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RUSVM Anatomy I > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Which genetic condition is due to cartilage maldevelopment, causing the arrested growth of long bones and resulting in disproportionate dwarves?

A

Chondrodystrophy

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2
Q

Which law states that normal bone remodels in response to stress place upon it?

A

Wolff’s Law

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3
Q

_____ are semimovable joints and ___ are immovable joints.

A

Amphiarthroses, Synarthroses

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4
Q

Which of the following are considered diarthroses joints, freely moveable?

a. Synostosis
b. Syndesmosis
c. Synovial joints
d. Synchondrosis

A

c. Synovial joints

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5
Q

True/False. Fibrous joint is a strong fibrous connective tissue between articulating bones that are freely moveable.

A

False. They have little to no movement

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6
Q

What are the three different fibrous joint types?

A
  • Suture
  • Gomphosis
  • Syndesmosis
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7
Q

Which of the following is an example of gomphosis?

a. Tooth in an alveolus united by periodontal ligament
b. Seams of the bones of the skull
c. Bones joined by interosseous ligaments
d. All the above

A

a. Tooth in an alveolus united by periodontal ligament

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8
Q

True/ False. Synchondrosis and Symphysis are considered cartilaginous joint types with a connecting medium of hyaline or fibrocartilage.

A

True

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9
Q

What are examples of hinge joints?

A

Humeroradioulnar joint

Metacarpophalangeal joint

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10
Q

True/False. Extension decreases angle between bones and Flexion increases angle between bones.

A

False. Flexion decreases the angle between bones and Extension increases the angle between bones to approximately 180 degrees.

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11
Q

What is the purpose of the stay apparatus?

A
  • Reduce the energy expelled to stand: rest/ sleep while standing
  • Make movement efficient
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12
Q

What is the name of the shoulder joint of the equine thoracic limb?

A

Glenohumeral Joint

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13
Q

Which joints make up the carpus “knee” of the equine thoracic limb?

A
  • Radiocarpal (Antebrachiocarpal) Joint
  • Midcapal Joint
  • Carpometacarpal joint
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14
Q

What is the name of the elbow joint in the equine thoracic limb?

A

-Humeroradioulnar Joint

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15
Q

What joints are located from the fetlock down to the coffin?

A
  • Metacarpophalangeal joint (“fetlock”)
  • Interphalangeal Joint (“pastern”)
  • Distal Interphalangeal Joint (“coffin”)
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16
Q

True/False. A normal standing horse is in constant state of hyperextension of the fetlock joint.

A

True

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17
Q

What are the components of the Stay Apparatus?

A
  • Tendon of the biceps branchii m.
  • Lacterus fibrosus
  • Extensor carpi radialis m.
  • Triceps brachii m.
  • SDF and proximal check ligament
  • DDF and distal check ligament
  • Common digital extensor tendon
  • Interosseus and the medial and lateral extensor branches
  • Proximal sesamoid bones and the sesamoidean ligaments (cruciate, straight, and oblique)
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18
Q

What prevents the shoulder from flexing and engages on the intermediate tubercle to cause the shoulder joint to lock?

A

Tendon of the biceps brachii m.

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19
Q

The carpus cannot flex unless the ____ is flaccid and the ____ prevents it from hyperextending.

A

Extensor capri radialis m.

Palmar carpal ligament

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20
Q

What are the borders of the carpal canal?

A

Dorsal: Palmar Carpal Ligament
Lateral: Accessory Carpal bone
Palmar: Palmar flexor retinaculum

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21
Q

What are the components of the suspensory apparatus of the equine thoracic limb?

A
  • Interossus with its medial and lateral extensor branches
  • Proximal Sesamoidean bones
  • Sesamoidean ligaments (straight, cruciate, and oblique)
  • SDF and the proximal check ligament
  • DDF and the distal check ligament
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22
Q

____ counteract the flexion of the coffin joint and ____ counteract the hyperextension of the fetlock joint

A

Extensor branches of the interosseous

Distal sesamoidean ligaments

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23
Q

Which bones are fused in the canine carpus?

A

Radial and Intermediate carpal bones

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24
Q

True/False. Carpal bones 2 and 3, and Metacarpal bones 3 and 4 are fused in equine.

A

False. They’re fused in the ox, Equine have no fused carpal bones

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25
Q

Which metacarpal bones bear the most weight in equine, and in ox?

A

Equine: Metacarpal III
Ox: Metacarpal III and IV

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26
Q

What joints in the canine are flexed and hyperextended to prevent collapse of the thoracic limb?

A
  • Shoulder joint and elbow joint are flexed

- Carpus and metacarpophalangeal joints are hyperextended

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27
Q

What is affected if a canine is having trouble extending the carpus?

A

Extensors of the carpus must be affected

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28
Q

What is overstimulated if there is rigid extension of the elbow?

A

Overstimulation of the triceps brachii m.

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29
Q

Which muscle gives the horse’s shoulder a smooth and round appearance?

A

Subclavius m.

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30
Q

Which muscles are rarely used but are a viable option for IM injection?

A

Pectoral m.

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31
Q

Which two joints of the equine thoracic limb communicate?

A

Midcarpal and Carpometacarpal

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32
Q

What are the three germinal tissues of the hoof?

A
  1. Perioplic corium (“cuticle”)
  2. Coronary corium
  3. Laminar corium (sensitive dermal lamina and insensitive epidermal lamina)
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33
Q

What is characterized as the inflammation of the hoof wall tissue causing the weight of the horse to be pushed through the sole?

A

Laminitis “Founder”

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34
Q

What is known as the atrophy in the infraspinatus and supraspinatus m. due to trauma of the supracapular nerve?

A

Sweeney

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35
Q

___ refers to a protrusion of the scapula dorsal to the spinous process of the thoracic spine (“whithers”).

A

Flying Scapula

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36
Q

___ is the degenerative joint disease caused by the wear and tear of cartilage over time, whereas ___ is a developmental orthopedic disease on the bone.

A

Osteoarthritis (DJD), Osteochondrosis

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37
Q

Which deformity is caused by the abnormal angle of the distal aspect of the radius due to the fast growth of the physis on one side?

A

Angular Limb Deformity

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38
Q

What is Synovial Effusion?

A

Abnormal accumulation of synovial fluid within a joint, bursa or tendon sheath.

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39
Q

Tendinitis at the level of the fetlock can lead to compression by the ____ and compound the pathology.

A

Palmar Annular ligament

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40
Q

Inflammation of the olecranon bursa is referred to as ____.

A

Capped elbow

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41
Q

Subtendinous bursas of the common digital extensor tendon and the lateral digital extensor tendon can become filled with fluid and are known as ____.

A

Hygroma

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42
Q

What is tendonitis?

A

Ligament inflammation

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43
Q

What happens if the SDF, and DDF are ruptured?

A

The toe comes off the ground slightly and the fetlock drops.

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44
Q

Damage to the interosseous ligament between MT /MC II and III or between III and IV is known as _____.

A

Popped Splint Bone

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45
Q

Which bones is more frequently affected by downward compressive force?

a. Lateral IV splint bone
b. Capral bone II
c. Metacarpal bone I
d. Medial II splint bone

A

d. Medial II splint bone

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46
Q

True/False. The lateral splint bone (IV) is more commonly injured by blunt trauma.

A

True.

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47
Q

What are the boundaries of the pelvic inlet?

A

Lateral: arcuate line of the ilium
Ventral: pectin of the pubis
Dorsal: promontory of the sacrum

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48
Q

What are the boundaries of the pelvic outlet?

A

Lateral: Sacrotuberous ligament
Ventral: Ischiatic arch
Dorsal: First caudal vertebra

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49
Q

What is the dislocation of the head of the femur out of the acetabulum where 75% of them occur in the craniodorsal direction?

A

Hip luxations

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50
Q

What are the borders of the femoral triangle?

A

Base: abdominal wall and inguinal ligament
Cranial: caudal belly of the sartorius m.
Caudal: pectineus m.

51
Q

The femur is held in place by the ____ and the ____.

A

Ligament of the femoral head and the transverse acetabular ligament

52
Q

What is one of the most common orthopedic diseases in large breed dogs characterized by the poor formation of the hip joint?

A

Hip Dysplasia

53
Q

Which of the following is false regarding femoral head necrosis?

a. Usually seem in small breed dogs
b. Pain upon forced abduction and extension of the limb
c. Pain upon forced adduction and flexion of the limb
d. None of the above are false

A

b. Pain upon forced abduction and flexion of the limb

54
Q

Where is the caudal cruciate ligament located?

A

Runs at a right angle to the cranial cruciate ligament and attaches far back on the tibia

55
Q

What is the most common cause of rear limb lameness in the dog due to a sudden rotation of the limb when the joint is flexed and weight bearing?

A

Cranial Cruciate Tear

56
Q

True/False. When the cranial cruciate ligament ruptures the tibia moves forward, and this is known as the cranial drawer sign.

A

True.

57
Q

What is a common associated tear to the cranial cruciate ligament tear due to the fact that it doesn’t have the movement the lateral side has?

A

Meniscal tear

58
Q

Which of the following is false regarding the luxating patella?

a. Common in small/toy breed dogs
b. Could be congenital or acquired
c. Medial luxation is most common
d. Lateral luxation is most common

A

d. Lateral luxation is most common

59
Q

What occurs if there is a partial tear in the common calcanean tendon?

A

Usually the Gastrocnemius m. is torn and the hock will drop and the toe will curlWh

60
Q

What is torn if there is a complete rupture of the common calcanean tendon?

A
  • Gastrocnemius m.
  • SDF
  • Biceps Femoris m.
  • SEmitendinosus m.
  • Gracilis m.
61
Q

What is an extension of the pre-pubic tendon to the fovea of the femoral head in equine?

A

Accessory ligament of the femoral head

62
Q

True/False. Hip luxations are relatively common in equine and rate in runimants.

A

False. They’re rare in equine because of the accessory ligament of the femoral head and common in ruminants

63
Q

Which bones are fused in euqine and bovine tarsus?

A

Equine: Tarsal 1 and 2
Bovine: Central tarsal is fused with tarsal 4, and tarsal 2 and 3 are fused

64
Q

Where does the medial tendinous branch of the Cranial tibial muscle insert?

A

The cunean tendon

65
Q

Where does the lateral tendinous branch of the peroneus tertius instert?

A

Calcaneus and fourth tarsal bone

66
Q

Why is the cunean tenon clinically important?

A

Its a palpable reference point for the distal intertarsal joint and can be surgically cut to reduce pressure on arthritis of the distal hock joints

67
Q

What is the purpose of the reciprocal apparatus?

A

Ensures that the stifle and hock flex and extend together

68
Q

What is the function of the patellar locking mechanism?

A

Engages the patella to lock up over the medial trochlear ridge so the stifle can’t flex

69
Q

What is the upward fixation of the patella?

A

When the patella locks up and over the medial trochlear ridge and doesn’t come off leading to an extended hock and stifle.

70
Q

What are ways to treat upward fixation of the patella?

A
  • Strength training of the Quadriceps and Biceps Femoris
  • Medial patellar ligament splitting
  • Medial patellar desmotomy
71
Q

What is a DIRT lesion?

A

Ostochondrosis Desicans of the distal intermediate ridge of the tibia

72
Q

Which of the following could be a cause of the prepubic tendon rupturing in a mare?

a. Large fetus
b. Hydroallantios
c. Hydroamnios
d. All the above

A

d. All the above

73
Q

What is a common cause of a flexed stifle and extended hock, and a wrinkle in the calcaneal tendon?

A

Ruptured Peroneus Tertius

74
Q

Which of the following is a degenerative disease of the thoracic, lumbar and lumbosacral region seen mainly in x-rays?

a. Discospondylosis
b. Spondylosis deformans
c. Discospondylitis
d. None of the above

A

b. Spondylosis deformans

75
Q

What is characterized by an infection of the vertebrae and intervertebral disc of the thoracolumbar and lumbosacral areas?

A

Discospondylitis

76
Q

True/False. Discospondylitis spreads through the bloodstream.

A

True.

77
Q

An atlanto-axial instability can lead to abnormal movement of the neck because of what two factors?

A
  • Fracture of the dens

- Compression of the spinal cord

78
Q

What is the name for the inflammation of the bursa underneath the whithers and the nuchal ligament?

A

Poll Evil

79
Q

What are the two types of herniated disc diseases?

A

Compressive and concussive

80
Q

What two spaces can be used for epidurals?

A

Sacrococcygeal space

Lumbosacral space

81
Q

What is COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease)?

A

Heave lines due to sustained involvement of the abdominal muscles during forced expiration

82
Q

What are the ventral branches of spinal nerves T13-L5?

A

Lateral cutaneous branch

Medial branches

83
Q

What are the names for the ventral branches of the spinal nerves L1-L4?

A

L1: cranial iliohypogastric nerve
L2: caudal iliohypogastric nerve
L3: ilioinguinal nerve
L4: lateral cutaneos femoral nerve

84
Q

What are the dorsal quadrant blood supplies of the abdominal wall?

A

Craniodorsal: Phrenicoabdominal a.
Caudodorsal: Deep circumflex iliac a.

85
Q

What are the ventral quadrant blood supplies of the abdominal wall?

A
  • Cranioventral: Cranial epigastric and Cranial Superficial epigastric a.
  • Caudoventral: Caudal epigastric and Caudal Superficial epigastric a.
86
Q

What is the blood supply to the mammae?

A
  • Internal thoracic a. –> Cr. epigastric a. –> Cr. superfcial epigastric a.
  • External pudendal a. –> caudal superficial epigastric a.
87
Q

What is the name of the built in girdle that supports the heavy weight of the horse and ox?

A

Tunica flava abdominis

88
Q

True/False. The paralumbar fossa in cattle gives access to the rumen on the right side and in the horse it gives access to the cecum on the left side.

A

False. Left = Cattle and Right = Equine

89
Q

What are the borders of the paralumbar fossa in cattle?

A

Base: tips of the lumbar transverse process
Cranial ventral: last rib
Caudal ventral: ridge of internal abdominal oblique m. from tuber coxae ventral end of last rib

90
Q

What landmark can you use locate the paralumbar fossa cranial to it in equine?

A

Tuber coxae

91
Q

True/False. The costoabdominal in equine is T13 and in the ox its T18.

A

False. T18 in equine and T13 in ox

92
Q

What are the names for the ventral branches of the spinal nerves in equine and ruminant?

A

L1: Iliohypogastric
L2: Ilioinguinal
L3/L4: Lateral cutaneous femoral and genitofemoralQ

93
Q

What is the PMI for canine?

A

Left side:
P: 3rd intercostal space
A: 4th intercostal space
M: 5th intercostal space

Right side:
AV valve: 4th intercostal space

94
Q

What is the PMI for equine?

A 
Left side:
P: 3rd intercostal space
A: 4th intercostal space
M: 5th intercostal space
Right AV valve: 3/4th intercostal space
95
Q

What is the PMI for bovine?

A 
Left side:
P: 3rd intercostal space
A: 4th intercostal space
M: 4th intercostal space
Right AV valve: 3/4th intercostal space
96
Q

What is the name of the two structures found in the fetus heart to aid them in bypassing blood?

A

Foramen ovale

Ductus arteriosus

97
Q

What is PDA (patent ductus arteriosus)?

A

Persistent communication between the aorta and pumonary artery shunting blood from left to right

98
Q

Which atrial septal defect is known as the “common” atrium between the right and left sides of the heart.

A

Patent foramen ovale

99
Q

Which conditions pertains to the ligamentum arteriosum wrapping around the esophagus causing mega-esophagus due to constriction and regurgitation of food?

A

PRAA- persistent right aortic arch

100
Q

What is pericardial effusion?

A

accumulation of fluid in the pericardial sac

101
Q

Which of the following is an abnormality in the myocardium that leads to decreased contractility due to an increase in left ventricular volume and diameter?

a. Hypertorphic Cardiomyopathy
b. Hypotrophic Pericardialmyopathy
c. Dilated Cardiomyopathy
d. Dilated Pericardialmyopathy

A

c. Dilated Cardiomyopathy

102
Q

____ is the most common cardiac disease in cats and it causes concentric hypertrophy of the left ventricle?

A

Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy

103
Q

What is mitral valve insufficiency?

A

Abnormal closure of the valve causing murmurs and backwards flow
Degenerative and progressive over time
Can be congenital

104
Q

This disease can take up to 6 months before a positive test shows and it resides in the pulmonary artery before backing up into the right ventricle of the heart.

A

Heartworm

105
Q

Which condition is usually seen in large, deep chested dogs and consists of excessive dilation of the stomach followed by the twisting of it around its longitudinal axis?

A

Gastric Dilation Volvulus (GDV)

106
Q

What is an inguinal hernia?

A

The intestine protrudes through the vaginal ring into the inguinal canal or scrotum

107
Q

Which part of the ruminant stomach would you find traumatic reticulitis or hardware disease?

A

Reticulum

108
Q

What is the name for the gastric ulcers found near the margo plicatus?

A

Bot Fly

109
Q

What can you hear in the dorsal quadrant during a GI auscultation of a horse?

A

(L) Dorsal: Small intestine, and small colon

(R) Dorsal: Cecum

110
Q

What can you hear in the ventral quadrant of an equine during GI auscultation?

A

Dorsal and ventral large colon

111
Q

What can you feel in the left dorsal and ventral section during rectal palpation of a horse?

A

Dorsal: small colon
Ventral: pelvic flexure

112
Q

What is a strangulating lipoma?

A

Benign fatty tumor of the omentum that becomes pedunculated on a stock or pendulous and it wraps around a segment of the GI becoming incarcerated and leading to necrosis

113
Q

What is intussusception?

A

When one part of the valve ingests the adjacent segment of the valve by abdominal peristalsis causing congested blood supply and abnormal movement of the GI content

114
Q

What are the borders of the epiploic foramen?

A

Portal v., Vena Cava, Hepatic a., and the Liver

115
Q

What are the components of the deep inguinal ring?

A

Lateral margin of the rectus abdominis
caudal margin of IAO
caudal margin of EAO (inguinal ligament)

116
Q

What occurs with an inguinal hernia?

A

A loop of the small intestine gets through the inguinal ring and comprimises the blood supply

117
Q

When would you perform an enterotomy (surgical opening of the intestinal tract)?

A
  • To remove abnormal contents
  • To decompress and ease the correction of displacement
  • Ensure gut is empty and “resting” when patient awakes from surgery
118
Q

Which two areas are common for colon impaction?

A
  • Left ventral colon –> pelvic flexure

- Right dorsal colon –> transverse colon

119
Q

True/False. Right dorsal displacement of the large colon is common with nephrosplenic entrapment.

A

False. Left dorsal displacement

120
Q

What condition forms GI stones that are found in areas of increased mineral content in water or diet and is made of crystals called struvite?

A

Enterolith

121
Q

What is a big indicator of gas distention?

A

When we hear a ping after flicking the abomasum

122
Q

What medical management technique would you use for abomasal displacement?

A

Correct dehydration, electrolyte imbalance and pH imbalance, treat ketosis and give motility stimulants

123
Q

If the rolling technique doesn’t re-position the abomasum what is the next step done?

A

Pexy (fixation) the abomasum in the corrected location using a toggle-pin

124
Q

_____ is the surgical approach of the right paralumbar fossa to correcting a displacement manually and involves having to pexy the abomasum?

A

Laprotomy

RUSVM Anatomy I (4 decks)

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