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BIOM 2000 > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

The lungs perform which of the following functions: a. assist in regulation of body temperature

b. produce erythrocytes and hemoglobin
c. regulate blood acidity d. synthesize and secrete hormones
e. absorb and store nutrients

A

C. Regulate blood acidity

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2
Q

Select the correct sequence of respiratory compartments encountered by exhaled air.

a. bronchiole – nasal cavity – bronchus – trachea – larynx
b. bronchiole – bronchus – larynx – trachea – nasal cavity
c. bronchiole – bronchus – trachea – larynx – nasal cavity
d. bronchiole – bronchus – nasal cavity − trachea – larynx
e. bronchiole – trachea – bronchus –larynx – nasal cavity

A

c. bronchiole – bronchus – trachea – larynx – nasal cavity

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3
Q

Accumulated mucus is moved up the airways to the pharynx by

a. peristaltic movements of the trachea
b. the movements of cilia on epithelial cells lining the airways
c. the pressure of air flow during normal expiration d. the vacuum created by a negative pressure during breathing
e. none of the above

A

b. the movements of cilia on epithelial cells lining the airways

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4
Q

A normal inspiration is initiated by the contraction of

a. abdominal muscles
b. pharyngeal muscles
c. diaphragm
d. intercostal muscles
e. both c and d

A

e. both c and d

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5
Q

Pulmonary surfactant

a. decreases alveolar surface tension
b. inhibits the diffusion of gases due to partial pressure difference
c. is produced in abundance during the prenatal period
d. provides an adhesive substance to which inhaled particles stick, preventing their entry into alveoli
e. provides strong adhesion of the alveoli to the partial pleura and chest wall

A

a. decreases alveolar surface tension

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6
Q

The anatomic dead space of the respiratory tract is a. the volume of air that cannot be expired from the lung after a maximal expiration

b. the volume of air that never enters the respiratory tract
c. the portion of the respiratory system that is ventilated but never exchanges the gases with the blood
d. the portion of the respiratory system that is never ventilated but is perfused with blood
e. the air accumulated in the pleura due to chest would

A

c. the portion of the respiratory system that is ventilated but never exchanges the gases with the blood

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7
Q

An individual with a tidal volume of 600 mL, a dead space of 200 mL, and a respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute would have an alveolar ventilation of

a. 16,000 mL/min
b. 12,000 mL/min
c. 8,000 mL/min
d. 4,000 mL/min
e. 2,000 mL/min

A

c. 8,000 mL/min

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8
Q

Oxygen is present in two forms in the blood.

a. bound to hemoglobin and bound to amino acids
b. dissolved in plasma and bound to hemoglobin molecules
c. dissolved in plasma and bound to hemoglobin molecules
d. dissolved in cytoplasm of erythrocytes
e. dissolved in cytoplasm of leukocytes

A

b. dissolved in plasma and bound to hemoglobin molecules

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9
Q

The majority of carbon dioxide transported in the blood is in the form of

a. bicarbonate ions dissolved in blood plasma
b. bicarbonate ions in erythrocytes
c. carbon dioxide bound to hemoglobin
d. carbon dioxide dissolved in blood plasma
e. none of the above

A

a. bicarbonate ions

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10
Q

Which anatomical structure separates the “entries” into the respiratory and digestive systems?

a. Larynx
b. Nasal cavity
c. Pharynx
d. Trachea
e. Palate

A

e. Palate

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11
Q

Which is the region that warms and moistens the incoming air?

a. Trachea
b. Nasal cavity
c. Pharynx
d. Oral cavity
e. Larynx

A

b. Nasal cavity

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12
Q

Lung ventilation is different from respiration in that respiration is

a. the exchange of gases at the level of the lungs b. the exchange of nutrients at the level of the tissue capillaries
c. actually a synonym for ventilation
d. the process of O2 diffusion in the alveoli
e. complex utilization of O2 for metabolic processes

A

e. complex utilization of O2 for metabolic processes

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13
Q

During inspiration which of the following does not occur?

a. Diaphragm contracts b. Air flows out of the lungs
c. Intercostal muscles contract
d. Air flows into the bronchioles
e. Not all of the air reaches the respiratory membranes

A

b. Air flows out of the lungs

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14
Q

The amount of air remaining in the lungs even after the most strenuous expiration is the

a. tidal volume
b. vital capacity
c. residual volume
d. dead space volume
e. inspiratory reserve volume

A

c. residual volume

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15
Q

The respiratory centres of the brain that control the ventilation of the lungs are located in the __________ and __________:

a. pons, medulla oblongata
b. pons, cerebellum
c. cerebellum, hypothalamus
d. pons, hypothalamus
e. pons, cerebral hemispheres

A

a. pons, medulla oblongata

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16
Q

Which of the following structures can be found in renal medulla?

a. glomerulus – loop of Henle – collecting duct
b. glomerulus – proximal tubule – distal tubule
c. loop of Henle – collecting duct
d. loop of Henle – distal tubule – collecting duct e. proximal tubule – loop of Henle – distal tubule

A

c. loop of Henle – collecting duct

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17
Q

Which substance is present in a lower concentration in the glomerular filtrate than in blood plasma?

a. glucose
b. potassium
c. protein
d. sodium
e. urea

A

c. protein

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18
Q

Which statement concerning bladder function is correct?

a. The chemical composition of the urine is altered while in bladder by reabsorption of salt and water.
b. The sphincter at the neck of the bladder which allows micturition (external sphincter) is composed of smooth muscle only.
c. Urine enters the bladder continuously from the kidneys.
d. Both a and b
e. Both a and c

A

c. Urine enters the bladder continuously from the kidneys.

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19
Q

Which of the following is not an output for water elimination?

a. defecation
b. menstruation
c. metabolism
d. micturition
e. skin evaporation

A

c. metabolism

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20
Q

In the absence of antidiuretic hormone, an individual will excrete a

a. normal volume of concentrated urine
b. normal volume of very dilute urine
c. very large volume of concentrated urine
d. very large volume of dilute urine
e. very small volume of concentrated urine

A

d. very large volume of dilute urine

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21
Q

The loop of Henle is the site of the nephron where

a. a high medullary interstitial fluid osmolality is generated
b. aldosterone acts
c. antidiuretic hormone acts
d. potassium ions are secreted into the renal tubule
e. all of the above

A

a. a high medullary interstitial fluid osmolality is generated

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22
Q

A person on a high-salt diet would be expected to have

a. decreased renin levels in the plasma
b. increased aldosterone levels in the plasma
c. increased angiotensin levels in the plasma
d. increased potassium excretion in the urine
e. all of the above

A

a. decreased renin levels in the plasma

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23
Q

Renin

a. binds to receptors on vascular smooth muscle, causing vasoconstriction b. concentration in the blood is elevated during the period of low blood pressure
c. is secreted by the adrenal cortex
d. secretion is stimulated by angiotensin II
e. all of the above

A

b. concentration in the blood is elevated during the period of low blood pressure

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24
Q

Antidiuretic hormone secretion

a. decreases the volume of urine formed
b. increases the permeability of the distal tubules and collecting ducts to water
c. is decreased by damage to the hypothalamus
d. is increased by a fall in blood pressure
e. all of the above

A

e. all of the above

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25
Q

An increase in blood plasma osmolality will primarily stimulate the secretion of

a. aldosterone
b. angiotensin
c. antidiuretic hormone d. renin
e. all of the above

A

c. antidiuretic hormone

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26
Q

A decrease in blood volume (hypovolemia) will a. decrease glomerular filtration rate

b. increase the secretion of aldosterone
c. increase the secretion of antidiuretic hormone d. increase thirst
e. all of the above

A

e. all of the above

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27
Q

Which substance is excreted as a result secretion into the renal tubule?

a. glucose
b. hydrogen ion
c. sodium
d. water
d. urea

A

b. hydrogen ion

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28
Q

Most (about 66%) of the salt and water filtered at the glomerulus is reabsorbed from which portion of the nephron? a. Bowman’s capsule

b. Collecting ducts
c. Distal tubule
d. Loop of Henle
e. Proximal tubule

A

e. Proximal tubule

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29
Q

Antidiuretic hormone is secreted by the

a. adrenal cortex
b. juxtaglomerular apparatus
c. hypothalamus
d. lungs
e. posterior pituitary

A

e. posterior pituitary

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30
Q

Antidiuretic hormone is synthesized by the

a. adrenal cortex
b. juxtaglomerular apparatus
c. hypothalamus
d. lungs
e. posterior pituitary

A

c. hypothalamus

31
Q

Each is true for chewing except that it

a. appreciably alters the rate of digestion
b. involves reflex responses
c. involves skeletal muscle action
d. is controlled by somatic nerves
e. is not necessary for swallowing liquids and saliva

A

a. appreciably alters the rate of digestion

32
Q

Which normally prevents food from entering the traches during swallowing?

a. closure of glottis
b. contraction of the lower esophageal sphincter
c. contraction of the upper esophageal sphincter
d. tongue movement
e. elevation of the soft palate

A

a. closure of glottis

33
Q

The order of layers, from the inside towards the outside, in the wall of intestine is

a. mucosa – muscularis – serosa – submucosa
b. mucosa – submucosa – muscularis – serosa
c. serosa – muscilaris – submucosa – mucosa
d. muscularis – serosa – mucosa – serosa
e. serosa – mucosa – submucosa – musculatis

A

b. mucosa – submucosa – muscularis – serosa

34
Q

Saliva contains enzymes that digest

a. carbohydrates
b. fats
c. proteins
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

a. carbohydrates

35
Q

The first region of the intestine to receive chyme from the stomach is

a. duodenum
b. jejunum
c. colon
d. ileum
e. rectum

A

a. duodenum

36
Q

The digestion of polysaccharides by amylases begins in the

a. mouth
b. esophagus
c. stomach
d. small intestine
e. colon

A

a. mouth

37
Q

Which of the following is not absorbed by the active transport across the epithelium of the small intestine?

a. amino acids
b. disaccharides
c. glucose
d. sodium
e. calcium

A

b. disaccharides

38
Q

Bile salts

a. activate the pancreatic lipase enzyme that digests fat
b. are incorporated into the chylomicrons released from the intestinal epithelial cells c. enter intestinal epithelial cells along with the digestion products of fat in the form of micelles d. solubilize fat by forming emulsions
e. all of the above

A

d. solubilize fat by forming emulsions

39
Q

Food moves from the month to the stomach primarily because

a. negative pressure from the lower gastrointestinal tract
b. peristaltic contractions of the esophagus
c. segmentation movements of the stomach
d. positive pressure in the thoracic cavity produced by breathing, which compresses the esophagus
e. the force of gravity

A

b. peristaltic contractions

40
Q

Heartburn occurs when a. acid from the stomach is forced into the esophagus

b. acid from the stomach is rapidly absorbed into the blood
c. an ulcer develops in the duodenum
d. the concentration of acid acid in the stomach becomes elevated as a result of high rate of acid secretion
e. none of the above

A

a. acid from the stomach is forced into the esophagus

41
Q

Pepsin

a. is produced by the parietal cells of the gastric glands
b. continues to be enzymatically active after entering the small intestine
c. digests protein to amino acids
d. is activated by the hydrogen ions after being secreted in an inactive form by the gastric glands e. all of the above

A

d. is activated by the hydrogen ions after being secreted in an inactive form by the gastric glands

42
Q

Pick the incorrect association

a. amylase forms maltose b. brush border peptidases form amino acids
c. lipase forms monglycerides
d. trypsin forms glycerol
e. pepsin forms polypeptides

A

d. trypsin forms glycerol

43
Q

Most of the gas in the intestinal tract (flatus) is the result of

a. air swallowed during eating and drinking
b. bacterial fermentation in the colon
c. carbon dioxide formed when hydrochloric acid is neutralized by bicarbonate ions in the duodenum
d. ingested air from the meal
e. atmospheric air absorbed by the rectum

A

b. bacterial fermentation in the colon

44
Q

Which of the following is not true of microvilli?

a. increases surface area across which nutrients can be absorbed
b. finger-like projections c. secrete enzymes that work directly at the surface to digest nutrients
d. found in the small intestine
e. contain receptors that respond to prolactin to increase lactose absorption

A

b. finger-like projections

45
Q

The primary function of the large intestine is:

a. nutrient absorption
b. water absorption
c. chemical digestion
d. mechanical digestion e. storage of urine

A

b. water absorption

46
Q

If “House temperature falls” = “serum glucose rises” than “Response system [furnace] switched on” = _________________

a. increased cortisol production
b. increased insulin secretion
c. increased synthesis and activity of glucagon
d. decreased glomerular filtration of glucose
e. none of the above

A

b. increased insulin secretion

47
Q

Each of the following hormones is an amino acid derivative except

a. epinephrine
b. melatonin
c. thyroxine (T4)
d. aldosterone
e. norepinephrine

A

d. aldosterone

48
Q

The action of cortisol involves many functions, but only one of the following is correct

a. increases inflammatory responses
b. decreases lipid hydrolysis (lipolysis)
c. increases glucose levels d. decreases retention of electrolytes by the kidneys e. increases gluconeogenesis

A

e. increases gluconeogenesis

49
Q

Even though it is not its major effect, this hormone acts on the intestines and causes increased calcium absorption

a. calcitonin
b. parathyroid hormone (PTH)
c. calbindin
d. pancreatic polypeptide e. cortisol

A

b. parathyroid hormone (PTH)

50
Q

Deficiency of cholesterol in body metabolism interferes with the synthesis of

a. peptide hormones
b. thyroid hormones
c. prostaglandins
d. steroid hormones
e. none of the above

A

d. steroid hormones

51
Q

Select the incorrect association

a. aldosterone – peptide
b. aldosterone – sodium control
c. cortisol – glucocorticoid d. glucocorticoid – glucose control
e. mineralocorticoid – aldosterone

A

a. aldosterone – peptide

52
Q

Which of the following is most soluble in the water?

a. cholesterol
b. epinephrine
c. estradiol
d. testosterone
e. progesterone

A

b. epinephrine

53
Q

Which of the following is not an effect of growth hormone?

a. cartilage growth in the epiphyses of long bones b. decreased glucose entry into muscle cells (anti-insulin effects)
c. increased fat breakdown
d. increased bone growth
e. decreased protein synthesis

A

e. decreased protein synthesis

54
Q

Which of the following conditions are associated with hypersecretion of GH in adults?

a. Dwarfism
b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Diabetes insipidus
d. Acromegaly
e. Alopecia

A

d. Acromegaly

55
Q

Diabetes insipidus is caused by

a. hyperthyroidism
b. hyperinsulinism
c. hyperadrenocorticism
d. hyposecretion of anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
e. hypersecretion of anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)

A

d. hyposecretion of anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)

56
Q

Thyroid hormones

a. are essential for normal development of the central nervous system
b. selectively decrease the metabolic rate (oxygen consumption) in target organs
c. their secretion is decreased in response to low temperature
d. increase thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secretion
e. increase thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) secretion

A

a. are essential for normal development of the central nervous system

57
Q

Cortisol is a/an

a. androgen
b. mineralocorticoid
c. catecholamine
d. glucocorticoid
e. estrogen

A

d. glucocorticoid

58
Q

The secretion of which one of the following adrenal steroids would be least affected by hypophysectomy (i.e., surgical dissection of the pituitary gland)?

a. aldosterone
b. cortisol
c. corticosterone
d. pregnenolone
e. dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)

A

a. aldosterone

59
Q

Catecholamines are synthesized in the adrenal medulla under the influence of:

a. adreonocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
b. sympathetic system neurons
c. parasympathetic nervous system
d. angiotensin II
e. renin

A

b. sympathetic system neurons

60
Q

From what structure does the corpus luteum originate?

a. Primary follicle
b. Fallopian tube
c. Mature oocyte
d. Graafian follicle
e. Gastrula

A

d. Graafian follicle

61
Q

When do the oogonia undergo mitosis?

a. Before birth
b. At puberty
c. During fertilization
d. At the beginning of each menstrual cycle
e. During menopause

A

a. Before birth

62
Q

Estrogen is secreted exclusively from the _______ during the ________. i) follicle cells, luteal phase ii) follicle cells, follicular phase iii) corpus luteum, luteal phase iv) corpus luteum, follicular phase

a. i and iii
b. i and iv
c. ii and iii
d. ii and iv
e. none of the above

A

e. none of the above

63
Q

What reaction prevents additional sperm from pentrating the zona pellucida after fertilization?

a. capacitation
b. acrosomal reaction
c. cortical reaction
d. ejaculation
e. emission

A

c. cortical reaction

64
Q

Which group of cells give rise to the placenta?

a. morula
b. pronuclei
c. trophoblasts
d. inner cell mass
e. corpus luteum

A

c. trophoblasts

65
Q

What hormone stimulates the production of oxytocin receptors in the uterus?

a. estrogen
b. progesterone
c. follicle-stimulating hormone
d. luteinizing hormone
e. relaxin

A

a. estrogen

66
Q

What hormone is important in both parturition and lactation? a. prostaglandin

b. relaxin
c. oxytocin
d. prolactin
e. progesterone

A

c. oxytocin

67
Q

What is the main function of the epididymis?

a. Sperm maturation and storage
b. Produces most seminal fluid
c. Spermatogenesis
d. Sperm capacitation
e. Elimination of excess sperm

A

a. Sperm maturation and storage

68
Q

Emission is characterized by

a. skeletal muscle contraction
b. smooth muscle contraction
c. semen forced to the rete testis
d. semen pushed into epididymis
e. semen deposition into the vagina and cervix

A

b. smooth muscle contraction

69
Q

Mature spermatids are

a. diploid
b. haploid
c. aneuploidy
d. polyploid
e. none of the above

A

b. haploid

70
Q

The hormone, _______, causes the cervix and pubic symphysis to soften during child birth.

a. progesterone
b. relaxin
c. prolactin
d. somatostatin
e. estrogen

A

b. relaxin

71
Q

The region of a sperm cell that promotes digestion of the zona pellucida by releasing digestive enzymes is the

a. midpiece
b. tail
c. acrosome
d. nucleus
e. mitochondrion

A

c. acrosome

72
Q

The bulbourethral gland a. produces the majority of the volume of semen in an ejaculate

b. secretes a solution rich in the sugar, fructose
c. secretes a milky fluid that activates sperm
d. stores sperm for ejaculation
e. none of the above are correct

A

e. none of the above are correct

73
Q

Which of the following is (are) true concerning primordial and primary oocytes?

a. The first egg release occurs at menopause
b. The maximum number is present before birth
c. Meiosis comes to completion during oogenesis
d. They are haploid
e. All of the above are correct

A

b. The maximum number is present before birth

74
Q

The germ layer of the embryo that gives rise to nervous tissue is

a. endoderm
b. mesoderm
c. ectoderm
d. blastocyst
e. trophoblast

A

c. ectoderm

BIOM 2000 (3 decks)

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