Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

includes 3 cuneiforms, navicular, cuboid

A

Midfoot

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2
Q

includes phalanges, metatarsals, sesamoids

A

Forefoot

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3
Q

includes talus and calcaneus

A

Rearfoot

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4
Q

membranous protective covering of the body consisting of Epidermis and Derims

A

Skin

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5
Q

sheet of fibrous tissue that envelops the body beneath the skin. It encloses muscles and groups of muscles, separating them into layers/groups

A

Fascia

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6
Q

hard CT consisting of cells embedded in a matrix of mineralized ground substance and collagen fibers

A

Bones

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7
Q

a band of sheet of fibrous tissue connecting two or more bones, cartilages, or other structures

A

Ligaments

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8
Q

a primary tissue, consisting predominantly of highly contractile cells, which may be classified as skeletal, cardiac and smooth

A

Muscle

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9
Q

a non-distensible fibrous cord, or band of variable length that is the part of the muscle which connects the fleshy part of the muscle with the bony attachment

A

Tendon

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10
Q

a CT characterized by avascularity and firm consistency

A

Cartilage

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11
Q

thick walled, muscular, pulsating blood vessel conveying blood away from the heart, usually oxygenated (one exception)

A

Artery

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12
Q

vessel carrying blood toward the heart, usually deoxygenated (one exception)

A

Vein

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13
Q

a vascular channel that transports lymph

A

Lymphatics

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14
Q

circulation tissue of the body. Fluid and its suspended formed elements that are circulated through the heart, arteries, capillaries and veins

A

Blood

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15
Q

relating to, containing, or consisting of synovium

A

Synovium

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16
Q

white cordlike structure composed of one or more bundles of un/myelinated fibers, coursing outside the CNS

A

Nerve

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17
Q

X-ray beam shot from anterior to posterior

A

AP projection (PA View)

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18
Q

divides body into anterior and posterior, vertical plane

A

Frontal Plane

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19
Q

divides body into superior and inferior

A

Transverse Plane

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20
Q

divides body into medial and lateral

A

Sagittal Plane

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21
Q

parallel to axis of structure (movement)

A

Longitudinal

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22
Q

perpendicular to axis of structure (movement)

A

Transverse

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23
Q

straign line, movement connecting two points

A

Linear

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24
Q

one curve (movement)

A

Curvilinear

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25
Q

two curves (movement)

A

Lazy S

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26
Q

movement in sagittal plane, foot moves upward toward the tibia

A

Dorsiflexion

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27
Q

movement in sagittal plane, foot moves downward away from the tibia

A

Plantarflexion

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28
Q

movement in frontal plane, sole of foot is turned inward toward the midline

A

Inversion

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29
Q

movement in frontal plane, sole of foot moves outward away from the midline

A

Eversion

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30
Q

movement in the transverse plane, foot is turned laterally, away from the midline of the body

A

Abduction

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31
Q

movements in transverse plane, foot turns medially, towards the midline of the body

A

Adduction

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32
Q

triplanar movement, foot is simultaneously abducted, everted, and dorsiflexed

A

Pronation

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33
Q

triplanar movement, foot is simultaneously adducted, inverted, and plantarflexed

A

Supination

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34
Q

fusion/fixing

A

-desis

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35
Q

puncture a joint

A

-centesis

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36
Q

removal of excision of

A

-ectomy

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37
Q

to free up

A

-lysis

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38
Q

incision into

A

-otomy

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39
Q

condition of

A

-osis

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40
Q

to suture

A

-raphy

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41
Q

surgical correction/plastic repair

A

-plasty

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42
Q

crushing something or friction/rasping

A

-tripsy

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43
Q

stiffening of a joint by operative means

A

Arthrodesis

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44
Q

fusion of ankle joint

A

Triple Arthrodesis

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45
Q

incision into a joint, expose interior of a joint

A

Arthrotomy

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46
Q

excision or removal of a bunion

A

Bunionectomy

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47
Q

to suture a capsule, usually refers to the repair of capsule after surgical incision

A

Capsulorraphy

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48
Q

incision into the capsule, frequently used to gain access into a joint

A

Capsulotomy

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49
Q

use of an agent to stop bleeding, may also be used for cutting (electric current, freezing, chemicals, silver nitrate)

A

Cauterize

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50
Q

to clog blood, to change a liquid into a gel or solid

A

Coagulate

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51
Q

freezing via liquid nitrogen or CO2, used for warts, tumors, etc

A

Cryosurgery

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52
Q

trim away/remove, excision of devitalized tissue and foreign matter from a wound

A

Debride

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53
Q

make incision deeper into subcutaneous tissue

A

Deepen

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54
Q

removal of something

A

Excise

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55
Q

removal of an exostosis, removal or a bony prominence, (under toenail)

A

Exostectomy (Subungual Exostosis)

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56
Q

use of electric needle to control bleeding by desiccation blood at a vessel

A

Hyfrecate

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57
Q

to cut with a knife

A

Incise

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58
Q

fixation of a joint by using internal instrumentation/implants (uaually permanent)

A

Internal Fixation

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59
Q

removal/excision of nerve

A

Neurectomy

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60
Q

to free up a nerve from the surrounding scar tissue

A

Neurolysis

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61
Q

incision into bone, usually by means of saw or osteome

A

Osteotomy

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62
Q

crush/rasp bone

A

Osteotripsy

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63
Q

to remove symptom without curing underlying disorder

A

Palliation

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64
Q

stick out of skin, denoting the passage of substances though unbroken skin, as in absorption by ununction. Passage through the skin by needle puncture. Introduction of wired and catheters

A

Percutaneous

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65
Q

removal of a digit of hand or foot

A

Phalangectomy

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66
Q

removal of a tendon or part of tendon

A

Tenectomy

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67
Q

fastening a tendon into place

A

Tenodesis

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68
Q

incision into the tendon

A

Tenotomy

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69
Q

to separate something into two distinct layers

A

Underscore

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70
Q

absence of pain, neurologic or pharacologic state in which painful stimuli are moderated such that they are still perceived but no longer painful

A

Analgesia

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71
Q

Reversal of differentiated states in cells, especially in the case of cancer or tumor

A

Anaplasia

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72
Q

absence of sensation, from pharmacologic depression of nerve function or form neurogenic dysfunction

A

Anesthesia

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73
Q

weakening and ballooning out of blood vessel wall

A

Aneurysm

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74
Q

fusion of fixation of a joint, stiffening or fixation of joint as a result of disease process which causes any fibrous or bony union across a joint

A

Ankylosis

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75
Q

hardening/stiffening of arteries, thickening of intima, loss of elasticity

A

Artheriosclerosis

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76
Q

formation of a fatty plaque in the most proximal blood vessels

A

Atherosclerosis

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77
Q

joint pain

A

Arthralgia

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78
Q

inflammation of a joint

A

Arthritis

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79
Q

x-ray of joint, may be with or without contrast

A

Arthrogram

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80
Q

visualization of a joint, endoscope for examining the internal anatomy of a joint

A

Arthroscope

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81
Q

due to cerebella syndrome. Broad based, oscillatory gait. Inability to coordinate muscle activity during voluntary movement

A

Ataxia

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82
Q

mild, non-progressive sickness or condition (like a neoplasm)

A

Benign

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83
Q

inflammation of bursa

A

Bursitis

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84
Q

synonymous with malignant tumors

A

Cancer

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85
Q

malignant tumor arising from epithelial cells

A

Carcinoma

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86
Q

inflammation of joint cartilage

A

Chondritis

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87
Q

blockage (usually of blood vessels), causes ischemia

A

Claudication

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88
Q

pain disproportional to the procedure

A

Causalgia

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89
Q

high arch

A

Cavoid

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90
Q

grinding of joint surfaces

A

Crepitation

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91
Q

inflammation of joint capsule

A

Capsulitis

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92
Q

two joint surfaces crossing slightly out of the joint

A

Deviation

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93
Q

metatarsal crossing into the hallux space

A

Subluxation

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94
Q

metatarsal completely under the hallux

A

Luxation

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95
Q

disease of carbohydrate intolerance due to relative or absolute insuline deficiency

A

Diabetes Mellitus

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96
Q

test in which a microscope slide is pressed to skin, no blanching = ecchymosis, blanching = erythema

A

Diascopy

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97
Q

bony projection (bone spur)

A

Exostosis

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98
Q

swelling, note whether unilateral/bilateral, pitting or non-pitting

A

Edema

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99
Q

redness or rubor, dialation of blood capillaries due to inflammation, blanches with diascopy test

A

Erythema

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100
Q

bleeding under the skin (bruise), skin won’t blanch with diascopy test

A

Ecchymosis

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101
Q

clot breaks loose and travels, can be venous or arterial

A

Embolism

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102
Q

like dermatitis, inflammation of the skin

A

Eczema

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103
Q

inflammation/irritation of fascia (common with flat feet)

A

Fasciitis

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104
Q

also called pes planis or pronation syndrome, depression of medial arch (rigid/flexible)

A

Flatfoot

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105
Q

necrosis of tissue (wet = infected, dry = non-infected)

A

Gangrene

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106
Q

disease of purine metabolism, produces uric acid crystals in kidneys and joints

A

Gout

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107
Q

callus on top of foot

A

Heloma

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108
Q

weakness on one half of the body

A

Hemiparesis

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109
Q

full paralysis on one half of the body (common with stroke)

A

Hemiplegia

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110
Q

increased blood sugar

A

Hyperglycemia

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111
Q

increased uric acid in blood, may indicate preliminary stage of gout

A

Hyperuricemia

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112
Q

increased number of cells

A

Hyperplasia

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113
Q

increased cell size

A

Hypertrophy

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114
Q

complete ischemia leading to tissue necrosis

A

Infarct

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115
Q

to close a wound with suture/staples

A

Primary Intention

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116
Q

wound is left open

A

Secondary Intention

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117
Q

inadequate blood flow to a part of the body, may lead to infarct

A

Ischemia

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118
Q

smooth muscle tumor

A

Leiomyoma

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119
Q

fatty tumor

A

Lipoma

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120
Q

progressive increase characterized by properties of anaplasia, metaplasia, etc

A

Malignancy

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121
Q

fungus (in feet = Onychomycosis/tinea pedis

A

Mycosis

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122
Q

cell type conversion, a tumor

A

Metaplasia

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123
Q

new growth, uncoordinated with the surrounding cells, may become cancerous

A

Neoplasia

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124
Q

nerve inflammation

A

Neuritis

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125
Q

nerve tumor (Morton’s)

A

Neuroma

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126
Q

group of diseases involving degeneration of the center of ossification in the bones of children and adolescents

A

Osteochondrosis

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127
Q

nail fungus

A

Onychomycosis

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128
Q

inflammation or infection of the inside of bone

A

Osteomyelitis

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129
Q

softening of bone due to Ca2+ and Vit D deficiency (Rickets)

A

Osteomalacia

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130
Q

Abnormal union of 2 bones in the rearfoot and midfoot. 3 Types.

A

Tarsal Coalition - Synostosis, synchondrosis, syndesmosis

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131
Q

Chronic inversion and adduction when the foot is in the plntarflexed position.

A

Supination syndrome

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132
Q

Inflammation of the vein (deep and superficial)

A

Phlebitis

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133
Q

Foot with too high of n arch

A

Pes Cavus

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134
Q

A triplanar deformity that is simultaneous eversion and abduction while the foot is dorsiflexed

A

Pronation syndrome

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135
Q

Inflammation of the plantar aponeurosis

A

Plantar fasciitis

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136
Q

Infracalcaneal exostosis.

A

Heel Spur

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137
Q

A form of arthritis caused by deposits of needle-like crystals of uric acid.

A

Gouty Arthritis

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138
Q

Breaking of a bone

A

Fracture

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139
Q

A disease process that occurs at the sire of insertion of muscle tendons and ligaments into bones or a joint capsule

A

Enthesopathy

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140
Q

3 Major types: Adduction of the forefoot, equinus of the rearfoot, and inversion of the rearfoot.A congenital deformity.

A

Club Foot (Talipes Equino Varus)

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141
Q

Looks like calcaneovalgus but the bones do not realign when plantarflexed. Most commonly seen in the right foot.

A

Congenital vertical talus (AKA Convex pes valgo plantus)

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142
Q

loss of bone tissue

A

Osteopenia

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143
Q

organic matrix of bone laid down by osteoblasts (“bone-like”)

A

Osteoid

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144
Q

inflammation of bone

A

Osteitis

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145
Q

fibrous tissue around a nerve

A

Perineural Fibrosis

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146
Q

increased urination

A

Polyuria

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147
Q

increased thirst

A

Polydipsia

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148
Q

increased appetite

A

Polyphagia

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149
Q

inflammation of a vein (deep may form clot

A

Phlebitis

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150
Q

growth that if untreated/watched may turn into cancer

A

Precancer

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151
Q

striated muscle tumor

A

Rhabdomyoma

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152
Q

inflammation of the nerve rots as they exit the spine, producing nerve pain up and down the foot and leg (L4-S2)

A

Radiculitis

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153
Q

malignant tumor in the CT’s

A

Sarcoma

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154
Q

blood clot

A

Thromus

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155
Q

neurological defect that can lead to ulcerations of the skin, as the patient can’t feel anything

A

Trophic

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156
Q

foot fungus (acute = wet, chronic = dried/scaly

A

Tinea Pedis

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157
Q

crystallizations in a joint due to crystal deposits (gout)

A

Tophi

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158
Q

callus on bottom of foot, hyperkeratosis

A

Tyloma

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159
Q

dilation of veins leading to pooling of blood and clot formation, prone to phlebitis

A

Varicosity

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160
Q

first and outer layer of skin

A

Epidermis

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161
Q

second layer of skin (papillary/reticular)

A

Dermis

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162
Q

bottom part of dermis, just above superficial fascia

A

Subcuticular

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163
Q

subcutaneous fascia, subcutaneous layer, hypodermis

A

Superficial fascia

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164
Q

investing fascia for muscles and tendons

A

Deep Fascia

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165
Q

outer layer of bone

A

Periosteum

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166
Q

clearing ou tthe area you will be working on in bone

A

Underscoring

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167
Q

move away from the underlying tissue, ie bone

A

Underscoring the capsule/periosteum

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168
Q

surgical removal of bone

A

Ostectomy/Osteotomy

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169
Q

small, flat, non-palpable, colored area of skin (less than 10 mm), area of melanocyte putting out melanin

A

Macule

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170
Q

a defined area of skin problem

A

Patch

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171
Q

small, solid, rounded bump rising from the skin, usually inflammatory elevation of skin that doesn’t contain pus (smaller than 1 cm)

A

Papule

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172
Q

small collection of tissue that is palpable and can be found in any skin layer, mass of tissue or aggregation of cells (larger than 1 cm)

A

Nodule

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173
Q

dry, broad, raised area on the skin and can be palpated, plateau like

A

Plaque

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174
Q

small blister on the skin or any small pouch (wet lesion filled with fluid)

A

Vesicle

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175
Q

fluid-filled blister

A

Bulla

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176
Q

collection of pus on the top layer of skin, small elevation of skin that is filled with pus

A

Pustule

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177
Q

thick, leathery skin, resulting from scratching and rubbing, hyperkeratosis caused by chronic inflammation resulting from prolinged scratching or irritation

A

Lichenification

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178
Q

crack in the skin, can be healed by TBC

A

Fissure

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179
Q

self induced traumatized area (scratching) that bleeds

A

Excoriation

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180
Q

light shined through a bag of proteins should transmit red and reflect blue

A

Tyndall Effect

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181
Q

skin that looks red but is cool to touch, can result in gangrene

A

Cool Erythema

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182
Q

skin pigmentation from Vit A, gives yellow color and is lipid soluble

A

Carotene

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183
Q

darkens skin, produced by melanocytes

A

Melanin

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184
Q

too many melanocytes

A

Melanoma

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185
Q

hypertrophy of the stratum corneum from trauma

A

Hyperkeratosis

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186
Q

corn on dorsum of foot

A

Heloma Durum

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187
Q

Macerated corn, from sweat between toes

A

Heloma Molle

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188
Q

keratosis formed over a previous ulcer, entraps capillaries and are prone to bleeding/rupture

A

Heloma Vascularis

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189
Q

corn that entraps a nerve making trimming painful

A

Heloma Neurofibrosum

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190
Q

multiple spotted tiny hyperkeratoses

A

Heloma Milliare

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191
Q

occurs where a sweat gland becomes occluded, vasodialates with sweating, but very painful to walk on

A

Porokeratosis

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192
Q

very deep, well-defined, hard central core of a callus that may go down to the bone

A

Intractable Plantar Keratosis (IPK)

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193
Q

elongation of the papillary layer and thinning of the superpapillary layer, affect skin on elbows, knew, scalp, lumbosacral areas, intergluteal cleft

A

Psoriasis

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194
Q

sign of psoriasis, bleeds easily

A

Auspitz sign

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195
Q

sign of psoriasis, new lesions form due to irritation

A

Koebner phenomenon

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196
Q

serous or pustular developments in addition to flaking (type of psoriasis)

A

Pustular Psoriasis

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197
Q

flexor surfaces of knees or extensor surfaces of elbows are the most common areas (type of psoriasis)

A

Psoriasis Vulgaris

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198
Q

pencil and cup deformities of joint (type of psoriasis)

A

Psoriatic Arthritis

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199
Q

extensor surfaces of lower extremity, flexor surfaces of upper extremities (type of psoriasis)

A

Inverse Psoriasis

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200
Q

epidermal/dermal destrucition causes this, inflammatory response with itching

A

Lichen Planus

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201
Q

Lichen Planus on anterior tibia

A

Violaceous Lesion

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202
Q

itching sensation

A

Pruritis

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203
Q

warts, increased number of rete pegs under hyperkeratosis, painful to squeeze, not to press

A

Verucae

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204
Q

common vart, bottom of foot

A

Verrucae Vulgaris

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205
Q

wart on face

A

Filiform wart

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206
Q

wart on plantar surface of the foot, more keratin on top

A

Verrucae Plantaris

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207
Q

wart on or near genitalia (caused by papillary virus)

A

Venereal warts

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208
Q

wart, usually seen on face and possibly on foot

A

Juvenile Warts

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209
Q

pale warts on the skin or mucous membrane

A

Molluscum Contagiosum

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210
Q

crop of warts together, may form into one huge lesion

A

Mosaic wart

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211
Q

forms blood blister within the wart and the wart usually falls off later

A

Pulse Dye Laser

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212
Q

freezes the wart

A

Liquid Nitrogen

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213
Q

used on warts instead of salicylic acid, paste that can be taped over the wart, debride a week later and repeat if not deep enough to remove

A

60% Selenicaine

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214
Q

burning the wart with electric spark

A

Hyfrecation

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215
Q

electric needle used on wart

A

Electrolysis

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216
Q

symptom, not a disease. Vasodilation of the papillary layer

A

Eczema

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217
Q

first contact causes reaction in patient (type of dermatitis)

A

Primary Irritant Contact Dermatitis

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218
Q

type of primary contact dermatitis, acid burns, poison ivy

A

Direct Etiology

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219
Q

type of primary contact dermatitis, skin dries out from washing dishes too often (soap)

A

Indirect Etiology

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220
Q

allergic reaction to whatever substance is touching the skin, first exposure nothing happend, second exposure causes a reaction

A

Allergic contact dermatitis

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221
Q

hives, superficial blood vessel inflammation

A

Uretecaria

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222
Q

hives with deep blood vessels inflammation

A

Angioedema

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223
Q

when a scratch causes inflammation and itch, itch/scratch cycle

A

Neurodermatitis (Lichen Simplex Chronicus)

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224
Q

fluid-filled vesicles, positive Nikolski sign = skin readily peels off if scratched

A

Pemphigus

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225
Q

bleeding when scratched, sign for psoriasis

A

Auspitz Sign

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226
Q

skin disease that give golden fluoresce under Wood’s lamp, caused by tinea versicola

A

Vitiligo

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227
Q

bacterial infection, occurs between the toes, bright red look, coral-red color under Wood’s lamp (pitted keratolysis)

A

Intertrigo

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228
Q

increase in number of melanocytes, clump together and can be raised, circumscribed lesion (moles)

A

Nevi

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229
Q

connective tissue surrounded by epidermal folds, treated by clipping or burning off

A

Skin Tags

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230
Q

Ulcer caused by pressure (decubitis) or insult (traumatic)

A

External Ulcer

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231
Q

ulcer caused by imbalance in blood sugar

A

Diabetic Ulcer

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232
Q

Ulcer caused by no blood flow or neurosensory deficit

A

Internal Ulcer

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233
Q

nail forms from the proximal part of the floor extending from the junction of floor and roof up to the anterior margin of the lunula (theory)

A

Traditional Theory

234
Q

nail forms in three layers, dorsal, intermediate, ventral (theory)

A

Lewis Theory

235
Q

exposed nail bed is sterile except for a small portion close to the point of separation of the nail from its bed (solehorn)(theory)

A

Boas Theory

236
Q

fungal infection of the nail

A

Onychomycosis

237
Q

three classes of dermatophytes

A

Tricophyton, Epidermophyton, Microsporum

238
Q

most common saprophytic yeast infection

A

Candida Albicans

239
Q

ingrown toenail

A

Onychocryptosis

240
Q

wearing down of the cartilage due to age, wear and tear, and/or possible trauma

A

Degenerative Joint Disease

241
Q

many joints involved, unknown etiologies, seropositive/negative forms, metabolic or endocrine (gout/pseudogout)

A

Polyarthidities (Inflammatory)

242
Q

abnormal enlargement of the medial aspect of the metatarsophalangeal joint at base of hallux

A

Bunion

243
Q

condition where one of the metatarsals are short, causing a short toe

A

Brachymetatarsia

244
Q

frequent manifestation of tissue ischemia which is caused by occlusion of small vessels and usually occurs in elderly male who undergoes an invasive vascular procedure

A

Blue Toe Syndrome

245
Q

toe contracted at DIP and PIP joints, often result of nerve damage

A

Claw Toe

246
Q

Arthridities

A

non-inflammatory: degenerative joint disease

inflammatory: poly-arthridities of unknown etiology; metabolic, endocrine arthridities

247
Q

Bunion

A

abnormal enlargement of the joint (MTP) at the base of the hallux; caused by inflammation

248
Q

Brachymetatarsia

A

condition in which one of five metatarsals is abnormally short; brachymetapody (affecting more than one toe)

249
Q

Blue Toe Syndrome

A

(arterial embolic disorder); frequent manifestation of tissue ischemia which is caused by occlusion of small vessels; occurs when “shower” a little emboli into one of the digits

250
Q

Claw Toe

A

toe that is contracted at PIP and DIP joints, which leads to severe pressure and pain; often result of nerve damage caused by diseases like diabetes or alcoholism

251
Q

Capsulitis

A

inflammation of capsule; most frequently affects the forefoot, specifically head of 2nd metatarsal

252
Q

Diabetic Osteolysis

A

bone disappears; increase in osteoclast activity, causing demineralization

253
Q

Digiti Minimi Varus

A

the phalanx is turned toward the midline

254
Q

Dislocation

A

no connection at the MPJ; luxation

255
Q

Fracture

A

to break bone or cartilage; can occur via traumatic, surgical, or pathological means

256
Q

Forefoot Varus

A

a constant structural inversion of the forefoot with respect to a bisection of the posterior of the calcaneus when the subtalar joint is in a neutral position; causes severe pronation problems

Uncompensated: rearfoot is rigid and cannot compensate; will try to compensate in the midtarsal joint
Partially compensated: degree of forefoot varus is greater than the available degree of calcaneal eversion
Compensated: when degree of forefoot varus is equal to or less than the degree of calcaneal eversion

257
Q

Forefoot Valgus

A

most common deformity; everted position of the forefoot relative to the rearfoot at the level of the midtarsal joint; inversion of the lateral column must occur to allow the forefoot to purchase the supporting surface during midstance and propulsive phases of gait

Flexible Forefoot Valgus: sufficient flexibility in the midtarsal joint to allow the lateral column of the foot to reach the supportive surface; leads to unstable gait; causes flatfoot
Rigid Forefoot Valgus: when range of motion in midtarsal joint is not enough to allow the lateral column of foot to touch ground; rearfoot supination/compensation required; causes high arch

258
Q

Gouty Arthritis

A

arthritis caused by deposits of uric acid crystals

259
Q

Gangrene

A

most commonly occurs on limb which has lost blood supply and undergoes coagulative necrosis

Dry: tissue leads to dessication and mummification
Wet: caused by bacterial infection

260
Q

Hallux Abducto Valgus

A

progressive degeneration of 1st MPJ; demonstrates classic features of osteoarthritis; hallux is abducted and everted (patient usually has bunion)

261
Q

Hallux Extensus

A

deformity where hallux is held rigidly in extended position, causing too much force on metatarsal head

262
Q

Hallux Interphalangeus

A

abduction deformity of IPJ of hallux; distal phalanx abducted to side

263
Q

Hallux Limitus

A

limited amount of dorsiflexion at MPJ

264
Q

Hallux Rigidus

A

condition where stiffness occurs in 1st MPJ; usually associated with development of bone spurs on dorsal surface

265
Q

Hallux Varus

A

deviation of hallux at MPJ; hallux is inverted

266
Q

Hammertoe

A

deformed toe with contraction at the PIP joint; dorsiflexion at the PIP and plantarflexion of DIP joint

267
Q

Heloma

A

corn or callosity on foot

268
Q

Heloma Molle

A

corn formed by pressure between two toes; surface is macerated and yellowish in color; soft corn; (heloma durum is a hard corn)

269
Q

Hypertrophy

A

increase in size of metatarsal head

270
Q

Intractable Plantar Keratosis

A

discrete callus, about 1cm, directly under a metatarsal head; feels like “pebble” in ball of foot

271
Q

Intermetatarsal Neuroma

A

tumor on nerve in metatarsal or between metatarsals (e.g. Morton’s Neuroma)

272
Q

Mallet Toe

A

occurs when joint at the end of toe cannot straighten; tip of toe is turned down against top of shoe; plantarflexion of DIP joint

273
Q

Metatarsalgia

A

painful foot condition in the metatarsal region of the foot; caused by extensor muscles pulling too hard

274
Q

Metatarsus Adductus

A

adduction of metatarsus from midline

275
Q

Morton’s Neuroma

A

occurs in the 3rd interspace between metatarsal heads

276
Q

Onychauxis

A

thickened nail

277
Q

Onychocryptosis

A

ingrown nail

278
Q

Onychpgryphosis

A

long curved nail

279
Q

Onchomycosis

A

nail fungus

280
Q

Paronychia

A

suppurative inflammation of the nail fold surrounding the nail plate

281
Q

Plantarflexed Metatarsal

A

plantarflexion of a metatarsal

282
Q

Sprain

A

stretch, partial tear, total tear of a ligament

283
Q

Splay Foot

A

widen metatarsal angles; very flexible foot

284
Q

Subungual Exostosis

A

prominence of distal phalanx of a hallux; boney growth beneath nail

285
Q

Subungual Hematoma

A

blood under nail

286
Q

Tailor’s Bunion

A

lateral aspect of 5th metatarsal head

287
Q

Verrucae

A

flesh-colored growth characterized by circumscribed hypertrophy of the papillae of the corium

288
Q

Anterior Equinas

A

horse shaped

289
Q

Cellulitis

A

infection of the skin and underlying tissues that can affect any area of the body

290
Q

Charcot Foot

A

progressive degeneration that affects joints of the foot; associated with nerve damage that decreases ability to sense stimuli; joints of feet are subjected to repeated trauma

291
Q

Dorsal Exostosis

A

plantarflexion of forefoot area; boney prominence at tarsometatarsal joint

292
Q

Ganglionic Cyst

A

synovial membrane that has out pockets and filled with synovial fluid

293
Q

Kohler’s Disease

A

avascular necrosis of bone (navicular)

294
Q

LisFranc’s Fracture/Dislocation

A

dislocation of 1st cuneiform to 2nd metatarsal base

295
Q

Lymphangitis

A

inflammation of lymphocytes

296
Q

Ulcer

A

lesion through the skin or mucous membrane resulting from loss of tissue, usually with inflammation

Ischemic: no blood supply
Neurotrophic: no filling to area
Decubitis: bedsore
Venousstasis: poor venous return to heart

297
Q

Ankle Equinas

A

horse shape (rearfoot pathology)

298
Q

Calcaneovalgus

A

flexible deformity of foot in dorsiflexed position and touches talus; bones align with forced plantarflexion

299
Q

Congenital Vertical Talus

A

same as calcaneovalgus except much more rigid; forced plantarflexion will not realign bones

300
Q

Club Foot

A

(Talipes Equino Varus); deformity of ankle; inversion, plantarflexion, adducted (supination); metatarsal abduction foot to leg

301
Q

Enthesopathy

A

a disease process occurring at the site of insertion of muscle tendons and ligaments into bones or joint capsules

302
Q

Heel Spur Syndrome

A

exostosis, periostitis, plantar fascitis, or heel neuroma; causes abnormal walking style; spur itself does not cause pain but may be caused by inflammation in the area

303
Q

Periostitis

A

inflammation involving the periosteum; may result in new bone formation

304
Q

Plantar Fascitis

A

inflammation of central portion of plantar aponeurosis; common cause is a flat heel; associated with heel spurs

305
Q

Pronation Syndrome

A

eversion, abduction, dorsiflexion (pronation); type of flatfoot, triplane deformity

306
Q

Pes Cavus

A

high arch

307
Q

Supination Syndrome

A

inversion, adduction, plantarflexion (supination)

308
Q

Tarsal Coalition

A

abnormal union of two or more bones in the rearfoot and midfoot; complete or incomplete; congenital or acquired; can be bony (synostosis), catilaginous (synchondrosis), or fibrous (syndesmosis)

309
Q

Deformity of MPJ, PIP

A

Hammertoe

310
Q

Deformity of DIP, PIP

A

Claw Toe

311
Q

Deformity of DIP

A

Mallet toe

312
Q

When toes are curled and inverted towards the body

A

Varus deformity

313
Q

Deviation of the digits medial towards the 2nd toe

A

Adduction deformity

314
Q

Deviation of the digits outward/away from the body. Heloma molle may result.

A

Digital Abductus

-metatarsal abductus is the entire forefoot being bent outward from the body

315
Q

Corn between toes

A

Heloma molle

316
Q

Etiologies of Hammertoes

A

Extensor substitution
Flexor substitution
Flexor stabilization

317
Q

weak tibialis anterior m. causes other extensors to fire harder, which upsets the dynamics b/w other extensors (and gives one hammertoes) EDL in particular can pull toes back (swing-phase formation of hammertoes – allows toes to clear in swing but causes hammertoe formation)

A

Extensor substitution

318
Q

weak soleus muscle causes other posterior muscles to fire stronger than normal to prevent excessive ankle dorsiflexion in midstance. Flexor substitution occurs: FDL will upset dynamic by firing stronger than normal and will cause toes to buckle proximally.

A

Flexor substitution

319
Q

when intrinsic muscles (lumbricals or interossiae) are weak, FDL becomes a deforming force, which causes hammer toes. Over time, the contracted extensor hood becomes a “holding force” maintaining the toes in their contracted position.

A

Flexor stabilization

320
Q

Name other factors that affect the formation of hammertoes

A

Hallux abducto valgus
Tight shoes
High heels
Congenital deformity

321
Q

Name other factors that affect the formation of hammertoes

A

Hallux abducto valgus
Tight shoes
High heels
Congenital deformity

322
Q

Ways to evaluate hammer toes

A

Flexible vs. Rigid Hammertoes
Push-up test - push up on metatarsal base. If toes straighten, it is a flexible hammertoe.
Stand on floor - same principle – toes will straighten out if flexible

323
Q

Flexible vs. Rigid Hammertoes

A

If it is a flexible hammer toe, surgeon can do capsular and tendon work

If a semi-rigid or rigid, surgeon will have to do bone work

324
Q

Conservative Treatment of Hammertoes

A
Debridement of hyperkeratosis
Accommodative padding around prominences
Modification of foot gear
Local steroid injection
Oral NSAIDs
Topical keratolytics
Patient education
Orthotic control
325
Q

Surgical Treatment of Flexible Hammer Toes

A

Flexor tenotomy
Extensor tenoromy
Extensor hood release

326
Q

Surgical Treatment of Rigid Hammer Toes

A
Arthroplasty at PIPJ
PIPJ fusion
Digital joint implant
Middle phalangectomy
Diaphysectomy
Resection of base of proximal phalanx with syndactylization (joining of 2 toes surgically)
327
Q

Surgical Treatment of Mallet Toes

A

Arthroplasty of DIPJ

328
Q

Treatment of Heloma Molle

A

Exostectomy, arthroplasty, of syndactylization, since it is caused by the rubbing of head of proximal phalanx on the base of the middle phalanx of an adjacent toe

329
Q

Prominence on the medial aspect of the 1st metatarsal head

A

Bunion

330
Q

Promineneve on the lateral aspect of the 5th metatarsal head

A

Tailor’s Bunion

331
Q

3 stages of healing process

A

Inflammation, Proliferation, Remodeling

332
Q

0-4 days. Vascular, cellular, hemostatic event (lag/substrate phase)

A

Inflammation stage of healing process

333
Q

5-20 days. Collagen fibers get laid down by fibroblasts (stage of healing)

A

Proliferation stage of healing

334
Q

21+ days. Stage of healing process. Begins at 3 weeks for tendons

A

Remodeling stage of healing

335
Q

What are the major areas to ask about for a physical?

A

Vasculature, Derm, Neuro, Musculoskeletal, Vital signs (temp, BP, respirations)

336
Q

What are the 6 basic rules of infection?

A

Recognition, ID of infecting organisms, diagnostic testing, decompression/debridement, antibiosis, follow-up

337
Q

when a drug inhibits growth

A

bacteriostatic

338
Q

antibiotic for soft tissue infection, if patient is allergic to penicillin, metabolized by liver

A

erythromycin

339
Q

antibiotic goes through barrier, metabolized by liver

A

clindamycin

340
Q

antibiotic not used often, metabolized by kidney

A

tetracycline

341
Q

antibiotic for burn patients

A

sulfonamides

342
Q

destroys cell at or near the m.i.c.

A

bacteriocidal

343
Q

always used the drug with the lowest m.i.c., the smaller the dosage the better

A

minimum inhibitory concentration

344
Q

type of antibiotic most often used in podiatry

A

bacteriocidal

345
Q

penicillins, cephalosporins, aminoglycosides, and vancomycin all metabolized by kidney

A

bacteriocidal

346
Q

using two drugs of the same class, i.e. giving a bacteriostatic drug with another bacteriostatic drug or a bactericidal drug with another bacteriocidal drug

A

agonist

347
Q

using one drug from each of the two classes (bacteriocidal and bacteriostatic); try to avoid this option

A

antagonist

348
Q

try to avoid antagonistic relationship; exception to the rule is using bacteriostatic Clindamycin with bacteriocidal drug

A

cuts through extra-capsular polysaccharide glycolate slime coat secreted by some bacteria

349
Q

sensitivity to medication

A

medication resistance

350
Q

organism can successfully resist medication (antibiotic won’t work against organism)

A

organism resistance

351
Q

bacteriocidal drugs (penicillin, vancomycin, cephalosporin, aminoglycosides, tetracyclines, quinolones) excreted by ___

A

kidney

352
Q

bacteriostatic drugs (erythromycin, clindamycin) excreted by ___

A

liver

353
Q

1st generation cephalosporin; 80% excretion via kidney and 20% via liver (good for those with liver problems)

A

cefazolin (ancef)

354
Q

3rd generation cephalosporin, 20% excretion via kidney and 80% via liver; “pre-op” antibiotic

A

cefaperazone (cefobid)

355
Q

what to look for at infection site

A

Cellulitis, Lymphangitis, Abscess

356
Q

aerobic bacteria, staph (clusters), strep (chains), pneumo

A

gram(+) cocci

357
Q

aerobic bacteria, Listeria, Clostridia, Dipthroides (LCD)

A

gram(+) rods

358
Q

aerobic bacteria, Genococcus, Meningitis (GM)

A

gram(-) cocci

359
Q

aerobic bacteria, Enterobacteriaceae, Pseudomonas - smelly infections (do NOT confused with enterococcus)

A

gram(-) rods

360
Q

anaerobic bacteria, oral, gut, and vaginal

A

Bacteroides, Fragilis

361
Q

penicillins, 1st generation cephalosporins treat:

A

gram(+) aerobes

362
Q

aminoglycosides, 2nd and 3rd generation cephalosporins (strongest) treat:

A

gram(-) aerobes

363
Q

1) quinolones if not resistant

2) otherwise anti-pseudomonal penicillin/cephalosporin PLUS anti-pseudomonal aminoglycoside COMBO are treatments for ___

A

pseudomonas

364
Q

penicillins treat:

A

anaerobes

365
Q

clindamycin or metronidazole treat:

A

bacteroides fragilis

366
Q

complication of clindamycin is known as ___; the life-threatening diarrhea is treated by oral vancomycin which stays in the gut a long time to clean it because it has poor gut absorption

A

pseudo-membranous colitis

367
Q

treatment for everything but pseudomonas; does not come in oral form [intravenous]

A

Unasyn

368
Q

treatment with good aerobic coverage only

A

quinolones

369
Q

treatment with excellent broad spectrum, aerobic and anaerobic coverage; augmentin is the oral form and timentin is the parentral form (intravenous, intramuscular)

A

clavulonates

370
Q

treatment does not work well against Staph. Aureus; Keflex is a 1st generation cephalosporin that is effective because it is very resistance to degradation by beta-lactamase

A

penicillins

371
Q

route of administration for minor infections in general; can be as strong as intravenous (IV)

A

oral

372
Q

route of administration that is intravenous, intramuscular; for deep wound infections, potential bone involvement, constitutional symptoms

A

parentral

373
Q

for dosage of children:

weight in pounds/150 = % of adult dose

A

Clark’s rule

374
Q

1) situations where dire consequences could occur (ex: joint replacement) 2) situations where infection is common/possible (ex: prolonged wound exposure, extensive surgical trauma, contamination during surgery) 3) compromised immunological system

A

indications of prophylaxis

375
Q

antibiotics that have beta-lactam rings in their structure; penicillins, cephalosporins, carbopenims, monobactams, cephamycins

A

beta-lactams

376
Q

PenVK (oral) and PenG (IV, for surgery)

A

natural penicillins

377
Q

ampicillin is twice as strong as amoxicillin (so you use half as much)

A

aminopenicillins

378
Q

Cloxacillin, Oxacillin, Naphcillin, Dicloxacillin, Methacillin (CONDM)

A

penicillin-resistant penicillins

379
Q

an enzyme secreted by some bacteria that breaks down penicillin molecules

A

penicillinase

380
Q

type of penicillinase that acts on beta-lactam ring

A

beta-lactamase

381
Q

Azlocillin, Pipercillin, Mezlocillin, Carbenicillin, Ticracillin

A

Acylureido Penicillins

382
Q

carbenicillin, ticarcillin

A

carboxypenicillins

383
Q

beta-lactamase inhibitors; penicillinase-resistant

A

clavulonates

384
Q

amoxicillin + clavulonate

A

Augmentin

385
Q

Ticarcillin + Clavulonate; intravenous/intramuscular

A

Timentin

386
Q

Sulbactam + Ampicillin; intravenous/intramuscular

A

Unasyn (not for Pseudomonas)

387
Q

Deformity of MPJ, PIP

A

Hammertoe

388
Q

Deformity of DIP, PIP

A

Claw Toe

389
Q

Deformity of DIP

A

Mallet toe

390
Q

When toes are curled and inverted towards the body

A

Varus deformity

391
Q

Deviation of the digits medial towards the 2nd toe

A

Adduction deformity

392
Q

Deviation of the digits outward/away from the body. Heloma molle may result

A

Digital Abductus

393
Q

Corn between toes

A

Heloma molle

394
Q

Etiologies of Hammertoes

A

Extensor substitution
Flexor substitution
Flexor stabilization

395
Q

weak tibialis anterior m. causes other extensors to fire harder, which upsets the dynamics b/w other extensors (and gives one hammertoes) EDL in particular can pull toes back (swing-phase formation of hammertoes – allows toes to clear in swing but causes hammertoe formation)

A

Extensor substitution

396
Q

weak soleus muscle causes other posterior muscles to fire stronger than normal to prevent excessive ankle dorsiflexion in midstance. Flexor substitution occurs: FDL will upset dynamic by firing stronger than normal and will cause toes to buckle proximally.

A

Flexor substitution

397
Q

when intrinsic muscles (lumbricals or interossiae) are weak, FDL becomes a deforming force, which causes hammer toes. Over time, the contracted extensor hood becomes a “holding force” maintaining the toes in their contracted position.

A

Flexor stabilization

398
Q

Name other factors that affect the formation of hammertoes

A

Hallux abducto valgus
Tight shoes
High heels
Congenital deformity

399
Q

Ways to evaluate hammer toes

A

Flexible vs. Rigid Hammertoes
Push-up test - push up on metatarsal base. If toes straighten, it is a flexible hammertoe.
Stand on floor - same principle – toes will straighten out if flexible

400
Q

Flexible vs. Rigid Hammertoes

A

If it is a flexible hammer toe, surgeon can do capsular and tendon work

If a semi-rigid or rigid, surgeon will have to do bone work

401
Q

Conservative Treatment of Hammertoes

A
Debridement of hyperkeratosis
Accommodative padding around prominences
Modification of foot gear
Local steroid injection
Oral NSAIDs
Topical keratolytics
Patient education
Orthotic control
402
Q

Surgical Treatment of Flexible Hammer Toes

A

Flexor tenotomy
Extensor tenoromy
Extensor hood release

403
Q

Surgical Treatment of Rigid Hammer Toes

A
Arthroplasty at PIPJ
PIPJ fusion
Digital joint implant
Middle phalangectomy
Diaphysectomy
Resection of base of proximal phalanx with syndactylization (joining of 2 toes surgically)
404
Q

Surgical Treatment of Mallet Toes

A

Arthroplasty of DIPJ

405
Q

Treatment of Heloma Molle

A

Exostectomy, arthroplasty, of syndactylization, since it is caused by the rubbing of head of proximal phalanx on the base of the middle phalanx of an adjacent toe

406
Q

Prominence on the medial aspect of the 1st metatarsal head

A

Bunion

407
Q

Promineneve on the lateral aspect of the 5th metatarsal head

A

Tailor’s Bunion

408
Q

3 stages of healing process

A

Inflammation, Proliferation, Remodeling

409
Q

0-4 days. Vascular, cellular, hemostatic event (lag/substrate phase)

A

Inflammation stage of healing process

410
Q

5-20 days. Collagen fibers get laid down by fibroblasts (stage of healing)

A

Proliferation stage of healing

411
Q

21+ days. Stage of healing process. Begins at 3 weeks for tendons

A

Remodeling stage of healing

412
Q

What are the major areas to ask about for a physical?

A

Vasculature, Derm, Neuro, Musculoskeletal, Vital signs (temp, BP, respirations)

413
Q

What are the 6 basic rules of infection?

A

Recognition, ID of infecting organisms, diagnostic testing, decompression/debridement, antibiosis, follow-up

414
Q

when a drug inhibits growth

A

bacteriostatic

415
Q

antibiotic for soft tissue infection, if patient is allergic to penicillin, metabolized by liver

A

erythromycin

416
Q

antibiotic goes through barrier, metabolized by liver

A

clindamycin

417
Q

antibiotic not used often, metabolized by kidney

A

tetracycline

418
Q

antibiotic for burn patients

A

sulfonamides

419
Q

destroys cell at or near the m.i.c.

A

bacteriocidal

420
Q

always used the drug with the lowest m.i.c., the smaller the dosage the better

A

minimum inhibitory concentration

421
Q

type of antibiotic most often used in podiatry

A

bacteriocidal

422
Q

penicillins, cephalosporins, aminoglycosides, and vancomycin all metabolized by kidney

A

bacteriocidal

423
Q

using two drugs of the same class, i.e. giving a bacteriostatic drug with another bacteriostatic drug or a bactericidal drug with another bacteriocidal drug

A

agonist

424
Q

using one drug from each of the two classes (bacteriocidal and bacteriostatic); try to avoid this option

A

antagonist

425
Q

try to avoid antagonistic relationship; exception to the rule is using bacteriostatic Clindamycin with bacteriocidal drug

A

cuts through extra-capsular polysaccharide glycolate slime coat secreted by some bacteria

426
Q

sensitivity to medication

A

medication resistance

427
Q

organism can successfully resist medication (antibiotic won’t work against organism)

A

organism resistance

428
Q

bacteriocidal drugs (penicillin, vancomycin, cephalosporin, aminoglycosides, tetracyclines, quinolones) excreted by ___

A

kidney

429
Q

bacteriostatic drugs (erythromycin, clindamycin) excreted by ___

A

liver

430
Q

1st generation cephalosporin; 80% excretion via kidney and 20% via liver (good for those with liver problems)

A

cefazolin (ancef)

431
Q

3rd generation cephalosporin, 20% excretion via kidney and 80% via liver; “pre-op” antibiotic

A

cefaperazone (cefobid)

432
Q

what to look for at infection site

A

Cellulitis, Lymphangitis, Abscess

433
Q

aerobic bacteria, staph (clusters), strep (chains), pneumo

A

gram(+) cocci

434
Q

aerobic bacteria, Listeria, Clostridia, Dipthroides (LCD)

A

gram(+) rods

435
Q

aerobic bacteria, Genococcus, Meningitis (GM)

A

gram(-) cocci

436
Q

aerobic bacteria, Enterobacteriaceae, Pseudomonas - smelly infections (do NOT confused with enterococcus)

A

gram(-) rods

437
Q

anaerobic bacteria, oral, gut, and vaginal

A

Bacteroides, Fragilis

438
Q

penicillins, 1st generation cephalosporins treat:

A

gram(+) aerobes

439
Q

aminoglycosides, 2nd and 3rd generation cephalosporins (strongest) treat:

A

gram(-) aerobes

440
Q

1) quinolones if not resistant

2) otherwise anti-pseudomonal penicillin/cephalosporin PLUS anti-pseudomonal aminoglycoside COMBO are treatments for ___

A

pseudomonas

441
Q

penicillins treat:

A

anaerobes

442
Q

clindamycin or metronidazole treat:

A

bacteroides fragilis

443
Q

complication of clindamycin is known as ___; the life-threatening diarrhea is treated by oral vancomycin which stays in the gut a long time to clean it because it has poor gut absorption

A

pseudo-membranous colitis

444
Q

treatment for everything but pseudomonas; does not come in oral form [intravenous]

A

Unasyn

445
Q

treatment with good aerobic coverage only

A

quinolones

446
Q

treatment with excellent broad spectrum, aerobic and anaerobic coverage; augmentin is the oral form and timentin is the parentral form (intravenous, intramuscular)

A

clavulonates

447
Q

treatment does not work well against Staph. Aureus; Keflex is a 1st generation cephalosporin that is effective because it is very resistance to degradation by beta-lactamase

A

penicillins

448
Q

route of administration for minor infections in general; can be as strong as intravenous (IV)

A

oral

449
Q

route of administration that is intravenous, intramuscular; for deep wound infections, potential bone involvement, constitutional symptoms

A

parentral

450
Q

for dosage of children:

weight in pounds/150 = % of adult dose

A

Clark’s rule

451
Q

anti-pseudomonal penicillins: Azlocillin, Pipercillin, Mexlocillin, Carbenicillin, Ticarcillin (A PM CTI)

A

acylureido penicillins

452
Q

antipseudomonal penicillins: Carbenicillin and Ticarcillin

A

carboxypenicillins

453
Q

K ↓, Na↑, PT↑, platelet dysfunction

A

carbenicillin

454
Q

Tobramycin, Amikacin, Netalmycin, Gentamycin (TANG)

A

aminoglycosides

455
Q

___ are based on peak/trough and kidney function

A

adjustments of dose/interval

456
Q

blood drawn before each dose; lowest point in blood

A

trough

457
Q

blood drawn after each dose, highest point in blood

A

peak

458
Q
  • Penicillin allergic patient
  • Aerobic Gram (+) only
  • Drug of choice for MRSA infection
  • Parenteral (IV) → means it enters the body in a manner other than through the digestive tract, like by intravenous or intramuscular injection
  • Adjust administration of this drug for renal function
A

vancomycin

459
Q
  • Bacteriostatic
  • Liver excreted
  • Penicillin allergic patient with soft tissue infections →esp. Erythromycin!
  • i.e., Erythromycin, Azithromycin (long acting)
A

macrolides

460
Q
  • Gram (+) Aerobes, Most Anaerobes
  • Bacteroides Fragilis → (Metranidazole-Flagyl is also effective)
  • Gets thru extracapsular polysaccharide glycolate slime coat secreted by some bacteria
  • Side effect → Pseudomembranous Colitis
    and Treatment → Oral Vancomycin
A

clindamycin

461
Q

1) situations where dire consequences could occur (ex: joint replacement) 2) situations where infection is common/possible (ex: prolonged wound exposure, extensive surgical trauma, contamination during surgery) 3) compromised immunological system

A

indications of prophylaxis

462
Q
  • Oral or IV
  • Broad Spectrum
  • Aerobic only
  • Oral serum levels equivalent to IV antibiotics allow more outpatient therapy flexability
  • i.e., Ciprofloxacin, Levoflaxacin (expands Gram +)
A

quinolones

463
Q

different organisms and patterns of lacerations for human, dogs, cats, spiders, snakes, ticks, etc.

A

bite wounds

464
Q

consider: 1) electrolytes like K+ and Na+ 2) fluid loading i.e. congestive heart failure 3) drug interactions/kidney function

A

geriatric considerations

465
Q

specific issues in an infection H&P

A
  • increased pain, rubor, temp, edema, past
  • past illness/infections, diabetes, PVD
  • current meds, kidney/liver function
  • allergies - especially to drugs
  • family hx - diabetes, vascular disorders
  • social hx - alcohol, smoking, drugs
466
Q

Examination of Infection Site

A
  • cellulitis, lymphangitis, abscess

- get deep culture if possible (surface cultures are contaminated)

467
Q

tell you which specific drug will work on which specific organism, need to be sent to the lab immediately

A

Cultures

468
Q

What are the signs of anaerobic organism infection?

A
  • black areas in x-rays of soft tissues = gas
  • foul smell
  • area exposed to fecal matter
  • septic patient
  • necrotic tissue
  • thrombophlebitis
469
Q

test to check for bone infection vs soft tissue infection

A

X-ray

470
Q

shows slices of tissue

A

CT scan

471
Q

“complete blood count”

-watch lymphocytes in WBC number

A

CBC test

472
Q

Means of tracking inflammation (ESR)

A

Erythrosedimentation Rate

473
Q

sensitive means of tracking inflammation (more precise than ESR)

A

C-Reactive Protein

474
Q

tracks kidney function, should be about 1

  • if value is 2, 50% kidney function
  • if value is high, get GFR to see what amount going through kidney
A

Creatinine test

475
Q

shows sugar levels, increased = decreased immune function

A

Blood Glucose test

476
Q

measure of blood clotting compared to normal

A

PT (PTT)

477
Q

checks for cardiac problems

A

EKG

478
Q

performed if you suspect an infection, make sure to now go through an abscess while performing this test of it will precipitate an infection

A

Bone Biopsy

479
Q

What are the effects of infection on the healing process?

A
  • Provocation without resolution
  • stop the impediment to the healing process
  • Drainage
  • use of antiboitics
480
Q

what are the 6 basic rules of infection?

A

1) Recognition
2) Identification of infecting organisms
3) Diagnostic testing
4) Decompression and debridement
5) Antibiosis
6) Follow up

481
Q

go through each rule of infection

A

or you die

482
Q

what are the 6 types of Osteomyelitis

A

1) Acute Hematogenous Osteomyelitis
2) Contiguous (direct extension) Osteomyelitis
3) Osteomyelitis associated with PVD
4) Chronic Osteomyelitis
5) Brodie’s Abscess
6) Septic Arthritis

483
Q

blood infection that gets into bone, from oral surgery with an abscess in the mouth,

A

Acute Hematogenous Osteomyelitis

484
Q

intramembranous bone growth

A

causes bone to grow in width

485
Q

endochondral bone growth

A

causes bone to grow in length

486
Q

what are the four major blood supplies to long bones (areas)

A

Epiphyseal, Metaphyseal, Diaphyseal, Periosteal

487
Q

infection begins in sinusoids at limits of circulation/sinusoid lakes due to sluggish blood flow, no epiphyseal plate so infection can spread to joint (staph aureus mostly)

A

Infant-AHO

488
Q

what is the main infector of bone

A

Staph Aureus

489
Q

epiphyseal plate present, secondary center of ossification present, sluggish blood flow under epiphyseal plate, blood infection spreading to bone

A

child AHO at 14 months

490
Q

slow metaphyseal blood flow, no epiphyseal plate (infection can spread to entire bone), no more low O2 environment, no more bone growth (only replacement), weak point still sinusoid lakes

A

Adult AHO

491
Q

what is the treatment for osteomyelitis?

A
  • After debridement in all cases is 4-6 weeks IV antibiotics followed by 4-6 months of oral antibiotics
  • must give long-term antibiotics→ have to be very aggressive
492
Q

osteomyelitis secondary to ulceration or puncture wounds

A

Contiguous (direct extension) Osteomyelitis

493
Q

Wound: >6 hours old, stellate/angular configuration, >1cm depth, necrotic/dying tissue, dirty/contaminated (from bullet, crush, burn, frostbite)

A

Tetanus prone wound of contiguous osteomyelitis

494
Q

Wound: <1cm depth, no necrotic/dying tissue, no contaminants/dirt in wound (from sharp puncture, glass, knife)

A

Non-tetanus prone wound of contiguous osteomyelitis

495
Q

A substance that has been treated to destroy its toxic properties but retains the capacity to stimulate production of antitoxins

A

Toxoid

496
Q

antibody with the ability to neutralize a specific toxin

A

Antitoxin

497
Q

when administering both a toxoid and an antitoxin, can you inject them both in the same arm?

A

No, you must administer them in separate arms. Otherwise the antitoxin will neutralize the toxoid

498
Q

would you need to give a patient with a tetanus prone wound a toxoid if they have had 3 doses of toxoid immunization and it has been less than 5 years since last booster?

A

No toxoid would be needed even if the wound is “dirty.” Only given if less than 3 doses OR more than 5 years since booster

499
Q

given for tetanus prone wound if unknown or less than 3 doses immunization. Not needed for non-tetanus prone wound

A

Antitoxin

500
Q

given if unknown or less than 3 doses of toxoid immunization or more than 10 years since last booster

A

Toxoid

501
Q

type of osteomyelitis common in diabetics, polymicrobic

A

Osteomyelitis Associated with Peripheral Vascular Disease

502
Q

periosteal formation of new bone

A

Involucrum

503
Q

1 cause of chronic osteomyelitis

A

Staph Aureus

504
Q

long standing infection where acute fever/swelling seems to have gone away and suddenly reappears again. Type of osteomyelitis

A

Chronic Osteomyelitis

505
Q

perforations in the cortex, get soft abscesses around the bone, patient can get infections through this all the way to the periosteum. If it gets all the way to the skin, a sinus tract may form all the way to the skin

A

Cloacae (involved with chronic osteomyelitis)

506
Q

infection under periosteum that lifts it away

A

Subperiosteal Superation

507
Q

subacute hematogenous osteomyelitis (not chronic). Site of healed osteomyelitis filled with infected granulation tissue. Treated by scraping out material

A

Brodie’s Abscess

508
Q

diagnosis of Septic Arthritis

A

sterile aspiration of joint

509
Q

antibiotics that have beta-lactam rings in their structure; penicillins, cephalosporins, carbopenims, monobactams, cephamycins

A

beta-lactams

510
Q

PenVK (oral) and PenG (IV, for surgery)

A

natural penicillins

511
Q

ampicillin is twice as strong as amoxicillin (so you use half as much)

A

aminopenicillins

512
Q

Cloxacillin, Oxacillin, Naphcillin, Dicloxacillin, Methacillin (CONDM)

A

penicillin-resistant penicillins

513
Q

an enzyme secreted by some bacteria that breaks down penicillin molecules

A

penicillinase

514
Q

type of penicillinase that acts on beta-lactam ring

A

beta-lactamase

515
Q

Azlocillin, Pipercillin, Mezlocillin, Carbenicillin, Ticracillin

A

Acylureido Penicillins

516
Q

carbenicillin, ticarcillin

A

carboxypenicillins

517
Q

beta-lactamase inhibitors; penicillinase-resistant

A

clavulonates

518
Q

amoxicillin + clavulonate

A

Augmentin

519
Q

Ticarcillin + Clavulonate; intravenous/intramuscular

A

Timentin

520
Q

Sulbactam + Ampicillin; intravenous/intramuscular

A

Unasyn (not for Pseudomonas)

521
Q

Hey there sexy

A

No not you

522
Q

different organisms and patterns of lacerations for human, dogs, cats, spiders, snakes, ticks, etc.

A

bite wounds

523
Q

consider: 1) electrolytes like K+ and Na+ 2) fluid loading i.e. congestive heart failure 3) drug interactions/kidney function

A

geriatric considerations

524
Q

specific issues in an infection H&P

A
  • increased pain, rubor, temp, edema, past
  • past illness/infections, diabetes, PVD
  • current meds, kidney/liver function
  • allergies - especially to drugs
  • family hx - diabetes, vascular disorders
  • social hx - alcohol, smoking, drugs
525
Q

Examination of Infection Site

A
  • cellulitis, lymphangitis, abscess

- get deep culture if possible (surface cultures are contaminated)

526
Q

tell you which specific drug will work on which specific organism, need to be sent to the lab immediately

A

Cultures

527
Q

What are the signs of anaerobic organism infection?

A
  • black areas in x-rays of soft tissues = gas
  • foul smell
  • area exposed to fecal matter
  • septic patient
  • necrotic tissue
  • thrombophlebitis
528
Q

test to check for bone infection vs soft tissue infection

A

X-ray

529
Q

shows slices of tissue

A

CT scan

530
Q

“complete blood count”

-watch lymphocytes in WBC number

A

CBC test

531
Q

Means of tracking inflammation (ESR)

A

Erythrosedimentation Rate

532
Q

sensitive means of tracking inflammation (more precise than ESR)

A

C-Reactive Protein

533
Q

tracks kidney function, should be about 1

  • if value is 2, 50% kidney function
  • if value is high, get GFR to see what amount going through kidney
A

Creatinine test

534
Q

shows sugar levels, increased = decreased immune function

A

Blood Glucose test

535
Q

measure of blood clotting compared to normal

A

PT (PTT)

536
Q

checks for cardiac problems

A

EKG

537
Q

performed if you suspect an infection, make sure to now go through an abscess while performing this test of it will precipitate an infection

A

Bone Biopsy

538
Q

What are the effects of infection on the healing process?

A
  • Provocation without resolution
  • stop the impediment to the healing process
  • Drainage
  • use of antiboitics
539
Q

what are the 6 basic rules of infection?

A

1) Recognition
2) Identification of infecting organisms
3) Diagnostic testing
4) Decompression and debridement
5) Antibiosis
6) Follow up

540
Q

go through each rule of infection

A

or you die

541
Q

what are the 6 types of Osteomyelitis

A

1) Acute Hematogenous Osteomyelitis
2) Contiguous (direct extension) Osteomyelitis
3) Osteomyelitis associated with PVD
4) Chronic Osteomyelitis
5) Brodie’s Abscess
6) Septic Arthritis

542
Q

blood infection that gets into bone, from oral surgery with an abscess in the mouth,

A

Acute Hematogenous Osteomyelitis

543
Q

intramembranous bone growth

A

causes bone to grow in width

544
Q

endochondral bone growth

A

causes bone to grow in length

545
Q

what are the four major blood supplies to long bones (areas)

A

Epiphyseal, Metaphyseal, Diaphyseal, Periosteal

546
Q

infection begins in sinusoids at limits of circulation/sinusoid lakes due to sluggish blood flow, no epiphyseal plate so infection can spread to joint (staph aureus mostly)

A

Infant-AHO

547
Q

what is the main infector of bone

A

Staph Aureus

548
Q

epiphyseal plate present, secondary center of ossification present, sluggish blood flow under epiphyseal plate, blood infection spreading to bone

A

child AHO at 14 months

549
Q

slow metaphyseal blood flow, no epiphyseal plate (infection can spread to entire bone), no more low O2 environment, no more bone growth (only replacement), weak point still sinusoid lakes

A

Adult AHO

550
Q

what is the treatment for osteomyelitis?

A
  • After debridement in all cases is 4-6 weeks IV antibiotics followed by 4-6 months of oral antibiotics
  • must give long-term antibiotics→ have to be very aggressive
551
Q

osteomyelitis secondary to ulceration or puncture wounds

A

Contiguous (direct extension) Osteomyelitis

552
Q

Wound: >6 hours old, stellate/angular configuration, >1cm depth, necrotic/dying tissue, dirty/contaminated (from bullet, crush, burn, frostbite)

A

Tetanus prone wound of contiguous osteomyelitis

553
Q

Wound: <1cm depth, no necrotic/dying tissue, no contaminants/dirt in wound (from sharp puncture, glass, knife)

A

Non-tetanus prone wound of contiguous osteomyelitis

554
Q

A substance that has been treated to destroy its toxic properties but retains the capacity to stimulate production of antitoxins

A

Toxoid

555
Q

antibody with the ability to neutralize a specific toxin

A

Antitoxin

556
Q

when administering both a toxoid and an antitoxin, can you inject them both in the same arm?

A

No, you must administer them in separate arms. Otherwise the antitoxin will neutralize the toxoid

557
Q

would you need to give a patient with a tetanus prone wound a toxoid if they have had 3 doses of toxoid immunization and it has been less than 5 years since last booster?

A

No toxoid would be needed even if the wound is “dirty.” Only given if less than 3 doses OR more than 5 years since booster

558
Q

given for tetanus prone wound if unknown or less than 3 doses immunization. Not needed for non-tetanus prone wound

A

Antitoxin

559
Q

given if unknown or less than 3 doses of toxoid immunization or more than 10 years since last booster

A

Toxoid

560
Q

type of osteomyelitis common in diabetics, polymicrobic

A

Osteomyelitis Associated with Peripheral Vascular Disease

561
Q

periosteal formation of new bone

A

Involucrum

562
Q

1 cause of chronic osteomyelitis

A

Staph Aureus

563
Q

long standing infection where acute fever/swelling seems to have gone away and suddenly reappears again. Type of osteomyelitis

A

Chronic Osteomyelitis

564
Q

perforations in the cortex, get soft abscesses around the bone, patient can get infections through this all the way to the periosteum. If it gets all the way to the skin, a sinus tract may form all the way to the skin

A

Cloacae (involved with chronic osteomyelitis)

565
Q

infection under periosteum that lifts it away

A

Subperiosteal Superation

566
Q

subacute hematogenous osteomyelitis (not chronic). Site of healed osteomyelitis filled with infected granulation tissue. Treated by scraping out material

A

Brodie’s Abscess

567
Q

diagnosis of Septic Arthritis

A

sterile aspiration of joint

568
Q

organisms of Septic Arthritis

A

staph aureus

569
Q

treatment of Septic Arthritis

A

antibiotics, open surgery, opening up of entire joint

570
Q

organisms of Septic Arthritis

A

staph aureus

571
Q

treatment of Septic Arthritis

A

antibiotics, open surgery, opening up of entire joint

572
Q

anti-pseudomonal penicillins: Azlocillin, Pipercillin, Mexlocillin, Carbenicillin, Ticarcillin (A PM CTI)

A

acylureido penicillins

573
Q

antipseudomonal penicillins: Carbenicillin and Ticarcillin

A

carboxypenicillins

574
Q

K ↓, Na↑, PT↑, platelet dysfunction

A

carbenicillin

575
Q

Tobramycin, Amikacin, Netalmycin, Gentamycin (TANG)

A

aminoglycosides

576
Q

___ are based on peak/trough and kidney function

A

adjustments of dose/interval

577
Q

blood drawn before each dose; lowest point in blood

A

trough

578
Q

blood drawn after each dose, highest point in blood

A

peak

579
Q
  • Penicillin allergic patient
  • Aerobic Gram (+) only
  • Drug of choice for MRSA infection
  • Parenteral (IV) → means it enters the body in a manner other than through the digestive tract, like by intravenous or intramuscular injection
  • Adjust administration of this drug for renal function
A

vancomycin

580
Q
  • Bacteriostatic
  • Liver excreted
  • Penicillin allergic patient with soft tissue infections →esp. Erythromycin!
  • i.e., Erythromycin, Azithromycin (long acting)
A

macrolides

581
Q
  • Gram (+) Aerobes, Most Anaerobes
  • Bacteroides Fragilis → (Metranidazole-Flagyl is also effective)
  • Gets thru extracapsular polysaccharide glycolate slime coat secreted by some bacteria
  • Side effect → Pseudomembranous Colitis
    and Treatment → Oral Vancomycin
A

clindamycin