Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What clinical condition could cause Respiratory Acidosis with mild hypoxia
A. Hypoventilation due to post op sedation
B. Asthma
C. Pulmonary Emboli
D. Nasogastric suction

A

A.

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2
Q
Clinical condition with Comp. Resp. Acidosis with mod. hypoxia
A. Pulm Emboli
B. Status asthmaticus
C. Ketoacidosis
D. Emphysema
A

B

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3
Q
Clinical condition with Resp Alkalosis with mod. hypoxia
A. Chronic Bronchitis
B. Pulmonary Emboli
C. Asthma
D. Pain
A

B

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4
Q

Diabetic Ketoacidosis ABG

A

Comp metabolic acidosis

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5
Q

Cardiac/ resp arrest ABG

A

Combined acidosis with severe hypoxia

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6
Q
What are the three main factors that contribute to airway obstruction in asthma
I. Inflammation
II. Ciliary Dysfuntion
III. Mucus accumulation
IV. Bronchospasm
V.
A

B. I, III, IV

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7
Q

Asthma is a what disease

A

obstructive

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8
Q

During an extrinsic induced asthma episode, sputum tends to be

A

thick, whitish, tenacious

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9
Q

A common tool for home use to assess the severity of bronchospasm associated with asthma is

A

peak flow meter

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10
Q

Zone system based on peak flow measurements

A

Green Zone- 80% or greater
Yellow Zone- 50-80%
Red Zone- 50%

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11
Q
What med group is commonly administered to pts with interstitial lung disease
A. Antibiotics
B. Mucolytics
C. Corticosteroids
D. Long acting bronchodilators
A

C. Corticosteroids

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12
Q
Your pt with a mild to moderate interstitial lung disease, has hypoxemia and will be given O2 therapy. All the following are possible cause of hypoxemia except:
A. Hypoventilation
B. Capillary shunting
C. Alveolar thickening 
D. Fibrosis
A

B. Capillary shunting

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13
Q

While assessing a pt who was involved in a serious car crash and hit his steeling wheel you notice that his left anterior chest wall caves in during inspiration. Cause?

A

Flail chest segment

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14
Q
Benign tumors
I. Are metastatic
II. Grow slowly
III. Are usually Encapsulated
IV. Grow in a disordered manner
A

II and III only

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15
Q

What are the anatomic alternations that occur when a person has a pneumothorax
I. The lung on the affected side collapses
II. Visceral and parietal pleura separate
III. The visceral pleura adheres to the parietal pleura
IV. Chest wall moves outward

A

I, II, and IV

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16
Q
Malignant tumors
I. Invade surrounding tissues
II. Grow slowly
III. Cause Necrosis
IV. push aside surrounding tissue
A

I and III only

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17
Q

When a person has lung cancer all of the following may happen to the alveoli adjacent to the tumor

A

Collapse, Consolidation, Filling with fluid

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18
Q

Flail chest is defined as

A

Three or more adjacent fractured ribs, Double fracture of each rib

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19
Q

Posterior curvature of the spine best describes

A

kyphosis

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20
Q

Your patient has a large pleural effusion. It will act as a/an

A

Restrictive disorder

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21
Q

If mech vent is required, how long will it be needed to allow sufficient time for the ribs of a flail chest to heal

A

5-10 days

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22
Q
The major pathologic and structural changes associated with a significant pleural effusion include all of the following except
A. Diaphragm elevation
B. Atelectasis
C. COmpression of the greater vessels
D> Lung compression
A

A

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23
Q

Small cell cancers

A

Out cell carcinoma

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24
Q

non-small cell cancers

A

large cell carcinoma, Squamous carcinoma, Adenocarcinoma

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25
Your pt with a large pneumothorax has tachycardia and hypotension would could cause this
Decreased venous return to the heart
26
A patient is having a thoracentesis performed to drain 1500cc of fluid of the lung. during this procedure , which apply? I. BP should be monitored II. THe pt should be supine with the affected lung up III. Pt should be sitting upright, leaning forward IV. Needle is inserted between the 2-3 intercostal space V. Needle is inserted between the 4-5 intercostal space
III, V , and I
27
ARDS undergo which of the following changes? I. Atelectasis II. Increased alveolar capillary membrane permeability III. Interstitial and intraalveolar edema IV. Hemorrhagic alveolar consolidation
all of the above
28
What is the possible lung finding under the fractured ribs of a flail chest
contusion
29
Treatment of 40% pneumothorax may include I. ET intubation II. Supp O2 III. Chest tube in pleural space IV. Chest tube into the pericardial space
II, III
30
Cause of transudate pleural effusion includes
Congestive heart failure, Pulmonary embolism
31
``` The etiology of ARDS may come from a multitude of causative factures including which of the following A. Aspiration Pneumonia B. THoracic surgery C. SEpsis D. Shock ```
All of the above
32
Check valve puncture wound. Inspiration in , expiration cant get out, what kind of pneumothorax
tension pneumothorax
33
An iatrogenic pneumothorax may be caused by
positive pressure vent, lung biopsy, thoracentesis
34
The anatomic alternation caused by a pleural effusion is
Separation of the visceral and parietal pleura
35
Repeat pneumothoraces, what should physician do
pleuodesis
36
``` Which of the following is / are recommended ventilation strategies for most pts with ards I. High Tidal Volumes II. Low tidal volumes III. High resp rates IV. Low resp rates V. High FiO2 VI. As low of FiO2 as permissible VII. High PEEP VIII. Low peep ```
II. Low tidal volumes III. High resp rates VI. As low of FiO2 as permissible VII. High PEEP
37
Ground glass on CXR =
ARDS
38
An empyema is
an infection and inflammation in the pleural space
39
Your pt with a flail chest has paradoxical chest movement. what would be seen with this
during inspiration, the fractured ribs move inward
40
What is the usual cause to hypoxemia in a flail chest pt
Alveolar atlectasis
41
Remove air from pneumothorax by
-5cmH2O via water seal pneumovac Number 28 to 36 fr chest tube Insert the tube anteriorly between 2-3 intercostal spaces pt in semi fowlers to fowlers positon
42
ARDS norm begins to develop after how long from the initial lung insult
24-48 hours
43
Mild to moderate kyphoiscoliosis will manifest itsef clinically as an
Restrictive pulmonary disorder
44
Transudative pleural effusion
Think and watery fluid, Few RBCs
45
In severe cases of flail chest, which interventions needed
Pain management Mech ventilation PEEP
46
The diagnostic criteria used for defining ARDS in a pt is
Berlin definition of ARDS
47
What accounts for more than 80% of all the bacteria pneumonias
Streptococcal pneumonia
48
What infects almost all children by age two
Resp Synctial Virus
49
In the midwestern part of the US what is the most common fungal infection of the lungs
histoplasmosis
50
What is almost always the cause of acute epiglottis
Haemophilus influenza type b
51
In the absense of a secondary bacterial infection, lung inflammation caused by the aspiration of gastric fluids usually becomes insignificant in approx how many days
3 days
52
During early stages of lung absess, the pathological process is the same as that of
pneumonia
53
The most effective med used to treat a TB infection
isoniazid
54
Fungal infections are usually spread by
inhaling fungal spres
55
For long term tx of TB what other drug should be incorporated with the use of Isoniazid
Rifampin
56
Most pulm emboli are from
blood emboli
57
In pulmonary edema, fluid first moves into the
Perivascular interstitial space, Peribronchial intersitial spaces
58
Emphysema is characterized by
destruction of the alveoli and terminal bronchioles
59
What part of the lungs most affected by fungal infection
Upper lobes
60
Blood test for diagnosing TB
QuantiFERON-TB Gold Test
61
Albumin may be given to a pulm edema pt to
increase the Oncotic pressure
62
Best diagnositc indicator of a pneumonia formation is
chest radiograph (CXR)
63
For bacterial pneumonia, the first line of defense is usually
antibiotic therapy
64
Best test to detect PE
Spiral CT scan
65
Promote bronchodilation in COPD pt, correct med
duoneb
66
Pneumonias pathologic effect is gen involving alteration in
the alvioli
67
``` Which of the following is a thrombolytic agent A. Heparin B. Coumadin C. Lasix D. Streptokinase ```
D
68
hallmark of bronchiectasis
large quantities of foul smelling sputum
69
Pink puffer
chronic bronchitis
70
Blastomycosis is frequently connected by exposures to
forest soil and or decaying wood
71
The death of lung tissue that may result from an obstruction of the pulmonary artery is called
pulmonary infarction
72
Pt with bacterial pneumonia. what kills the invading bacteria
Macrophages, Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
73
Most common fungal infection in US
Histoplasmosis
74
Biomarker that would indicate the presence of airway inflammation in a pt with asthma
FeNO concentration
75
Test to diagnose bronchiectasis
CT of the chest
76
Lab value with chronic COPD pt with chronic hypoxemia
Increase Hgb and HCT
77
Bacterial pneumonias, sputum is
purulent yellow/ green
78
Most pneumonias are caused by
gram negative bacteria
79
Treat fungal diseases
amphotericin B
80
Diagnostic test to confirm CF
sweat test
81
About 80% of all pts with CF demonstrate a deficiency in which of the following 1. Fat soluble vitamins 2. Water soluble vitamins 3. Protein 4. Fat 5. Carbohydrates 6. Sodium 7. Potassium
1,3,4, and 6
82
An albuterol neb treatment is affective in pt with PE T/F
FALSE
83
``` All of the following are causes of cardiogenic pulmonary edema except A. Myocardial infarction B. Mitral Valve Disease C. Allergic reaction to drugs D. Congenital heart defects ```
C
84
Digital clubbing is a cardinal sign of
Chronic hypoxia
85
best tx to reverse P.E. using resp therapy modality would be
CPAP with 100% O2
86
The best resp therapy tx plan for suspected pulmonary emboli would be
SVN with albuterol, Non rebreather mask with 100% O2
87
Lasix in P.E is an example of
preload reducer
88
Treat pleural effusion related to their pneumonia with
thoracentesis
89
Major pathologic or structural changes seen in the lungs with pulmonary edema include
Atelectasis, bronchospasm, high surface tension of alveolar fluids, alveolar flooding
90
When a lung abscess is seen on a CXR, a distinguishing factor is
air fluid level in a cavity
91
Lab test used to identify hyper coagulation and supports the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism
D-Dimer
92
3 diagnositc tests that should be immediately done on pt with TB
Mantoux test QuantiFERON-TB gold test Sputum Test-Fluorescent acid fast stain test
93
3 main factors that contribute to airway obstruction in asthma
Inflammation, Mucus accumulation, Bronchospasm
94
Hallmark of bronchiectasis
Large quantities of foul smelling sputum
95
CF can be both restrictive and obstructive
True
96
Common causes of acquired bronchiectasis
Pulmonary tuberculosis
97
Found in the tracheobronchial tree secretions of pts with CF
Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
98
Kartagners syndrom is typically associated with what disease process
Bronchiectasis
99
if one carrier and one non carrier of CF produce children there is a
50% chance the child will be unaffected, and will be an unaffected carrier
100
Congenital causes of bronchiectasis
CF
101
oral form of corticosteroid
Prednisone
102
CF diet
Increase protein, increase fat, added sodium, Supplemental fat soluble vitamins
103
Biomarkers indicating the presence of airway inflammation in a pt with asthma
FeNO concentration
104
Common tool for home use to assess the severity of asthma is
peak flow meter
105
Extrinsic asthma is caused by
a specific antigenic agent
106
Bronchiectasis is commonly found in
Lobe or segment, in the lower lobes
107
Type of test might be performed in PFT lab to help diagnosis exercise induced asthma
methacholine challenge
108
3 forms of bronchiectasis. they are
Cylindrical, Varicose, and Cystic
109
Second drug to add after maintenance therapy of persistent asthma doesnt work
LABA
110
Kartageners syndrome include the following pathologic key notes
defective cilia lining of resp tract bronchiectasis dextrocardial (heart on right side) Rhinosinusitis
111
Bronchiectasis are the bronchi dilated and constricted in an irregular fashion
Fusiform, varicose
112
cultured in sputum of pts with infected bronchiectasis
Streptococcus, Pseudomonas, Haemophillus
113
Advanced stages of CF, the pt generally demonstrates which of the following 1. Bronchial breath sounds 2. Dull percussion notes 3. Diminished breath sounds 4. Hyper resonant percussion notes
1 and 4
114
Asthma symptoms that occur daily along with frequent nocturnal symptoms with limitations in physical activity, and FEV1 or PEF of <60%
Severe persistent asthma
115
Sweat glands of CF secrete up to (sodium and chloride)
4-5x the normal amount
116
Associated with severe CF? 1. Decrease Hgb 2. Increased CVP 3. Decreased BS 4. Increased pulmonary vascular resistance
2, 3, 4
117
Pursed lip breathing increase PEEP and reduce
Air trapping
118
What makes asthma different from COPD
The asthma pt has norm lung function between episodes
119
A pt with exercised induced asthma is started on med regimine. the physician orders albuterol MDI for breath through symptoms but asks YOU what maintenance drug he should use. You might suggest
Cromolyn sodium
120
Mast cell degranulation will release which of the following chemical mediators
Histamine, Leukotrines
121
During an asthma attack, the smooth muscle of the bronchi may hypertrophy as much as
3 times normal thickness
122
Common cause of nocturnal asthma
gastric reflux
123
Asthma pt gaining control of asthma. What step should they initiate therapy
step 2
124
Increase and decrease in pulse pressure associated with respiraton
pulsus paradoxus
125
Onset of intrinsic asthma occurs at which age
40yrs
126
an early asthmatic resposne followed by a late asthmatic response is called
biphasic response
127
Asthma pt sputum
Kirschman spirals, Charcot-leyden crystals
128
Extrensic asthma is a heredity trait? t/f
true
129
simplest ways to control asthma and reduce meds
reduce the exposure to risk factors
130
Kirschman spirals are casts of
terminal and smallest airways
131
Severe asthma CXR
Increased AP diameter (barrel chest), Flattened diaphragm, translucent lung fields
132
an accessory muscle used to assist EXPIRATORY during and asthma attack is sternocleidomastoids T/F
False
133
Wait how long between albuterol tx
10-20 minutes
134
peak flows in the yellow range, you would except to hear
expiratory wheezing
135
The latent phase is associated with which phenotype of asthma
excercise induced
136
In GBS which of the following pathologic changes develop in the peripheral nerves
Inflammation, demyelination, Edema
137
The onset of the signs and symptoms of myasthenia gravis are
slow and insidious sudden and rapid intermittent often elusive
138
Associated with near drowning victims
``` Consolidation, Bronchospasm Increased alveoalr-capilalry membrane thickness atelectasis Excessive bronchial secretions ```
139
Associated with GBS
alveiolar consolidation mucous accumulation atelectasis resp muscle fatigue/failure
140
GBS common in
whites and 50 yrs older
141
Myesthenia common in
peak onset in females 15-35 years of age often provoked by emotional upset associated with receptor binding antibodies
142
associated with near drowning pts
Frothy, pink. white sputum Crackles/rales decreased pH Decreased SaO2
143
pts with thermal injury have an acute upper airway obstruction
20-30%
144
associated with myasthenia gravis
mucus accumulation alveolar hypoinflation atelectasis
145
antibodies believed to block the nerve impulse transmission at the neuromuscular junction in myasthenia gravis
IgG
146
healing time for a second degree burn is
7-21 days
147
normal cardiac output of an adult at rest
4-6lpm
148
Which phenotype is associated with the highest serum concentrate of alpha 1 antitrypsin
MM phenotype
149
Barrel chest is a common sign of
Emphysema
150
Pts with severe chronic bronchitis commonly have cor pulmonale
Pitting edema, Right sided heart enlargment
151
Which type of emphysema causes an abnormal weakening and enlargement of the resp bronchioles and alveoli in the proximal portion of the acinus
Panlobar
152
Cyanosis is a common sign of
Chronic bronchitis
153
chronic bronchitis 1. Bronchial walls are narrowed because of vasoconstriction 2. Bronchial glands are enlarged 3. Number of goblet cells is increased 4. The number of cilia lining the bronchi increases
2. Bronchial glands are enlarged | 3. Number of goblet cells is increased
154
Peripheral edema is a common sign with A. Emphysema B. Chronic bronchitis
Chronic bronchitis
155
Alpha1 antitrypsin deficiency
asthma like side effects with no history
156
Auscultation of the lungs noting decreased breath sounds, decreased heart sounds, and prolonged expiration is common A. Emphysema B. Chronic bronchitis
Emphysema
157
Speaking of which, a prolonged expiration and increased I:E ratio is due to
Severe air trapping
158
To promote bronchodilation in COPD pts , what would be the correct med to use
duoneb
159
Patients with COPD have which of the following radiologic findings
1. Translucent (dark)lungs 2. Flattened diaphragms 3. Increased AP diameter 4. Right ventricular enlargement
160
Polycythemia is a common sign in A. Emphysema B. Chronic bronchitis
Chronic bronchitis
161
A pt with suspected COPD comes into the ER via an ambulance with an SpO2 of 97% on NRB mask. the pt is breathing 14bpm and is somnolent and difficult to arouse. What oxygen should be taken at this time
Decrease the O2 level to obtain an SpO2 between 88%-92%
162
An increased residual volume due to air trapping usually leads to an increase in which capacity
Total lung capacity
163
Congested lung fields on CXR is common with A. Emphysema B. Chronic bronchitis
B, Chronic bronchitis
164
Chronic bronchitis is characterized as
productive cough for three months year for two years in a row
165
In chronic bronchitis 1. The bronchial walls are narrowed bc of bronchoconstriction 2. The bronchial glands are enlarged 3. number of goblet cells is increased 4. number of cilia lining the tracheobronchial tree is decreased
All of the above
166
The DLCO of pts with severe emphysema is
decreased
167
The DLCO is often normal with pts with A. Emphysema B. Chronic bronchitis
Chronic bronchitis
168
The reason the DLCO is normal in emphysema is
the loss of surface area from alveolar destruction
169
What bacteria is commonly found in the tracheobronchial tree of pts with chronic bronchitis
Haemophilus influenzae, | Streptococcus pneumonia
170
SaO2 90%, immediately think, PaO2
is about 60mmhg
171
Lung parenchyma in the CXR of a pt with emphysema appears
Dark, more translucent
172
When administering supplemental oxygen to a COPD pt, the goal should be to
achieve a SaO2 of between 88& to 92%
173
A diagnostic test to eveluate a COPD pt exercise tolerance would be
6 min walk with oximetry
174
Which of the following is associated with pleurtic chest pain 1. lung cancer 2. pneumonia 3. myocardial ischemia 4. tuberculosis
1, 2, 4
175
abnormal breathing patterns is associated with diabetic acidosis
kussmals respiration
176
An increased CVP reading is commonly seen in a pt who 1. has a severe pneumothorax 2. Is receiving high positive pressure ventilation 3. Has Cor Pulmonale 4. Is in left sided heart failure
D
177
Pathologic condition increases vocal fremitus
Atelectasis, pneumonia
178
Wheezing is
Produced by bronchospasm A cardinal sign of bronchial asthma Usually heard as high pitched sounds
179
VO2 increases in response to what
1. Exercise 2. Hyperthermia 3. Body size
180
Arrhythmias is there no cardiac output or BP
Ventricular fibrillation
181
Lung compliance decreases, what is seen
Vt usually decreases | RR usually increases
182
A general statement about lung restrictive disease would be that the lung volumes are decreased and the flow rate are normal or proporionately normal T/F
True
183
Restrictive lung volumes are associated with pathologic condition that alter the anatomic structures of the lung, distal to the terminal bronchioles T/F
True
184
Dull or soft percussion note would likely be heard in what pathologic condition
Pneumothorax | Atelectasis
185
Normal CVP pressure
0 to 4 mmHg
186
During acute alveolar hyperventilation, what occurs
pH increases, PaCO2 decreases (everything could increase, but pH)
187
VO2 decreases in response to what
Hypthermia, Peripheral shunting
188
Metabolic alkalosis can develop from which of the following 1. Hyperchoremia 2. Hyperkalemia 3. Hypocholoremia 4. Hypokalemia
Hypocholoremia and Hypokalemia
189
Obstructive lung volume findings are associated with pathologic conditions that alter the tracheobronchial tree T/F
True
190
Cardiac output and BP begins to decline when the HR increases
150-175bpm
191
Oxygenation ranges
``` Hyper oxygenation: >100 Normal oxygenation: 80-100 Mild hypoxia: 60-80 Moderate hypoxia: 40-60 Severe hypoxia: <40 ```
192
The one single limiting factor of the pulmonary diffusion capacity of carbon monoxide (DLCO) is
alveolar capillary membrane
193
Four factors used in predicting a pts normal lung volumes and flowrates
gender height weight race
194
CaO2
(Hgb x 1.34 x SaO2) + (PaO2 x 0.003)
195
CvO2
(Hgb x 1.34 x SvO2) + (PvO2 x 0.003)
196
Total oxygen delivery (DO2)
Cardiac output (Qt) x (CaO2 x 10)
197
Arterial-Venous O2 content difference
CaO2- CvO2
198
O2 consumption (VO2)
cardiac outputQt x [C(a-v)O2 x 10]
199
O2 extraction ratio
CaO2-CvO2/ CaO2