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Management of Vascular and Integumentary Disorders > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

How many people are admitted to specialized burn centers per year?

A

30,000

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2
Q

Hospital stay is decreased from 1 day/% TBSA to average of __ days

A

11

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3
Q

What are the causes of burns?

A 
43% fire/flame
34% scald
9% contact w/ hot object
4% electrical
3% chemical
7% other
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4
Q

How much does it cost to treat burns per year?

A

$7.5 billion

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5
Q

What are the criteria for referral to a burn center?

A
  1. partial thickness burns greater than 10% TBSA
  2. burns that involve the face, hands, feet, or genitalia
  3. third degree burns in any age group
  4. electrical burns, including lightning injury
  5. chemical burns
  6. inhalation injury
  7. burn injury in patients with pre-existing medical conditions that could complicate management, prolong recovery, or affect mortality
  8. any patient with burns and concomitant trauma in which the burn poses the greatest risk of morbidity and mortality
  9. burned children in hospitals w/o qualified personnel or equipment for the care of children
  10. burn injury in patients who will require special social, emotional, or rehabilitative intervention
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6
Q

How long does it take a burn to fully mature?

A

2 years

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7
Q

What is the average skin depth?

A

1-4 mm

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8
Q

Epidermis comprises __% of the skin, while the dermis comprises the other __%

A

5%; 95%

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9
Q

Where is the skin the thickest? Thinnest?

A

Palms, soles, and back; eyelids, dorsum of hands and feet

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10
Q

What are the 5 layers of the epidermis (from superficial to deep)?

A

Stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, and stratum basale

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11
Q

How long does it take for cells to migrate to the stratum corneum?

A

2-4 weeks

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12
Q

Melanocytes

A

pigment producing cells; reside in the stratum basale

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13
Q

Keratinocytes

A

produce keratin which waterproofs the skin

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14
Q

Merkel Cells

A

increase the strength of the skin

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15
Q

Langerhans Cells

A

nonspecific immune protection from invading microorganisms; reside in the stratum spinosum layer

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16
Q

Where are the grafts of the face taken?

A

from the patient’s thigh

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17
Q

How long does it take for the epidermis to return to full strength?

A

45-75 days

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18
Q

The dermis is composed of:

A

collagen and elastin

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19
Q

What are the functions of the skin?

A
  • Protection
  • Immunological
  • Electrolyte balance
  • Thermoregulation
  • Neurosensory
  • Social interaction
  • Metabolism
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20
Q

Thermal Burns

A

flash, flame, scald, contact

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21
Q

Chemical Burns

A

acidic or alkaline

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22
Q

Electrical Burns

A

AC, DC, high volt, or low volt

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23
Q

Conduction

A

most common cause of thermal injuries; results from direct contact of body to a heat source

Dependent on temperature and the time under exposure

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24
Q

How long can burns take to convert to a deeper burn?

A

24-72 hours

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25
Q

Convection

A

caused by currents of air used to carry heat; results from flash injuries from explosions; usually a short duration w/ a high intensity

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26
Q

What are the determinants of severity of injury with chemical burns?

A
  • duration of exposure
  • concentration and quantity
  • local skin characteristics
  • underestimating danger and not seeking treatment
  • delay in treatment
  • failing to irrigate long enough
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27
Q

Acidic Burns

A

neutralized by the skin and cause coagulation necrosis of soft tissue and bone, producing a dry eschar

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28
Q

Alkaline Burns

A

more severe and denature proteins in the skin, causing liquefaction necrosis, deeper tissue penetration

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29
Q

How long might alkaline burns need to be irrigated?

A

Up to 12 hours

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30
Q

What are late sequelae of chemical burns?

A

hypertrophic scarring and contact dermatitis

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31
Q

Tissues of low resistance

A

nerve, blood vessels, wet skin

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32
Q

Tissues of high resistance

A

muscle, dry skin, tendon, fat, and bone

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33
Q

Superficial Burns

A

involve only epidermis; pink or bright red in color; blanches with pressure; may have small blisters; usually painful; heals in 3 to 5 or 7 days

*first degree burns are not calculated as part of the burn size estimate

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34
Q

Superficial Partial Thickness Burns

A

involves the epidermis and extends into the papillary dermis; bright red and erythema; extremely painful d/t exposed nerve endings; blanches with pressure; sensation to touch and pain intact; usually heal within 10-14 days through spontaneous re-epithelialization

35
Q

Deep Partial Thickness Burns

A

involves the epidermis and extends into the papillary and reticular dermis; pale mottled surface with red capillary appendages; may be painful or have areas of insensitivity; sensation to pressure remains intact with diminished pinprick sensation; edematous; blanching present but diminished

36
Q

Full Thickness Burns

A

involves epidermis, papillary, and reticular dermis and may extend into sebaceous tissue, muscle, or bone; charred, mottled, pale, waxy, yellow, brown, or non-blanching red appearance; dry, leathery, firm to touch and rigid

37
Q

Zone of Coagulation

A

the area of greatest destruction; region has suffered irreparable damage; coagulation, ischemia, and necrosis

38
Q

Zone of Stasis

A

zone of lesser injury lying deep and peripheral to the zone of coagulation; temporarily lacks a normal blood supply, but not avascular; can be divided into a superficial and delayed zone

39
Q

Zone of Hyperemia

A

located farthest from injury; peripheral to the zone of stasis; minimal cell injury with vasodilation

40
Q

Burns heal by which two methods?

A

Re-epithelialization and scar formation

41
Q

Re-epithelialization

A

healing method for superficial, superficial partial, and partial thickness burns; process begins in 24-48 hours;

superficial burns heal through basal cell layer differentiating to recreate the layers, which takes 3-4 days

superficial and partial thickness injuries epithelialization occurs from the wound edges and dermal appendages, which takes 2-3 weeks

42
Q

Granulation and Scar Formation

A

Consists of three phases: inflammatory, proliferative, and remodeling phase

43
Q

What are the three indicators of a hypertrophic scar?

A

red, raised, and rigid

44
Q

Split thickness grafts can be either:

A

meshed or sheet grafts

45
Q

Sheet graft

A

contract less because of higher dermal content; better for cosmesis and over joints

46
Q

Meshed graft

A

regularly placed incisions throughout the graft (interstices); contracts more d/t greater healing times at interstices

47
Q

What are causes of graft failure?

A

infection, inadequate debridement, insufficient mobilization, collection of fluid under graft

48
Q

How long are temporary grafts left in place?

A

10-14 days

49
Q

Escharotomy

A

an incision made into insensate, full-thickness burned tissue and into the subcutaneous tissue to relieve constricting circulation

50
Q

Fasciotomy

A

an incision to muscle fascia beneath burned tissue performed in patients with very deep burns involving the fascia and muscle, associated traumatic limb injuries, high-voltage electrical injury

51
Q

How long do surgeons prefer to wait before grafting full thickness or deep partial burns of the face?

A

2 weeks to allow some healing to occur

52
Q

Tarsorrhaphy

A

a surgical procedure where the eyelids are partially or completely sewn together to narrow the opening to prevent ocular damage; left in place for 3 weeks

53
Q

Severe burns create a hypermetabolic state by:

A
  • elevating body temperature
  • increased oxygen consumption
  • increased glucose production
  • muscle weakness
  • cardiopulmonary deconditioning
54
Q

Tissue degradation in burn patients:

A
  • decreased lean body mass
  • decreased bone mineral content
  • decreased bone mineral density
55
Q

Metabolic response

A

10% loss of lean body mass has impaired immunity
20% loss of lean body mass impairs wound healing
30% loss of lean body mass leads to pressure ulcers
40% loss lean body mass leads to 50-100% mortality

56
Q

Fluid resuscitation is required when:

A

At least 20% of fluid is lost through third spacing and burned areas; 50% of the fluid is administered in the first 8 hours, while the other 50% is administered over the next 16 hours

57
Q

Edema Timeline

A

edema formation is rapid in the first 2-3 hours post burn; edema is maximal by 8-12 hours (small burns) or 12-24 hours (large burns); edema persists at a high level for 24-72 hours

resorption begins and should resolve in 7-10 days, but ma persists for 2-3 weeks

58
Q

Cardiac Effects of Burns

A

Increased CO to normal by 12-24 hours but then doubles until wounds are closed; increased HR leaves lower cardiac reserves for increase in activity such as ROM and mobility; low MAP indicates reassessment of fluid volume

59
Q

What is the ideal position to prevent injury to the brachial plexus?

A

abduction just to 90˚ and 30˚ horizontal adduction in the scapular plane

60
Q

What are the MSK complications in the acute phase of burn injuries?

A
  • contractures
  • septic arthritis
  • tendonitis
  • heterotopic ossification
61
Q

What are the MSK complications in the late phase of burn injuries?

A
  • osteoporosis
  • bone spurs
  • amputations
62
Q

What are the predictors of pruritis?

A
  • females
  • burn size >20-40%
  • healing time > 3 weeks
  • increased tissue requiring grafting
  • younger age
63
Q

What are potential ways to decrease pruritis?

A
  • Vitamin E cream, Eucerin cream, Aloe
  • Antihistamines
  • Compression garments
64
Q

What are physical therapy interventions in the acute or sub-acute phase of wound healing?

A
  • facilitate wound healing
  • positioning
  • initiate mobility
  • control edema
  • splinting
  • AROM (PROM w/ caution)
65
Q

What are physical therapy interventions in the intermediate phase of wound healing?

A
  • gait training
  • exercise
  • modalities
  • stretching, strengthening
  • functional activities
  • compression
  • wound care
66
Q

What are physical therapy interventions in the late phase of wound healing?

A
  • compression
  • soft tissue mobilization
  • exercise
  • modalities
  • scar massage
  • industrial activities
67
Q

Why is it important to splint the hand? What position should the wrist and hand be splinted?

A

Prevents contracture of the wrist and hand and helps push out of the hand; ideal position for immobilization is MCP joint flexion to 50˚-70˚; IP joint at neutral; thumb in opposition; wrist extension 20˚-30˚

68
Q

How should a hip burn be positioned?

A

Fully extended and abducted w/ 10˚-20˚ of flexion

69
Q

What are the identified risk factors for hypertrophic scarring?

A
  • young age
  • female
  • dark skin
  • neck or UE burns
  • multiple surgical procedures
  • > 3 weeks to heal (unless 5% of less TBSA)
  • meshed skin graft use
  • burn severity >20% TBSA burn
70
Q

Timeline of Hypertrophic Scar Formation

A

develops within the first few months post burn and accelerates and peaks in about 6 months, matures in about 18-24 months

71
Q

What are the complications of scars?

A
  • cosmetic changes
  • decreased quality of life
  • contraction of scar while it matures
  • altered sensation
  • itching
  • cracking
  • pigment changes
  • higher risk of sunburn
72
Q

What are the four components of the Vancouver Scar Scale?

A

pigmentation, vascularity, pliability, and height; good prognosis is under 3 mm w/in the first year

73
Q

Goals of Compression Therapy

A
  • relieve edema
  • inhibit the growth of hypertrophic scarring
  • promote scar maturation
  • protect newly healed skin
  • relieve itching
  • relieve pain
74
Q

How much pressure do custom compression garments apply to the wound?

A

25 mmHg

75
Q

How often should custom compression garments be replaced?

A

every 2-3 months

76
Q

What are the three P’s of a mature scar?

A

pale, planar, and pliable

77
Q

What are concerns specific to burn patients?

A
  • muscle atrophy, strength, endurance
  • ROM
  • cardiopulmonary deconditioning
  • immobilization
  • burn wound healing
  • impaired mobility and disfigurement
  • impaired ADLs
  • social and psychological concerns
78
Q

How long should a burn be stretched once end range is achieved?

A

3 minutes

79
Q

T/F: PROM to exposed tendon is prohibited

A

True

80
Q

What are contraindications to exercise?

A
  • nonstabilized fractures
  • cardiovascular instability
  • extubation within 8 hours of treatment
  • exposed tendons
  • recent graft placement
  • finger burns of indeterminate depth
  • heterotopic bone formation
  • resistive or combative patient
81
Q

Effects of hydrotherapy on burn patients

A
  • soften eschar
  • remove topicals
  • assists with ROM
82
Q

Silvadene

A

broad-spectrum antimicrobial including Pseudomonas; limited eschar penetration, but can be used to soften eschar; apply 1/16” thick 1-2x per day

83
Q

Sulfamylon

A

bacteriostatic for gram + and - organisms, especially Pseudomonas; penetrates eschar

used mainly for deep partial thickness, full thickness burns or infected wounds; apply 1/16” thick 1-2x per day

84
Q

Topical agents used for enzymatic debridement can be divided into what three categories:

A
  • proteolytic
  • fibrinolytic
  • collagenase

Management of Vascular and Integumentary Disorders (4 decks)

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