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Pharmaceutics > Final exam > Flashcards

Final exam Flashcards

1
Q

How are liquid dosage forms prepared?

A
  1. Dissolving the active drug into an aqueous or non-aqueous solvent .
  2. Suspending the drug in the right medium.
  3. Incorporating the drug substance into an oil or water phase.
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2
Q

What are the advantages of a liquid dosage form?

A
  1. Easy to swallow
  2. Homogenous doses
  3. Quicker absorption and distribution
  4. Varies route of administration
  5. Easily adjustable doses
  6. Minimize adverse effects in the GI Tract
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3
Q

What are the disadvantages of a liquid dosage form?

A
  1. Less stable than solid
  2. Bulky for carrying around
  3. You need accuracy in preparing the dose
  4. Unpleasant taste
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4
Q

What was the function of methycellulose?

A

Suspending agent/ Vehicle

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5
Q

What is the function of Glycerin?

A

Wetting Agent

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6
Q

What is the function of Cherry Syrup?

A

Flavoring

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7
Q

What is the function of Metronidazole?

A

API/ Active drug

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8
Q

What are the properties of an Ideal Solution?

A

API
Excipients and additives:
palatability, viscosity, sweetening agent,
stability with buffers and preservatives,
appearance: color and uniformity

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9
Q

What are the properties of a Suspension?

A
  1. Uniform Dispersion
  2. Palatable
  3. Pleasing odor and color
  4. No grittiness
  5. Easy to pour and not watery
  6. Temperature insensitive
  7. particles should settle slowly
  8. Easy redispersion
  9. Not too vicous
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10
Q

What are the properties of an Emulsion?

A
  1. Fine droplets
  2. Add droplets slowly and cream it slowly
  3. Easy to redisperse
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11
Q

What does O/W mean?

A

Internal phase is oil and External phase is water

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12
Q

What does W/O mean?

A

Internal phase is water and external phase is oil

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13
Q

What does 4:2:1 mean?

A

4 parts oil, 2 parts water, and 1 part gum

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14
Q

How many parts of water and gum do you need if you want 8 parts oil?

A

4 parts water and 2 parts gum

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15
Q

What are some patient counseling points for Solution, suspension and emulsions?

A
  1. Shake it up
  2. Storage
  3. BUD
  4. Dosage materials
  5. Side effects
  6. Duration
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16
Q

What is hypertonic?

A

When cells shrink

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17
Q

What is hypotonic?

A

When cells swell up

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18
Q

What is isotonic?

A

When water transport is the same outside as it is in the inside

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19
Q

What is osmotic pressure?

A

The pressure it takes to push water through the membrane, against gravity

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20
Q

Can particles and molecules in a solution be transported across the membrane?

A

No.

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21
Q

What is a colligative property?

A

A property that depends on the amount of particles ( molecules and ions) dissolved in a solvent.

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22
Q

What properties are affected by colligative properties?

A

Osmotic pressure, Vapor pressure, boiling point and freezing point

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23
Q

What would happen to the osmotic pressure if there was an increase in solute/particles?

A

The osmotic pressure would increase.

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24
Q

What would happen to the vapor pressure if there was an increase in solute/particles?

A

The vapor pressure would decrease

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25
Q

What would happen to the boiling point if there was an increase in solute/particles?

A

The vapor pressure would decrease, resulting in an increase in boiling point

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26
Q

What would happen to the freezing point if there was an increase in solute/particles?

A

Decrease in melting point and decrease in freezing point

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27
Q

Colligative properties in the graph shows:

A

An increase in particles and solute will cause the solution to have a LOWER VP than the pure solvent, a HIGHER BP than the pure solvent and a LOWER FP and MP than the pure solvent.

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28
Q

What is osmolarity?

A

The concentration of particles per volume

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29
Q

What is osmolality?

A

The concentration of particles per mass of solvent.

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30
Q

What is a non-electrolyte?

A

a substance that does not form ions when dissolved or melted and does not conduct electricity. `\

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31
Q

What is an example of a non-electrolyte?

A

Dextrose

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32
Q

What is an electrolyte?

A

a nonmental substance that conduct electricity and ions when dissolved in a solvent.

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33
Q

What is an example of an electrolyte?

A

NaCl

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34
Q

What is the difference between a non-electrolyte and an electrolyte?

A

A NE, only solubilizes into one particle and the E breaks apart depending on the number of ions in the molecule

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35
Q

What is the difference between isotonic and isosmotic?

A

Isotonic contains non penetrating solutes. It describes the difference between solutes like salt and your cell. and isosmotic contains solutes that contain penetrating solutes. It describes your blood to the osmotic pressure. The osmotic flow can change.

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36
Q

Can an isosmotic solution form by mixing isosmotic solutions?

A

Yes.

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37
Q

For a non-electrolyte what is the I value?

A

The I value is 1.

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38
Q

For an electrolyte, what is the I value?

A

The value is greater than 1.

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39
Q

What is an amphoteric acid or base?

A

It is a molecule that can act both as an acid or a base.

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40
Q

What is a zwitterionic molecule?

A

A molecule that has a positive and negative charge.

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41
Q

What is an example of an amphoteric substance?

A

Water.

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42
Q

What is equivalent weight?

A

Molecular weight per charge

Ew= Fw/v (g/eq)

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43
Q

What is equivalent moles?

A

The number of moles times charge. EM= m/Ew or m*v/Fw

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44
Q

What is electrolyte concentration?

A

The numbers of ions in a solution.

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45
Q

What is the difference between a strong acid and a weak acid?

A

A strong acid complete ionizes in water and a weak acid reaches equilibrium in water.

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46
Q

What is the difference between a strong base and a weak base?

A

A strong base completely ionizes in water and a weak base reaches equilibrium in water.

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47
Q

How do you calculate the pH of a solution?

A

pH= pka+log(CB/ACID)

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48
Q

What would happen if CB was greater than acid?

A

The ratio of CB to Acid is greater than 1.

The pH will be greater than the pKa.

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49
Q

What would happen if acid was greater than the CB?

A

The ratio of CB to Acid is less than 1.

The pH will be smaller than the pKa.

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50
Q

When is the concentration of the acid and CB equal?

A

At the pKa. Its 50% total

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51
Q

When is the concentration of CA and base equal?

A

At the pKa.

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52
Q

What is a polyprotic molecule?

A

When a molecule contains more than one positive proton. Example: H2CO3, contains two acidic protons and H3PO4 contains three positive protons.

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53
Q

What are many active ingredients made of?

A

Weak acids and base.

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54
Q

Do you want a high buffering capacity or a low buffering capacity?

A

You want a high buffering capacity so that the pH can be less affected by changes. You may want a low buffering capacity for a drug to change its pH more drastically to get absorbed in a certain area.

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55
Q

What influences the buffering capacity?

A

The buffer concentration and the pH. The greater the concentration of the buffer, the higher the buffering capacity will be. If the Cb/Acid ratio is closer to 1, than the buffering capacity is higher.

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56
Q

Higher buffering capacity?

A

low pH change. You want this.

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57
Q

When should you use a graduated cylinder?

A

To measure

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58
Q

When should you use a conical cylinder?

A

To mixing liquids and dissolving solids. Not get for measuring because it increases error as you increase the diameter of the top.

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59
Q

Should you use a 100 mL cylinder to measure 15mL of a solution?

A

NO

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60
Q

What do you use to measure glycerin?

A

a syringe is preferred.

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61
Q

What should you use to measure free flow liquids?

A

a graduated cylinder

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62
Q

What should you use to measure viscous liquid?

A

A syringe or a conical cylinder

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63
Q

What must be known to use a liquid dropper for liquid measurement?

A

The number of liquid drops per mL.

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64
Q

What are the tests that need to be performed on the torsion balance?

A
  1. Structural test

2. Sensitivity test

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65
Q

What is the sensitivity test?

A

Max. 6mg sen. with no load and max 10 with each pan of load

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66
Q

For a torsion balance, where should you add the weight?

A

The right pan.

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67
Q

What is particle size reduction called?

A

Comminution.

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68
Q

What is Trituration?

A

The process of continuing to rub a solid in the mortar with a pestle to reduce the size of the solid.

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69
Q

What is the process of levigation?

A

Adding a small amount of liquid because the solid is not soluble.

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70
Q

When should glycerin be used as a levigating agent?

A

It is a hydrophilic wetting agent, that should be used if you desire a hydrophilic external phase.

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71
Q

When should mineral be used as a levigating agent?

A

If you went a hydrophobic external phase.

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72
Q

What mortar should you use for making solutions and suspensions, high potent drug,hazardous drugs or stains?

A

Glass mortar

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73
Q

What mortar should you use to make an emulsion?

A

A ceramic or wooden mortar.

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74
Q

What are sterile products used for?

A

to introduce a drug into the body that bypasses the protective barriers such as the skin and mucous membranes

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75
Q

According to the USP 797, what is considered a sterile product?

A

Injections, eye drops, pulmonary inhalation, implants, irrigations, bath and soaks for live organs.

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76
Q

What are the advantages of a parental administration?

A
  1. Rapid Response
  2. High F
  3. A way to inject non oral drugs
  4. Local affects
    Fluid and electrolyte balance
  5. Provides nutrients if your body can’t take stuff orally.
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77
Q

What are the disadvantages of parental administration?

A
  1. Have to be put by someone who is trained
  2. Expensive
  3. Site of injection hurts
  4. Calculations error
  5. Interactions
  6. Must follow aseptic procedures
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78
Q

What are the dosage form design?

A
  1. Api
  2. Excipients
  3. Packaging
  4. Administration device
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79
Q

What is the USP <797>?

A

Its for non-hazardous drugs guidelines

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80
Q

What is the USP <800>?

A

It is a hazardous drug guideline

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81
Q

What is the Ante room?

A

It has to have positive pressure and it is used for gowning

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82
Q

What pressure does the non-hazardous drug room have?

A

It has positive pressure

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83
Q

What pressure does the hazardous drug room have?

A

It has a negative pressure?

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84
Q

How does air flow between the rooms?

A

Air should flow from positive pressure to negative pressure.

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85
Q

What is PEC?

A

It is the primary engineering controls. AKA hoods.

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86
Q

What do hoods contain?

A

HEPA filter. It removes 99.7% of air particles up to 0.3microns.

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87
Q

What are LAWF used for?

A

Its used for non-hazardous drugs and have positive pressure.

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88
Q

What is the BSC?

A

Biological safety cabinets. It can be in the hazardous or non-hazardous drugs. Its in the hazardous room.

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89
Q

What is required of BSC?

A
  1. Negative pressure
  2. air is recycled or contained
  3. Vertical air flow
90
Q

What is IVLFZ?

A

Integrated Vertical Laminar Flow Zone

It’s for nonhazardous drugs only

91
Q

Where is the HEPA filter located in the IVLFLZ?

A

It is located in the ceiling.

It has vertical flow

92
Q

What is the air flow of LAWF?

A

It can be vertical or horizontal?

93
Q

What are RABS?

A

Restrictive access barrier system. They are isolators or glove boxes.

94
Q

What are the two types of RABS?

A

CAI and CACI.

95
Q

What is CAI for?

A

Its for nonhazardous drugs and it has positive pressure

96
Q

What is CACI for?

A

used for hazardous or non-hazardous compounds like CHEMO. It has negative pressure.

97
Q

Where should garbing be done?

A

On the dirty side. The ANTE room. Between the line of demarcation

98
Q

What is the garbing method?

A

Shoe, hair, mask, and eyes.
Wash hands
gown, purrel hands, and gloves and spray with 70% IPA

99
Q

Ordering of cleaning the hood?

A

Top, Bar, Back, Sides, Sash, work surface

100
Q

What is first air?

A

Air before it touches anything

101
Q

Where is air coming from in the horizontal hoods?

A

The back of the hood

102
Q

Where is air coming from in the vertical hoods?

A

The top of the hood

103
Q

Where is the most common and most significant error made in sterile compounding?

A

It is made by blocking first air.

104
Q

What is hypodermic syringe used for?

A

IM,IV, SC

105
Q

What parts of the syringe can’t you touch?

A

plunger, syringe tip, needle hub, needle

106
Q

What syringe capacity should you select?

A

20-80 percent

107
Q

The small the gauge number…

A

The larger the diameter

108
Q

How much volume does a Large volume parental IV bag carry?

A

more than 100 mL

109
Q

How much volume does a small volume parental IV bag carry?

A

100 mL or smaller. Piggy back bag.

110
Q

The piggy back bag must be higher than the IV bag. True or false

A

True because gravity

111
Q

What are the three types of pumps?

A
  1. Electronic Pumps
  2. Syringe Pumps
  3. Elastomeric Pumps
112
Q

What are electronic pumps for?

A
  1. Hospital Use
  2. Typical infusion method
  3. Rate mL/hr
113
Q

What are syringe pumps for?

A
  1. Hospital Use
  2. Neonates
  3. Low dose medication
  4. Analgesia medicine
114
Q

What are elastomeric pumps for?

A
  1. Ambulatory use
  2. Elastic ballon to push medication in at a set rate
  3. Does not need batteries
115
Q

What are hydrophilic filters for?

A
  1. For more liquids
116
Q

What are hydrophobic filters used for?

A
  1. Glass, low surface tension solvents
117
Q

What are hydrophilized filters for?

A
  1. Allow proteins to pass through the filter
118
Q

What should you not use for opening an ampule?

A

Alcohol wipe

119
Q

What is the Anti-Coring Technique?

A
  1. Needle enter vial at 45 degrees

2. Adjust needle to 90 degree as it enters the membrane

120
Q

When adding a solution to an IV bag, where should the needle be enters?

A

The medication port

121
Q

How thick should the needle be when injecting it into an iv bag?

A

1 inch or longer.

122
Q

What is equashield use for

A

hazardous drug transfer. Provides a closed system.

123
Q

Where do you place open ampoules that contain drug in them?

A

The sharps waste bin

124
Q

Where do you place open ampoules with no drugs in them?

A

The glass bin

125
Q

Where do you place unbroken empty vials?

A

The regular trash container

126
Q

Where do you place the unbroken vial with medication in it

A

The black trash container

127
Q

What is contained in the biological waste?

A

infectious and non-infectious waste: blood urine, stool, petri dishes, and tissues

128
Q

What is contained in the general waste?

A
  1. Empty drug vials that are less than 3%
  2. Plain fluid
  3. Electrolytes
  4. Parental nutrition ingredients
  5. Wrappers
129
Q

What is the moist heat method?

A

Conducted in an autoclave. For protein denaturation and coagulation

130
Q

What is the Dry heat method?

A

Destroys pyrogens. Uses an oven. It allows for loss of moisture and protein denaturation, oxidation

131
Q

What is the filtration method?

A

Removes microogranisms but viruses and endotoxins are not filtered out.

132
Q

What is the gas method?

A

Disruption of cellular metabolism. Exposure to EO and PO

133
Q

What is the radiation method?

A

Consists of gamma rays and cathode rays

134
Q

What is the sterility test, usp <71>

A

to test membrane filteration and direct inoculation. Requires 14 days incubation

135
Q

What is the Pyrogen Test, USP <151>

A

Test of rabbits used to check for pyrogens.

136
Q

What is the Bacterial Endotoxins Test, USP <85>

A

Test for the presence or absence of pyrogens in aq parenterals.

137
Q

What is the LAL test?

A

A test used to see if endotoxins in a sample exceed a threshold pyrogenic dose.

138
Q

What is the Particulate Matter in Injections Test, USP <788>

A

Used to detect to see if there are sub-visible particles in the parenteral injection

139
Q

What do the Particulate Matter in Injections Test, USP <788> tests consist of?

A
  1. Light obscuration particulate count test
  2. microscopic particle count test
    for both of these the particulate count test must not exist the limit
140
Q

What are Endotoxins?

A

A subset of pyrogens that come from gram negative bacteria.

141
Q

What are pyrogens?

A

By products from bacterial metabolisms that can have their own immune system.

142
Q

What can affect the stability of the drug?

A
  1. Absorption of the drug to the packaging
  2. Leaching: Loss of materials from the package that gets into the drug
  3. Permeability: Ability of volatile substances such as water vapors, oxygen to move into the packaging. Ampules vs. Vials.
  4. Increased temperature
143
Q

What can the amber containers help do?

A

Decrease photolysis of the drugs

144
Q

What can decreasing the temperature do to the stability of the drug?

A

It can increase the stability of the drug

145
Q

What are the factors you should consider for the compatibility of the drug?

A
  1. Drug-Drug
  2. Drug-diluent
  3. Drug-additive
  4. Drug-package
146
Q

What are the roles of additives and excipients?

A

they maintain the stability and help ensure sterility.

147
Q

What are the characteristics of sterile dosage forms?

A
  1. Isotonic
  2. Stable
  3. Free from particles
  4. Pyrogen free but have some endotoxins that don’t exceed the limit
  5. Meet the USP standards
  6. Compatible with other drugs, diluent, additives and packages
148
Q

What is a phase?

A

part of a system that is chemically and physically uniform but is separated from other portions

149
Q

What are the three states that matter exist as?

A

Gas, Liquid and Solid.

150
Q

How many phases does a gas system have?

A

only one phase can exist

151
Q

Is a gas system miscible?

A

Yes

152
Q

Does immiscible liquid form different phases or one phase?

A

They can have polyphases

153
Q

Ethanol + h20 is how many phases

A

1 phase

154
Q

h20 + oil is how many phases

A

2 phase

155
Q

Will different solids form different phases?

A

yes.

156
Q

When can drug show its activity?

A

molecular state

157
Q

When can free molecules exist?

A

In the liquid and gas state

158
Q

What happens to the surface of liquids in terms of vapor pressure?

A

Molecules of the surface will evaporate and go to the gas phase or condense.

159
Q

What happens to KE when you increase temperate?

A

The KE increases and evaporation increase

160
Q

What is the relationship between pressure and the distance between the molecules?

A

As pressure increase, the distance between the molecules decreases and they become closer.

161
Q

When happens to the pressure during condensation?

A

Increase pressure and decrease temperature.

162
Q

What is critical temperature?

A

The max temperature that a liquid can remain in that state

163
Q

What is critical pressure?

A

the max VP that a liquid can have.

164
Q

What is the phase rule for a one component system?

A

F=C-P+2

165
Q

As degrees of freedom increases, what happens to the component?

A

As F increases so does C.

166
Q

As F increases what happens to P?

A

P decreases.

167
Q

How many phases does the O(triple point) have?

A

3 phases.

168
Q

What is constant at the O (triple point) phase?

A

Constant temperature and pressure.

169
Q

How many phases are there in a solid, liquid and vapor phase?

A

1 phase.

170
Q

How many phases does OB, OA, OC have?

A

Two phases.

171
Q

What is the phase rule for a two component model?

A

F=C-P+1

172
Q

What does the two component take into account?

A

Liquid and solid. Not VP so not gas.

173
Q

In one component model, what if F=1, what is the factor controlling it?

A

Temperature

174
Q

In a one component model, if F=2, what is the factor controlling it?

A

Temperature, and pressure

175
Q

What is Eutectic temperature?

A

The lowest temperature, two solids can exist at liquid phase.

176
Q

What is a solid dispersion?

A

Mixture one crystalline solid together with another one. Small molecules dissolve faster.

177
Q

What is a solid solution?

A

Mixing a solid with a solid solvent to give a mixed Crystal.

178
Q

What can a solid dispersion and solid solution do that gives benefit to it?

A

Increase stability, F, dissolution (because of the reduction in particle size), solubility, clumping up of particles and allowing it to get

179
Q

What does particle size mean?

A

Any matter smaller than 10mm and 1 cm in diameter.

180
Q

What method do you want to use to decrease the particle size?

A

titration

181
Q

Why does an emulsion require a small particle size?

A

small particle size, allows it to stay in the emulsion phase for longer

182
Q

How small do nasal and pulmonary aerosal have to be?

A

5 microns

183
Q

What is the reconstitution of oral delivery used for

A

To make tablets and capsules

184
Q

The smaller the particle size…

A

The better the oral absorption and the higher the efficacy

185
Q

Are there particulates in parenteral dosage forms for injections?

A

Yes, but not too much. It can get stuck in capillaries.

186
Q

Why is it important that particles be as small as possible?

A

Less problem with aggregation and it will settle more slowly.

187
Q

What is the definition of a suspension?

A

A solid particle dissolved in a liquid phase with a suspending agent.

188
Q

What are the particle size of a suspension.

A

a. Fine 1 to 50 microns

b. Course: greater than 50 microns

189
Q

What is the size of an emulsion?

A

Less than 40 microns or less

190
Q

Why is it important emulsion to have a small particle size?

A

Lessen aggretion, lessen cracking, lessen settling rate.

191
Q

Why should solid drugs in creams or ointments be as small as possible?

A

To prevent chemical burns

192
Q

Why should liquid drugs in creams or ointments be as small as possible?

A

To avoid chemical burns

193
Q

Do large or small particles have a bigger SA to volume ratio?

A

Small particles

194
Q

The dissolution test on Dilantin vs. Generic name showed what?

A

The brand named had a finer drug due to a grinding mill they used. Smaller particles, allowed the drug to have a higher F. It prevent seizures while the generic did not.

195
Q

What size should aerosol drugs be?

A

1 to 5 micrometers.

196
Q

What size should parenteral drugs be?

A

Less than 5 micrometers.

197
Q

What are the requirements for a large volume parenterals?

A

Particles greater than 10 micrometers but less than 50 micrometers.

198
Q

What are the requirements for a small volume parenterals?

A

equal or less than a large volume parenteral

199
Q

What do filtering devices do?

A

Stop glasses or anything that is larger than 50 micrometers

200
Q

When will a Rabbit test be positive?

A

When there are pyrogens in the solution. It tests for ALL PYROGENS.

201
Q

Can the LAL test, test for pyrogens?

A

no only endotoxins.

202
Q

What do industrys do to prevent contamination?

A
  1. Remove pyrogens

2. Autoclave

203
Q

What is the difference between in line and end of line device?

A

In line is already made into the IV set.
End of line is attached so there is nothing than 5 micrometers entering the pateint. Colliods can use this. The drug will get filtered out

204
Q

What is the particle size for solid dosage form?

A

0.5 to 3,000 micrometers.

205
Q

What are the characteristics of powdered drugs?

A
  1. Size 0.5 micrometers to 3,000 micrometers
  2. low density
  3. no charge
  4. Spherical shape
206
Q

What problems do powder drugs have?

A

They have a problem adhering to each other and repelling.

207
Q

What do you add to a powered drug to make it adhere to each other?

A

A inert material: mannitol, lactose, starch

208
Q

What is the Pulverized by Intervention method?

A

Adding alcohol or water then adding an inert agent. This is to reduce and unify particle size.

209
Q

How can you measure particle sizes in powders?

A

Micromeritics method. The smaller the number the bigger the hole. Like a shifter for powder sugar.

210
Q

What can using variable particle size of drugs do?

A

It can prolong drug release and absorption, which are important for some drugs.

211
Q

How should Powder Paper drugs be taken?

A

mixed with apple sauce or juice with a small ratio of apple sauce to the medication. DO NOT TAKE POWDER STRAIGHT UP

212
Q

What are capsules made of?

A

Vegetable and gelatin.

213
Q

How should oil filled capsules be made?

A

Double sealing and double capsule. The oil should be in the smaller sized capsule

214
Q

What are two examples of granular fills?

A

ampicillin or amoxicillin.

215
Q

What are the requirements for a tablet powder drug?

A
  1. uniform mass with itself and diluent
  2. powder needs to be compressible
  3. needs to retain shape once compressed
  4. should dry before removal from presser. Should break apart.
216
Q

What is acacia gum used for?

A

Emulsifying agent

217
Q

How big is the filtering needle?

A

5 microns

218
Q

What is the smallest capsule size?

A

5.

219
Q

What is the biggest capsule size?

A

000

220
Q

What is the size of the capsule that the oil would go into when making an oil capsule?

A
  1. And the outer layer is 1.

Pharmaceutics (1 decks)

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