomic shutdown, and autonomic failure are not terms used to describe common complications of spinal injury associated with bladder distension.

380
Q

While caring for the patient with spinal cord injury (SCI), the nurse elevates the head of the bed, removes compression stockings, and continues to assess vital signs every two to three minutes while searching for the cause in order to prevent loss of consciousness or death. By practicing these interventions, the nurse is avoiding the most dangerous complication of autonomic dysreflexia, which is which of the following?

  1. hypoxia
  2. bradycardia
  3. elevated blood pressure
  4. tachycardia
A

Correct Answer: 3
Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is an emergency that requires immediate assessment and intervention to prevent complications of extremely high blood pressure. Additional nursing assistance will be needed and a colleague needs to reach the physician stat.

381
Q

The patient is admitted with injuries that were sustained in a fall. During the nurse’s first assessment upon admission, the findings are: blood pressure 90/60 (as compared to 136/66 in the emergency department), flaccid paralysis on the right, absent bowel sounds, zero urine output, and palpation of a distended bladder. These signs are consistent with which of the following?

  1. paralysis
  2. spinal shock
  3. high cervical injury
  4. temporary hypovolemia
A

Correct Answer: 2
Rationale: Spinal shock is common in acute spinal cord injuries. In addition to the signs and symptoms mentioned, the additional sign of absence of the cremasteric reflex is associated with spinal shock. Lack of respiratory effort is generally associated with high cervical injury. The findings describe paralysis that would be associated with spinal shock in an spinal injured patient. The likely cause of these findings is not hypovolemia, but rather spinal shock.

382
Q

An unconscious patient receiving emergency care following an automobile crash accident has a possible spinal cord injury. What guidelines for emergency care will be followed?
Select all that apply.
1. Immobilize the neck using rolled towels or a cervical collar.
2. The patient will be placed in a supine position
3. The patient will be placed on a ventilator.
4. The head of the bed will be elevated.
5. The patient’s head will be secured with a belt or tape secured to the stretcher.

A

Correct Answer: 1,2,5
Rationale: In the emergency setting, all patients who have sustained a trauma to the head or spine, or are unconscious should be treated as though they have a spinal cord injury. Immobilizing the neck, maintaining a supine position and securing the patient’s head to prevent movement are all basic guidelines of emergency care. Placement on the ventilator and raising the head of the bed will be considered after admittance to the hospital.

383
Q
A patient has manifestations of autonomic dysreflexia. Which of these assessments would indicate a possible cause for this condition?
Select all that apply.
1. hypertension
2. kinked catheter tubing
3. respiratory wheezes and stridor
4. diarrhea
5. fecal impaction
A

Correct Answer: 2,5
Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia can be caused by kinked catheter tubing allowing the bladder to become full, triggering massive vasoconstriction below the injury site, producing the manifestations of this process. Acute symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia, including a sustained elevated blood pressure, may indicate fecal impaction. The other answers will not cause autonomic dysreflexia.

384
Q

norepinephrine, serotonin, where histamine released in the cord can cause secondary final cord injury

A

true

385
Q

within 24 hours postinjury there is a 10 fold increase in the area of involvement due to the destruction of the membrane because the norepinephrine

A

stroke

386
Q

spinal cord injury T 11 - L5 has independent self-care

A

true

387
Q

pulmonary function is within acceptable limits for T1 - T5

A

true

388
Q

sensation of the face is preserved in all spinal cord injuries

A

true

389
Q

during spinal shock specificity is a common and potentially disabling phenomena

A

false. Flaccidity is a common and potentially disabling phenomena

390
Q

spinal cord injury C1-3 is ventilator dependent

A

true

391
Q

reflex neurogenic were upper motor neuron bowel is associated with spinal cord injury

A

true

392
Q

complete spinal cord injury only slats above the level of injury

A

cannot sweat below the level of lesion.

393
Q

Spinal cord injury risk factors

A

increasing age ( bimodal) 18-25 yo and elderly
Males because of their risky behavior
Caucasians

394
Q

Brown Sequard syndrome

A

due to a penetrating injury or tumor. That occurs when there is damage to one side of the spinal cord. On the damage side there is a loss of motor function, proprioception, and vibratory sense below the level of injury. On the opposite side there is a loss of pain and temperature sensation. The patient with this type of syndrome can only feel pain on one side of the body. They may experience more return of function than most with SCI

395
Q

spinal shock

A

lasts 1 to 6 weeks. The higher the lesion the longer it lasts. Gradual reflex activity returns and begins the periphery then works its way to the core. Plantar flexion of the great toe is the first return.

Nursing issues:
I spinal shock starts to occur from the point of injury there is a 10 fold increase in spinal cord injury so postinjury assess them for edema
Immediately postop be concerned breathing if it is a cervical or thoracic injury
During spinal shock you have to compensate for two functions which are bowel and bladder because you can stretch it during shock.

396
Q

T4- T6 and above

A

loss of vasomotor control and sympathetic control. They have the potential for autonomic hyperreflexia

397
Q

T 10 and above

A

they lose intercostal muscles and restoration starts to become a problem

398
Q

anterior cord syndrome

A

the court is hyper flex with damage to the interior part. They will have anterior paralysis immediately and it will be below the level of injury. Decreased pain sensation below and hypoaesthesia

399
Q

there is an increasing number of incomplete entries as compared to complete

A

true

400
Q

more than half are employed at time of injury

A

postemployment if they were not employed prior than they will not be employed after. Paraplegics have a higher incidence of employment postinjury than quadriplegics

401
Q

it is hard to find a primary care physician that knows the level of wellness for spinal cord injury patient

A

true

402
Q

C1- C3

A

electrical wheelchair with high back, portable respirator, mouth stick control. No bowel or bladder fx

403
Q

C5

A

electric wheelchair with high back, powered hand splints to allowed to feed themselves, you need to do quad coughing because they can’t cough themselves

404
Q

C6

A

some self-care
Can push self on a flat surface
The thumb is weak but they have bicep fx
Watch for skin shearing unless they have good arm strength

405
Q

C7-8

A

can roll over and sit up in bed. They have a grasp but not very strong. more independence
decreased respiratory is preserved (anything T10 and above has respiratory issues

406
Q

T1-6

A

Grasp full strength
Decreased trunk stability
They need anti-tipping devices on the wheelchair because they don’t have good trunk stability and they can bend over and saw that the wheelchair

407
Q

T6-12

A

wheelchair independent
Can stand erect with full body brace (long leg braces). They can walk with a swing through gate or crutches if they don’t have a heavy bottom but it takes a lot of energy. However they cannot climb stairs even with braces because they don’t have the stability

408
Q

L1-L2

A

good sitting balance–full use of wheelchair. may have lower back stability
varying control of legs and pelvis

409
Q

L3-4

A

independent in relating with short leg braces. they can use canes and short leg braces and be independent with ambulation. However they do not have good standing balance for a long period of time
Continent of bowel and bladder

410
Q

vasomotor control, sympathetic function

A

found with lesions T4-6 and above

Hypotension with bradycardia. May have postural hypotension. put them on a tilt table and slowly raise their head. Ephedrine can be used. abdominal binder, elastic stockings, wheelchair tilt. Problems with suctioning d/t bradycardia

Do not try to over hydrate

DVT –Anticoagulants for spinal cord injury patient is not good. Prevent DVT is by using compression stockings, ambulation or range of motion exercises. No pillows underneath the knees; dont bend the knees too much. maintain good hydration. Ask women with birth-control they are on.
Wont be able to feel pain associated with DVT. Check the skin and Mark spots. If one gets bigger than the other and it can be DVT. Increased specificity after that. No spinal shock in one leg may be a sign of DVT.

HOMAN SIGN IS NOT GOING TO BE PRESENT

Poikilothermia

Aging – body temp decreases with age. they are prone to heat stroke. The higher the level of lesion the more of a problem

411
Q

conserve the internal temperature

A

ideal environmental temp is 70- 72. We want a lower body temp initially because it decreases the basal metabolic rate

Use warm blanket. Do not use heat packs

They have excessive sweating around had and upper shoulders. This goes away after six months. It can make them angry and frustrated. They can become dehydrated so push fluid and watched urine output

412
Q

spasticity

A

Flexor – by noxious stimuli. If we can control it early on makes it easier to control pressure sores and UTIs. Control these flexor spasms by passive range of motion and anatomical positioning. Do not treat spasticity unless there is pain and interferes with therapy. First of of choice is baclofen

413
Q

spinal cord injury patients have the decreased caloric requirement for the rest of their life

A

the higher the level of lesion the less caloric intake requirement. The of the potential to put on a lot of weight. Obesity decreases mobility.

Hyperchlorhydra –increased hyperacidic contents. Treatment??????

G.I. peristalsis is unchanged after spinal shock

414
Q

encourage them to stop smoking

A

smoking contributes to congestion, increased mucus production, more potential for pneumonia and spinal cord patients can’t cough, pressure sores are more likely because of the vasoconstriction

415
Q

skin of the spinal cord injury patient

A

Shearing, abrasions, friction. Encourage them to do wheelchair push-ups and pressure release. Put them on their stomach in a prone position even if on a ventilator because it gets them off their butt

416
Q

pain is a part of life for spinal cord injury clients

A

mechanical pain is due to an incomplete healing of the bone in the spinal column. It’s worse with activity. It is a aching muscle fatigue likely work out too hard. It’s worse when you set. Position changes can help as well as TENS and anti-inflammatory medications

This role pain occurs a few weeks to a few months postinjury it is uncommon. It is a constant ache discomfort in the abdominal area for the pelvis. It feels like the bowel or bladder is filled. It may be associated with hyper reflexia. Make sure they are not constipated or have a UTI

Spinal cord pain–we see this with incomplete injuries. It is felt in the area of the body with decreased sensation. It is due to injury of the spinal cord. It is a tingling sharp burning pain. Distended bladder and spasticity can make it worse. It’s uncomfortable but it can be decreased over time up to 20 years. It is like phantom limb pain

Segmental nerve- Cauda Equina pain –is a sharp stabbing radiating pain due to a bone fragment. during spinal shock this is not felt because it is masked. You can do surgery and get rid of the bone fragment. Meds do not do well but this but TEGRETOL and NERVE BLOCKS work

Overuse pain–is due to the use of other muscles. You most likely get in the arms. It is not due to the injury. They exacerbate carpal tunnel to to the pressure they put on their breasts when trying to push themselves in a wheelchair. If they had tennis elbow before they can get it again because of the weight bearing

Psyche pain–idiopathic pain. No treatment. Have to learn to deal with chronic pain

417
Q

surgery can help improve function but it does not make them more functional

A

true

418
Q

spinal cord injury patients go through the grief process

A

denial phase–consistent supportive interactions are needed. Prism glasses. You want an early sense of control

Anger phase–they refuse therapy, complain of intolerable pain, demand constant attention. You want to handle their issues realistically as possible. Get their issues fixed immediately. Allow verbalization. They are angry if the system not you. Never promise in full recovery. Treat them to adapt. Uses are corrected

Bargaining phase–may renew vigorous efforts so they will jump into therapy and want to be there every minute, but there adaptive devices make them angry because they wanted on their own but they could before. The experience normal depression of any loss. It is normal and situational. Help talk them through it.

419
Q

CPG - central pattern generator for locomotion and spinal cord

A

research shows that synchronous activity with involuntary simply event. Will be able to walk following CSI there is potential

420
Q

improvement of function for spinal cord injury

A

functional electrical stimulation–small electrodes stuck into muscle. Stimulates contraction relaxation. Allows them to exercise and strengthen muscles independently. side effects is increase immunity to infections or diseases

Diaphragm pacer–radio transmitter implanted understand and place on phrenic nerve. Raises and lowers the diaphragm. Can breathe on their own and be off the vent. Cant speed up or slow down breathing

Bladder control–allow the patient to voluntarily control bladder function with the stimulation of the sacral nerve route at base of spine. M these from relaxation sphincters and the bladder contracts may void on their own. Take care problems with skin

Hand control–implant electrodes in paralyzed fingers and thumbs and allow their hands to grasp. More independence. Can’t do a lot of that is because you need wrist and elbow function to feed yourself

421
Q

there are drugs that can help with regeneration

A

4-aminopryidine –Ca channel blocker. dont use with acute SCI.

Methyprednisolone if given within 8 hrs of injury can improve motor and sensory

theophyline

** there are drugs being used to help, but not cure. Here is regeneration and we’re working on this.

422
Q

Upper motor neuron lesions

A

originating brain and travel and spinal cord. If the press or inhibit lower motor neuron so they do not become hyperactive to local stimuli. Damage to upper motor neurons destroys cerebral influence or control over lower motor neurons. It results in a spastic paralysis due to loss of coordinated and integrated cerebral control over all reflex activity below the level of injury. Experience spasticity of limbs and of bowel and bladder function. Men experience reflex erections.

423
Q

Lower motor neurons

A

originated spinal cord and travel outside the central nervous system to form spinal nerves of branches of systemic nervous system. Cell bodies angry matter along spinal cord. Part of the reflex arc. Damage can occur at any segment the significant clinical manifestations results from damage to sacral portion of cord. Sacral damage results in damage to major body functions such as bowel, bladder, sexual response. You have a floppy paralysis of lower limbs. Loss of bowel and bladder tone. The eventual muscle atrophy or wasting. Reflex erections are not possible. Circulatory problems can be more serious because of passive vasodilation and lack of muscle tone. Retention of stool makes a bowel program or just called to regulate.

424
Q

ALS

A

central system ( brain and spinal cord)
Progressive degeneration of neurons
No muscle nourishment third atrophies and wastes away and I’ve
Upper motor neuron to lower motor neuron messages are gone
Cognition is intact
It is my atrophic
Idiopathic cause but it can be due to familial inherited gene mutations for a sporadic ALS which is most common and occurs randomly with no identifiable cause for risk factors
Excess glutamate can be a cause to little there is no transmission or signal and with too much it kills the nerve cell the other side

425
Q

ALS etiology

A

men
Caucasian
Age 56 for predominantly 40- 70 yo

It is a variable disease so different for all people. Progression differs. Mean survival time is rated five years. burnout cases have been reported where they were diagnosed the and it goes away

426
Q

ALS med

A

Rilutek can lengthen quality of life

427
Q

signs and symptoms of ALS

A

muscle weakness starts and hands arms or legs this is a hallmark sign. Can be speech muscles. An experienced swallowing and breathing problems later

Twitching or cramping of muscles special in the hands and feet

Thickening of speech is difficult to project their voice

Shortness of breath with progression of disease. They have dysphasia and dysarthria

Upper motor neuron symptoms result and spasticity of muscles, hyper reflexia, and gag reflex. Babinski is POSITIVE

Lower motor neuron symptoms result in atrophy and weakness of muscles, cramping, the fasciculations

428
Q

diagnosing ALS

A
it is a rule out disease
.Do an EMG and conduction velocity of nerves
Thurough neuro exam
Serum protein electrophoresis
Thyroid for parathyroid hormone levels
24 hour urine
MRI
Muscle or nerve biopsy
429
Q

treatment for ALS

A

there is no treatment it is preserving,
Rilutek

Can use baclofen for muscle spasms. Altrem for muscle cramps.
Meds to dry up flag and excess saliva.
Nonsteroidal for general discomfort
Side effects of meds are liver damage, leukocytes in blood

Stem cells may be a treatment

Preserved and function, mobility, communication, nutrition, respiratory, bowel and bladder, emotional well-being, pharmaceuticals such as antidepressants help with depression

nonsteroidals for discomfort

430
Q

preserving and function for ALS

A

hand splint. zipper poles. can be fitted

431
Q

preserving mobility for ALS

A

caner brace in early stages. AFO as condition progresses. Electric powered wheelchair with a high back. Low impact exercises such as stationary bike, swimming, walking maintains cardioid sites depression and fatigue. Range of motion helps with spasticity contractures

432
Q

preserving communication for ALS

A

record speech at an early time it can be programmed into a computer. The fourth necessary decide how you’ll communicate before you can speak such as what is yes then what is no. Get things in writing for your safety

433
Q

preserving nutrition function for ALS

A

patient and family needs to talk about what’s to be done and if the client wants a peg or not when they can no longer swallow. Fidelity watch before they lose the ability to speak. Given the numerous small feedings during the day. They had problems with choking and this is an emergent condition so use suctioning. When they cancel all of their devices that can be used to suctioning saliva. Following is a huge problem like communication and respiratory function

434
Q

preserving respiratory function for ALS

A

usually die of pneumonia. Use BiPAP at night.

435
Q

A patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is hospitalized with pneumonia. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care?

a. Observing for agitation and paranoia
b. Assisting the patient with active range of motion (ROM)
c. Using simple words and phrases to explain procedures
d. Administer muscle relaxants as needed for muscle spasms

A

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: ALS causes progressive muscle weakness, but assisting the patient to perform active ROM will help to maintain strength as long as possible. Psychotic symptoms such as agitation and paranoia are not associated with ALS. Cognitive function is not affected by ALS, and the patient’s ability to understand procedures will not be impaired. Muscle relaxants will further increase muscle weakness and depress respirations.

436
Q

ALS

A

a degenerative disease which patients become progressively weaker until they are completely paralyzed- S/S: facial twitching, loss of coordination, voice change, repetitive movements.- Enteral feedings, Rehab

Progressive (inevitably fatal; usually 3-5 yrs) muscular weakness, wasting, atrophy, spasticity
tongue fatigue, nasal speech, dysarthria, dysphasia, aspiration, respiratory insufficiency (usual cause of death), emotional lability, cognitive dysfunction

“Lou Gehrig’s disease” amyotrophic= muscle wasting; sclerosis= degenerative hardening of lateral cortocospinal tracts, affects upper motor neurons in cerebral cortex & lower motor neurons in brainstem & spinal cord S/S spastic paralysis, hyperreflexia

437
Q

Gillian barre syndrome

A

self-limiting autoimmune disease triggered by bacterial or viral infection. Peripheral neuropathy causes limb weakness. Dresses up to four weeks before reaching plateau. Symptoms caused by inflammation, demyelination, axonal degeneration or both. They think above the sound and bacterial gastroenteritis caused this w/ URI

Demyelinating neuropathy
MEN
Peripheral nervous system involved

438
Q

Gillian barre syndrome

A

rapid progression from weakness paralysis. Hard time moving leg symmetrical. Weakness to paralysis to muscle atrophy to Plato. Initially deep tendon reflexes decrease and then disappear in the involved areas

Severity depends upon which nerves are involved

Sensory losses variable. There Moorad advantage because they have reduced sensation of pain, temperature, vibration, or physician. those who don’t have sensory loss will always be calling into the Van because everything hurt them

Autonomic disturbances include tachycardia bradycardia, labile BP, flushing her sweating which lasts about two weeks

Respiratory weakness is the number one concern.
peripheral Effects can be reversible and it resides after 24 weeks

5% die of respiratory or cardiovascular complications or problems related to immobility such as DVTs

The shorter the plateau time the better prognosis for recovery.
When they go up quickly to quadriplegia than plateau that will take them a year or more to get back to function

Residual is most common is weakness of the foot 4 foot drop. It’s worse when they’re tired

439
Q

Gillian barre syndrome treatment

A

supportive care
Plasmapheresis which exchanges plasma or IgG. It works well in first two weeks of severe upward progression of symptoms but it shortens the duration and decreases the time needed for a ventilator and get the patient walking quicker

Bowel and bladder support. Opiates and bed rest make a potential for adynamic ileus greater. watch and listen to bowels because you don’t want to continue feeding the patient if their getting an adynamic ileus. stop thieves if there is a decrease in bowel sounds

DVT prophylaxis

Cardiac and homodynamic monitoring–monitor them for arrhythmias. Bradycardia needs to be treated. May need temporary pacemakers. Suction them but watch affects of suctioning on bradycardia

Respiratory issues. If they are having and a sending paralysis and it is above the waist you have respiratory involvement at T4-6, 10. They might have compromised respiratory function and Cough, have an increased risk of aspiration, and fatigue of respiratory muscles

pain management–pain is not well controlled. Nonsteroidal’s and Tylenol is used. Tricyclic antidepressants can work. GABA. If using narcotics monster effects on bradycardia and respirations

440
Q

rehab principles for guillian barre syndrome

A

pacing and fatigue

If too fatigued there is a paradoxical weakening of the muscles. They may lose weight during the upward swing of the disease. Use assistive devices and make sure they fit well

Many report extreme fatigue with no symptoms. Fatigue affects social interactions. Need lifestyle modifications

Ascending = plateau?
Descending = respiratory?
441
Q

A female client with Guillain-Barré syndrome has paralysis affecting the respiratory muscles and requires mechanical ventilation. When the client asks the nurse about the paralysis, how should the nurse respond?

a. “You may have difficulty believing this, but the paralysis caused by this disease is temporary.”
b. “You’ll have to accept the fact that you’re permanently paralyzed. However, you won’t have any sensory loss.”
c. “It must be hard to accept the permanency of your paralysis.”
d. “You’ll first regain use of your legs and then your arms.”

A

Answer A. The nurse should inform the client that the paralysis that accompanies Guillain-Barré syndrome is only temporary. Return of motor function begins proximally and extends distally in the legs.

442
Q

Female client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome. The nurse inquires during the nursing admission interview if the client has history of:

a. Seizures or trauma to the brain
b. Meningitis during the last 5 years
c. Back injury or trauma to the spinal cord
d. Respiratory or gastrointestinal infection during the previous month.

A

Answer D. Guillain-Barré syndrome is a clinical syndrome of unknown origin that involves cranial and peripheral nerves. Many clients report a history of respiratory or gastrointestinal infection in the 1 to 4 weeks before the onset of neurological deficits. Occasionally, the syndrome can be triggered by vaccination or surgery.

443
Q

A female client with Guillian-Barre syndrome has ascending paralysis and is intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation. Which of the following strategies would the nurse incorporate in the plan of care to help the client cope with this illness?

a. Giving client full control over care decisions and restricting visitors
b. Providing positive feedback and encouraging active range of motion
c. Providing information, giving positive feedback, and encouraging relaxation
d. Providing intravaneously administered sedatives, reducing distractions and limiting visitors

A

Answer C. The client with Guillain-Barré syndrome experiences fear and anxiety from the ascending paralysis and sudden onset of the disorder. The nurse can alleviate these fears by providing accurate information about the client’s condition, giving expert care and positive feedback to the client, and encouraging relaxation and distraction. The family can become involved with selected care activities and provide diversion for the client as well.

444
Q

guillian barre

A

Begins in extremities: weakness, paralysis, respiratory failure
Progressive ascending muscle weakness of the limbs with: symmetric flaccid paralysis; paresthesias or numbness; loss of tendon reflexes.
Autonomic nervous system involvement causes postural hypotension, dysrrhythmias, facial flushing, diaphoresis, and urinary retention.
Pain occurring with the slightest of movements is a common feature.
Crisis: will progress to medical emergency, likely respiratory failure.

445
Q

The nurse is admitting a client with Guillian- Barre syndrome to the nursing unit. The client has an ascending paralysis to the level of the waist. Knowing the complication of the disorder, the nurse brings which of the following items into the client’s room?

◦ A. Nebulizer and pulse oximeter
◦ B. Blood pressure and flashlight
◦ C. Flashlight and incentive spirometer
◦ D. Electrocardiographic monitoring electrodes and intubation tray

A

D- Electrocardiographic monitoring electrodes and intubation tray

446
Q

myasthenia gravis

A

chronic autoimmune neuromuscular disease characterized by varying degrees of weakness of skeletal or voluntary muscles in the body. Variable

Hallmark is muscle weakness that increases during periods of activity and did proves after rest.

Muscles that control eye and eyelid movements, facial expression, chewing, talking and swallowing are often involved

may complain of PTOSIS of EYELID. VI works in the amount of spare. If there is a lesson on the night droops

Progresses 5 to 10 years

No sensory loss
Reflexes are normal
Muscle atrophy is not common
Rare so it can be misdiagnosed

447
Q

myasthenia gravis physiological changes

A

antibodies attack AChRs which causes fatigue and neuromuscular symptoms
Erratic symptomatology and frequently presents and women of 20 to 30 years old

HIGH STRUNG FEMALE

damages receptor sites and decreases the number of receptor sites

448
Q

the drug to know for myasthenia gravis is

A

Mestinon

Take the medication exactly when due otherwise they can have a myasthenia crisis. Take with milk or crackers to inhibit the GI s/e of abd cramps, N/V, diarrhea

side effect: Muscarinic effects: N/V, diarrhea, abd cramps, increased salivation, increased bronchial secretions, diaphoresis. Nicotinic effects: Muscle cramps, fasciculations, weakness

449
Q

general symptoms of myasthenia gravis… skeletal muscles are involved

A

ocular involvement which affects facial expression, chewing, talking. They get tired a lot after a while of chewing

Ocular: diplopia and ptosis @ onset. worse in evening because you are tired

450
Q

diagnostic tests for myasthenia gravis

A

Gaze test – have them look up and you’ll see a drooping of the eyelid if they have ocular involvement

**Tensilon (edrophonium chloride) test*
You get the drug IV. It increases the strength 5 to 10 min. after administered. Doesn’t last very long it is gone 10 to 15 min. but it is the best test

Serum testing you’re looking for antibodies
Electromyography is harder to get done

451
Q

myasthenic crisis**

A

quick onset
Precipitated by emotional stress, pregnancy, illness or trauma, hypokalemia, surgery

Assess the patient

Major complications include respiratory because they are at risk for aspiration and it can start within minutes

With this crisis they have increased muscle weakness.

Calcium channel blockers beta blockers anti-arrythmics

452
Q

cholinergic crisis

A

it is the same thing as myasthenic crisis BUT too little or too much?

453
Q

the Tensilon test will determine which crisis the patient is in

A

have ambu bag and intubation ready
if they get better they have myasthenic crisis
If they get worse they have cholinergic crisis

  1. injected intravenously
  2. atropine sulfate is antidote for overdose
  3. to diagnose MG - most clients will see improvement in 30-60sec/lasts 4-5 min

Edrophonium chloride is used. –Decreases amount of cholinesterase(inhibits the enzyme that breaks down Ach) at neuromuscular junction while making Ach avail to muscles and improving muscle contractility within 30-60 seconds

454
Q

treatment for cholinergic crisis

A

cholinesterase inhibitors –Prevent degradation of ACh. Pyridostigmine bromide. Side effects are muscarinic or nicotinic. Muscarinic – nausea vomiting diarrhea, abdominal cramps, increased bronchial secretions, diaphoresis. Nicotinic side effects – muscle cramps, fasciculations, weakness. As they start to get better they have the side effects and you get compliance issues****

Immunosuppressive drugs–prednisone (narrow therapeutic range)

** thymectomy –the removal of the finest land may cause permission of the symptoms. Any patients will want this but they anesthetic drugs are very problematic for this patient. They are at extreme risk for complications

Plasma exchange – plasmapheresis. Use for acute exacerbation. They will only last three months

IV IgG –relief is temporary

drying out** – if they need an increased amount of the strength of the drug and they’re getting side effects are bed. You hospitalize them and drive them out with a drug holiday. They will be hospitalize that they have respiratory involvement

455
Q

quality-of-life issues for myasthenic patient

A

adjust eating routine
Small and frequent meals for less chewing
Don’t want a lot of hard chewing
Avoid soft sticky foods
want a high potassium level so have broccoli and bananas
want safety at home so card frills and no clutter
Electrical or power tools you don’t get tired
Using eyepatch
Plan things ahead of time so by things from the same store instead of going to multiple stores
Don’t plan on shopping after work because you’re tired
Get frequent rest periods and explained to the employer that you need 5 to 10 min. rest periods
Don’t be afraid to ask for help

456
Q

myasthenia gravis

A

defect in the transmission of nerve impulses to muscles
antibodies block/alter/destroy the receptors for acetylcholine at neuromuscular junction, preventing muscle contraction
autoimmune disease that prevents muscle contration

Auto immune dz that attacks the receptor sites of Ach in the neuromuscular junction. T cells are attacking these receptors in turn causing m muscle contraction. Only effects skeletal muscle-NOT smooth muscle of organs like bladder or heart

Extreme muscular weakness & easy to fatigue-SYMMETRICALLY involved. Gets worse with activity and improves with rest. Leg weakness is less common, but can progress to walking difficulty. Weakness and easy fatigue of arm and hand muscles. Progressive weakness of diaphragm, intercostal and abdominal muscles. DOES NOT ALTER INTELLECTURAL FUNCTIONING OR AWARENESS

Affects: 1. voluntary muscles

  1. eye control
  2. eyelid movement, double vision (diplopia)
  3. facial expression
  4. swallowing
457
Q

first signs of myasthenia

A
  1. eye weakness (ptosis)
  2. difficulty chewing/swallowing (dysphasia)
  3. slurred speach
458
Q

myasthenic crisis occurs when

A

the muscles controlling respiratory function become too weak to provide adequate ventillation

Under medication

459
Q

cholinergic crisis

A

medication overdose with anticholinersterase

They were in a cholinergic crisis and had too much mestinon in their system and you need to give them atropine to reverse it

460
Q

where does myasthenia gravis affect first?

A

The eye muscles s/s=diplopia, ptosis

461
Q

what does cholinergic crisis look like?

A

BRADYCARDIA, Weakness, respiratory distress, inability to speak or swallow, restless, increased salivation, lacrimation, bronchial secretions, sweating, GI symptoms (n/v, diarrhea)

462
Q

what does myasthenia crisis look like?

A

Weakness respiratory distress, inability to speak or swallow, TACHYCARDIA, restless

463
Q

adverse reactions to tensilon test

A

Bradycardia, bronchospasm, neuromuscular, cardiovascular, & ocular reactions

464
Q

drugs that can cause a myasthenic crsis

A

Antibiotics, beta blockers, Ca++ channel blockers, lithium, Mg++, procaine, prednisone, Anticholinergics, muscle relaxers, anesthetics

465
Q

The nurse is reviewing the newly prescribed medication for the client with myasthenia gravis. Based upon knowledge of the disease, the nurse will ensure that the medication is found within which of the following categories?

A

Rationale: The primary group of medications used to treat myasthenia gravis is the anticholinesterases. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors are used to treat depression, neuroleptics are used in psychopharmacology, and anticholinergics are used to treat Parkinson’s disease.

466
Q

Which of the following nursing interventions related to impaired swallowing to be taught to the client with myasthenia gravis and the client’s family members is the most important?

A

Rationale: Dysphagic clients are at risk for aspiration; matching food consistency to the client’s ability to swallow enhances safety. The dosage of medication may require adjustments. Heimlich’s maneuver will have no effect unless the client has solid food lodged in the trachea. Meals should be scheduled when the client is rested. Pyridostigmine (Mestinon) is given through daily dosage and administration is not associated with meal schedule.

467
Q

The client with longstanding myasthenia gravis is admitted to the acute care unit after having been diagnosed and treated for cholinergic crisis. Which of the following warning signs of cholinergic crisis will the nurse teach the family?

A

Rationale: The usual cause of cholinergic crisis is overmedication while the cause of myasthenic crisis is under medication. Manifestations of cholinergic crisis include gastrointestinal manifestations, severe muscle weakness, vertigo, and respiratory distress.

468
Q

Myasthenic crisis occurs when:

A

the muscles controlling respiratory function become too weak to provide adequate ventillation

469
Q

Myasthenia Gravis nursing interventions

A
  1. take meds on time to maintain blood level
  2. take w/ small amount of food
  3. eat meal w/in 45min-1hr after taking med to
    decrease risk of aspiration
  4. have ER rescuscitation equip/atrophine
    sulfate for cholinergic crisis
470
Q

parkinons dx is

A

slow, progressive, degenerative disease caused by the depletion of dopamine resulting in the inhibition of excitory muscles

471
Q

parkinsons can result in

A
  1. falls
  2. self-care deficits
  3. failure of body systems
  4. depression
  5. mental deterioration (late in the process)
472
Q

parkinsons symptoms

A
  1. bradykinesia (slow motor movements)
  2. sluggishness of physical/mental responses
  3. akensia (absence/poverty of movement)
  4. monotonous speach
  5. tremors in hands/fingers (pill rolling)
  6. drooling
  7. aphasia/dysphagia
  8. shuffling/stooped posture
  9. restlessness/pacing
  10. loss of coordination/balance
473
Q

parkinsons interventions

A
assess neuro status
assess ability to swallow/chew
provide high-calorie/protein/fiber diet
provide soft diet w/small frequent feedings
increase fluids to 2000 ml/day
monitor for constipation
assist w/ambulation
provide assistive devices
instruct client to wear low healed shoes
avoid prolonged sitting
474
Q

nticholergenic Meds in PD are used to treat/reduce:

A
  1. tremors/rigidity/drooling
  2. inhibit the action of acetylcholine

Contraindicated with:
- glaucoma
- COPD (can develop dry, thick mucous
secretions)

475
Q

The nurse identifies the nursing diagnosis of impaired physical mobility related to bradykinesia for a patient with Parkinson’s disease. To assist the patient to ambulate safely, the nurse should
a.
allow the patient to ambulate only with assistance.
b.
instruct the patient to rock from side to side to initiate leg movement.
c.
have the patient take small steps in a straight line directly in front of the feet.
d.
teach the patient to keep the feet in contact with the floor and slide them forward.

A

orrect Answer: B
Rationale: Rocking the body from side to side stimulates balance and improves mobility. The patient should initially be ambulated with assistance but might not require continual assistance with ambulation. The patient should maintain a wide base of support to help with balance. The patient should lift the feet and avoid a shuffling gait.

476
Q

A patient who has been taking bromocriptine (Parlodel) and benztropine (Cogentin) for Parkinson’s disease is experiencing a worsening of symptoms. The nurse will anticipate that patient may benefit from
a.
complete drug withdrawal for a few weeks.
b.
use of levodopa (L-dopa)-carbidopa (Sinemet).
c.
withdrawal of anticholinergic therapy.
d.
increasing the dose of bromocriptine.

A

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: After the dopamine receptor agonists begin to fail to relieve symptoms, the addition of L-dopa with carbidopa can be added to the regimen. Complete drug withdrawal will result in worsening of symptoms. Anticholinergic therapy should be continued to help maintain the balance between the actions of dopamine and acetylcholine. Increasing the dose of bromocriptine will increase the risk for toxic effects.

477
Q
  1. A patient with Parkinson’s disease has decreased tongue mobility and an inability to move the facial muscles. The nurse recognizes that these impairments commonly contribute to the nursing diagnosis of
    a.
    disuse syndrome related to loss of muscle control.
    b.
    self-care deficit related to bradykinesia and rigidity.
    c.
    impaired verbal communication related to difficulty articulating.
    d.
    impaired oral mucous membranes related to inability to swallow.
A

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The inability to use the tongue and facial muscles decreases the patient’s ability to socialize or communicate needs. Disuse syndrome is not an appropriate nursing diagnosis because the patient is continuing to use the muscles as much as possible. There is no indication in the stem that the patient has a self-care deficit, bradykinesia, or rigidity. The oral mucous membranes will continue to be moist and should not be impaired by the patient’s difficulty swallowing.

478
Q

A patient has a new prescription for levodopa (L-dopa) to control symptoms of Parkinson’s disease. Which assessment data obtained by the nurse may indicate a need for a decrease in the dose?
a.
The patient has a chronic dry cough.
b.
The patient has 4 loose stools in a day.
c.
The patient develops a deep vein thrombosis.
d.
The patient’s blood pressure is 90/46 mm Hg.

A

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hypotension is an adverse effect of L-dopa, and the nurse should check with the health care provider before giving the medication. Diarrhea, cough, and deep vein thrombosis are not associated with L-dopa use.

479
Q
31. A patient is seen in the health clinic with symptoms of a stooped posture, shuffling gait, and pill rolling-type tremor. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about
a.
preparation for an MRI.
b.
purpose of EEG testing.
c.
antiparkinsonian drugs.
d.
oral corticosteroids.
A

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The diagnosis of Parkinson’s is made when two of the three characteristic signs of tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia are present. The confirmation of the diagnosis is made on the basis of improvement when antiparkinsonian drugs are administered. This patient has symptoms of tremor and bradykinesia; the next anticipated step will be treatment with medications. MRI and EEG are not useful in diagnosing Parkinson’s disease, and corticosteroid therapy is not used to treat it.

480
Q

Coexisting dementia and depression are identified in a patient with Parkinson’s disease. The nurse anticipates that the greatest improvement in the patient’s condition will occur with administration of
a.
antipsychotic drugs.
b.
anticholinergic agents.
c.
dopaminergic agents and antidepressant drugs.
d.
selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) agents.

A

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Parkinson’s disease and depression are both potentially reversible conditions, and the patient’s symptoms that are caused by these two conditions will improve with appropriate treatment. Anticholinergic agents are likely to worsen the patient’s condition because they will block the effect of acetylcholine at the synaptic cleft. There is no indication that the patient needs an antipsychotic agent at this time. A selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be effective for the depression, but it does not address the patient’s other conditions.

481
Q

When administering anticholinergic drugs to a client w/ Parkinson’s disease, the nurse is least likely to teach the client which of the following?

1) Rinse w/ warm water to decrease sensation of dry mouth
2) Take laxative of choice for constipation
3) Report immediate heart rate

A

Report immediate heart rate

482
Q

A nurse is assigned to care for a client with Parkinson’s disease who has recently begun taking L-dopa (levodopa). Which of the following is most important to check before ambulating the client?

  1. The client’s history of falls
  2. Assistive devices used by the client
  3. The client’s postural (orthostatic) vital signs
  4. The degree of intention tremors exhibited by the client
A
  1. The client’s postural (orthostatic) vital signs
    Rationale: Clients with Parkinson’s disease are at risk for postural (orthostatic) hypotension from the disease. This problem worsens when L-dopa is introduced because the medication can also cause postural hypotension, thus increasing the client’s risk for falls. Although knowledge of the client’s use of assistive devices and history of falls is helpful, it is not the most important piece of data based on the information in this question. Clients with Parkinson’s disease generally have resting rather then intention tremors.
483
Q

Which of the following nursing measures should be included when caring for a client with Parkinson’s disease?

a) put color on rails in going upstairs
b) provide high toilet seat
c) provide soft mattress
d) apply restraints to reduce tremors

A

Correct answer b
Rational: the client with Parkinson’s disease experiences stiffness/rigidity due to inadequate dopamine production. Dopamine is a neurotransmitter that promotes muscle relaxation. High toilet seat facilitates the client’s ability to sit during elimination.