Final Exam Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Empirical method

A

a set of rules and techniques for observation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Scientific method

A

a procedure for finding truth by using empirical evidence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Theory

A

a hypothetical explanation of a natural phenomenon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hypothesis

A

a falsifiable prediction made by a theory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Instrument

A

anything that can detect the condition to which an operational definition refers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Power

A

an instrument’s ability to detect differences or changes in the property.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Demand Characteristics

A

those aspects of an observational setting that cause people to behave as they think someone else wants or expects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Naturalistic observation

A

a technique for gathering scientific information by unobtrusively observing people in their natural environments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Observer bias

A

expectations can influence observations and expectations can influence reality. Observers’ expectations, then, can have a powerful influence on both the observations they make and on the behavior of those whom they observe.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Double-blind observation

A

an observation whose true purpose is hidden from both the observer and the person being observed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Self-selection

A

a problem that occurs when anything about a person determines whether he or she will be included in the experimental or control group.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Population

A

complete collection of people, such as the population of human beings (about 7 billion), the population of Californians (about 38 million), or the population of people with Down syndrome (about 1 million).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Sample

A

a partial collection of people drawn from a population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Random sampling

A

a technique for choosing participants that ensures that every member of a population has an equal chance of being included in the sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Natural correlation

A

the correlations observed in the world around us

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Third-variable correlation

A

two variables are correlated only because each is causally related to a third variable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Correlation versus Causation

A

Correlation does not necessarily mean causation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Experiment

A

a technique for establishing the causal relationship between variables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Manipulation

A

involves changing a variable in order to determine its causal power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Variable

A

properties whose values can vary across individuals or over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Dependent

A

variable that is measured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Independent

A

what the experimenter will change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Experimental group

A

the group of people who experience a stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Control group

A

the group of people who do not experience that stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Informed consent

A

a written agreement to participate in a study made by an adult who has been informed of all the risks that participation may entail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Debriefing

A

a verbal description of the true nature and purpose of a study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Validity

A

the goodness with which a concrete event defines a property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Internal validity

A

an attribute of an experiment that allows it to establish causal relationships

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

External validity

A

an attribute of an experiment in which variables have been defined in a normal, typical, or realistic way

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Reliability

A

the tendency for an instrument to produce the same measurement whenever it is used to measure the same thing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Sensory memory

A

a type of storage that holds sensory information for a few seconds or less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Iconic memory

A

a fast-decaying store of visual information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Echoic memory

A

a fast-decaying store of auditory information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Short-term memory

A

holds nonsensory information for more than a few seconds but less than a minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Long-term memory

A

a type of storage that holds information for hours, days, weeks, or years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Working memory

A

active maintenance of information in short-term storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Procedural memory

A

the gradual acquisition of skills as a result of practice, or “knowing how” to do things

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Prospective memory

A

remembering to do things in the future

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Source memory

A

recall of when, where, and how information was acquired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Flashbulb memories

A

detailed recollections of when and where we heard about shocking events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Semantic encoding

A

the process of relating new information in a meaningful way to knowledge that is already stored in memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Visual imagery encoding

A

the process of storing new information by converting it into mental pictures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Storage

A

is the process of maintaining information in memory over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Rehearsal

A

the process of keeping information in short-term memory by mentally repeating it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Retrieval

A

bringing memories to mind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Consolidation

A

the process by which memories become stable in the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Reconsolidation

A

The process that causes memories to become vulnerable to disruption when they are recalled, thus requiring them to become consolidated again

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Long-term potentiation (LTP)

A

a process whereby communication across the synapse between neurons strengthens the connection, making further communication easier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

State-dependent retrieval

A

the tendency for information to be better recalled when the person is in the same state during encoding and retrieval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Transfer-appropriate processing

A

the idea that memory is likely to transfer from one situation to another when the encoding and retrieval contexts of the situations match

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Priming

A

an enhanced ability to think of a stimulus, such as a word or object, as a result of a recent exposure to the stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Semantic memory

A

a network of associated facts and concepts that make up our general knowledge of the world

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Episodic memory

A

the collection of past personal experiences that occurred at a particular time and place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Explicit memory

A

when people consciously or intentionally retrieve past experiences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Implicit memory

A

past experiences influence later behavior and performance, even without an effort to remember those experiences or an awareness of the recollection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Chunking

A

involves combining small pieces of information into larger clusters or chunks that are more easily held in short-term memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Semantic encoding

A

the process of relating new information in a meaningful way to knowledge that is already stored in memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Visual imagery

A

the process of storing new information by converting it into mental pictures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Organizational

A

the process of categorizing information according to the relationships among a series of items

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Retroactive interference

A

situations in which later learning impairs memory for information acquired earlier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Proactive interference

A

situations in which earlier learning impairs memory for information acquired later

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Retrograde amnesia

A

the inability to retrieve information that was acquired before a particular date, usually the date of an injury or surgery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Absentmindedness

A

a lapse in attention that results in memory failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Blocking

A

a failure to retrieve information that is available in memory even though you are trying to produce it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Memory misattribution

A

assigning a recollection or an idea to the wrong source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Bias

A

the distorting influences of present knowledge, beliefs, and feelings on recollection of previous experiences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Persistence

A

the intrusive recollection of events that we wish we could forget

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Suggestibility

A

tendency to incorporate misleading information from external sources into personal recollections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Learning

A

the acquisition of new knowledge, skills, or responses from experience that results in a relatively permanent change in the state of the learner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Shaping

A

learning that results from the reinforcement of successive steps to a final desired behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Extinction

A

the gradual elimination of a learned response that occurs when the CS is repeatedly presented without the US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Generalization

A

The CR is observed even though the CS is slightly different from the CS used during acquisition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Discrimination (Learning)

A

the capacity to distinguish between similar but distinct stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Habituation

A

a general process in which repeated or prolonged exposure to a stimulus results in a gradual reduction in responding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Sensitization

A

A simple form of learning that occurs when presentation of a stimulus leads to an increased response to a later stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Acquisition

A

the phase of classical conditioning when the CS and the US are presented together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Spontaneous recovery

A

the tendency of a learned behavior to recover from extinction after a rest period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Biological preparedness

A

a propensity for learning particular kinds of associations over others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Law of effect

A

Behaviors that are followed by a “satisfying state of affairs” tend to be repeated and those that produce an “unpleasant state of affairs” are less likely to be repeated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Cognitive map

A

a mental representation of the physical features of the environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Classical conditioning

A

when a neutral stimulus produces a response after being paired with a stimulus that naturally produces a response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Operant conditioning

A

a type of learning in which the consequences of an organism’s behavior determine whether it will be repeated in the future

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Unconditioned stimulus (US

A

something that reliably produces a naturally occurring reaction in an organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Unconditioned response (UR

A

a reflexive reaction that is reliably produced by an unconditioned stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Conditioned stimulus (CS

A

a previously neutral stimulus that produces a reliable response in an organism after being paired with a US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Conditioned response (CR)

A

a reaction that resembles an unconditioned response but is produced by a conditioned stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Second-order conditioning

A

conditioning in which a CS is paired with a stimulus that became associated with the US in an earlier procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Latent learning

A

something is learned, but it is not manifested as a behavioral change until sometime in the future

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Observational learning

A

learning takes place by watching the actions of others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Implicit learning

A

learning that takes place largely independent of awareness of both the process and the products of information acquisition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Reinforcer

A

any stimulus or event that functions to increase the likelihood of the behavior that led to it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Positive reinforcement

A

where a rewarding stimulus is presented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Negative reinforcement

A

where an unpleasant stimulus is removed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Intermittent reinforcement

A

when only some of the responses made are followed by reinforcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Primary reinforcers

A

Food, comfort, shelter, or warmth are examples of primary reinforcers because they help satisfy biological needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Secondary reinforcers

A

derive their effectiveness from their associations with primary reinforcers through classical conditioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Punisher

A

any stimulus or event that functions to decrease the likelihood of the behavior that led to it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Positive punishment

A

where an unpleasant stimulus is administered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Negative punishment

A

where a rewarding stimulus is removed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Fixed-interval schedule (FI

A

reinforcers are presented at fixed-time periods, provided that the appropriate response is made

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Variable-interval schedule (VI

A

a behavior is reinforced based on an average time that has expired since the last reinforcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Fixed-ration schedule (FR

A

reinforcement is delivered after a specific number of responses have been made

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Variable-ratio schedule (VR

A

the delivery of reinforcement is based on a particular average number of responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Cell body (or soma

A

the largest component of the neuron that coordinates the information-processing tasks and keeps the cell alive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Dendrite

A

receive information from other neurons and relay it to the cell body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Axon

A

carries information to other neurons, muscles, or glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Synapse

A

the junction or region between the axon of one neuron and the dendrites or cell body of another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Terminal buttons

A

knob-like structures that branch out from an axon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Myelin sheath

A

an insulating layer of fatty material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Glial cells

A

support cells found in the nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Sensory neurons

A

receive information from the external world and convey this information to the brain via the spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Motor neurons

A

carry signals from the spinal cord to the muscles to produce movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Inter neurons

A

connect sensory neurons, motor neurons, or other interneurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Resting potential

A

the difference in electric charge between the inside and outside of a neuron’s cell membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Action potential

A

an electric signal that is conducted along the length of a neuron’s axon to a synapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Neurotransmitters

A

chemicals that transmit information across the synapse to a receiving neuron’s dendrites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Receptors

A

parts of the cell membrane that receive neurotransmitters and either initiate or prevent a new electric signal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Agonists

A

drugs that increase the action of a neurotransmitter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Antagonists

A

drugs that block the function of a neurotransmitter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Mirror neurons

A

active when an animal performs a behavior, such as reaching for or manipulating an object, and they are also activated when another animal observes the first animal as it performs the same behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Neurons

A

cells in the nervous system that communicate with one another to perform information-processing tasks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

EEG

A

a device used to record electrical activity in the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

PET

A

A harmless radioactive substance is injected into a person’s bloodstream. Then the brain is scanned by radiation detectors as the person performs perceptual or cognitive tasks, such as reading or speaking.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

fMRI

A

detects the difference between oxygenated hemoglobin and deoxygenated hemoglobin when exposed to magnetic pulses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

TMS

A

delivers a magnetic pulse that passes through the skull and deactivates neurons in the cerebral cortex for a short period, mimicking brain damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

CNS

A

composed of the brain and spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

PNS

A

connects the central nervous system to the body’s organs and muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Somatic

A

a set of nerves that conveys information between voluntary muscles and the central nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Autonomic

A

a set of nerves that carries involuntary and automatic commands that control blood vessels, body organs, and glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Parasympathetic

A

helps the body return to a normal resting state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Sympathetic

A

a set of nerves that prepares the body for action in challenging or threatening situations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Frontal

A

which sits behind the forehead, has specialized areas for movement, abstract thinking, planning, memory, and judgment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Temporal

A

is responsible for hearing and language (above the ear)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Occipital

A

processes visual information (located at the back of the brain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Parietal

A

carries out functions that include processing information about touch. (located in front, at the top, of the occipital lobe [on top of temporal lobe])

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Thalamus

A

relays and filters information from the senses and transmits the information to the cerebral cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Hypothalamus

A

regulates body temperature, hunger, thirst, and sexual behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

pituitary gland

A

the “master gland” of the body’s hormone-producing system, which releases hormones that direct the functions of many other glands in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

hippocampus

A

critical for creating new memories and integrating them into a network of knowledge so that they can be stored indefinitely in other parts of the cerebral cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

amygdala

A

located at the tip of each horn of the hippocampus, plays a central role in many emotional processes, particularly the formation of emotional memories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Spinal reflexes

A

simple pathways in the nervous system that rapidly generate muscle contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Hindbrain

A

an area of the brain that coordinates information coming into and out of the spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Medulla

A

an extension of the spinal cord into the skull that coordinates heart rate, circulation, and respiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Cerebellum

A

a large structure of the hindbrain that controls fine motor skills

145
Q

Pons

A

a structure that relays information from the cerebellum to the rest of the brain

146
Q

Basal ganglia

A

a set of subcortical structures that directs intentional movements.

147
Q

Cerebral cortex

A

the outermost layer of the brain, visible to the naked eye, and divided into two hemispheres

148
Q

Corpus callosum

A

connects large areas of the cerebral cortex on each side of the brain and supports communication of information across the hemispheres

149
Q

Association areas

A

composed of neurons that help provide sense and meaning to information registered in the cortex

150
Q

Brain/neural plasticity

A

They can adapt to changes in sensory inputs, a quality researchers call plasticity (i.e., the ability to be molded)

Ex. if you lose your middle finger in an accident, the part of the somatosensory area that represents that finger is initially unresponsive. After all, there’s no longer any sensory input coming from that location to that part of the brain. You might expect the left middle-finger neurons of the somatosensory cortex to wither away. However, over time, that area in the somatosensory cortex becomes responsive to stimulation of the fingers adjacent to the missing finger.

151
Q

Gene

A

the major unit of hereditary transmission

152
Q

Chromosomes

A

strands of DNA wound around each other in a double-helix configuration. (Humans have 23 pairs, 46 total)

153
Q

Epigenetics

A

environmental influences that determine whether or not genes are expressed, or the degree to which they are expressed, without altering the basic DNA sequences that constitute the genes themselves

154
Q

Grammar

A

a set of rules that specify how the units of language can be combined to produce meaningful messages

155
Q

Phoneme

A

The smallest units of sound that are recognizable as speech rather than as random noise

156
Q

Phonological rules

A

indicate how phonemes can be combined to produce speech sounds. For example, the initial sound ts is acceptable in German but not in English.

157
Q

Morphemes

A

the smallest meaningful units of language (see FIGURE 9.1). For example, your brain recognizes the p sound you make at the beginning of pat as a speech sound, but it carries no particular meaning. The morpheme pat, on the other hand, is recognized as an element of speech that carries meaning.

158
Q

Morphological rules

A

are a set of rules that indicate how morphemes can be combined to form words

159
Q

Syntactical rules

A

a set of rules that indicate how words can be combined to form phrases and sentences

160
Q

Deep structure

A

the meaning of a sentence

161
Q

Surface structure

A

how a sentence is worded

162
Q

Fast mapping

A

The fact that children can map a word onto an underlying concept after only a single exposure

163
Q

Telegraphic speech

A

devoid of function morphemes and consist mostly of content words.

164
Q

Genetic dysphasia

A

a syndrome characterized by an inability to learn the grammatical structure of language despite having otherwise normal intelligence

165
Q

Aphasia

A

difficulty in producing or comprehending language

166
Q

Nativist

A

the view that language development is best explained as an innate, biological capacity

167
Q

Family Resemblance

A

features that appear to be characteristic of category members but may not be possessed by every member

168
Q

Prototype

A

the “best” or “most typical” member of a category

169
Q

Exemplar theories

A

we make category judgments by comparing a new instance with stored memories for other instances of the category

170
Q

Availability bias

A

is the proposal that our minds evolved to notice how frequently things occur, not how likely they are to occur– it is most recent or handy in your memory

171
Q

Representativeness heuristic

A

a mental shortcut that involves making a probability judgment by comparing an object or event to a prototype of the object or event–use characteristics about a person to infer what they do/like

172
Q

Conjunction fallacy

A

when people think that two events are more likely to occur together than either individual event

173
Q

Category-specific deficit

A

a neurological syndrome characterized by an inability to recognize objects that belong to a particular category, although the ability to recognize objects outside the category is undisturbed

174
Q

Rational choice theory

A

the classical view that we make decisions by determining how likely something is to happen, judging the value of the outcome, and then multiplying the two

175
Q

Frequency format hypothesis

A

is the proposal that our minds evolved to notice how frequently things occur, not how likely they are to occur

176
Q

Framing effects

A

when people give different answers to the same problem depending on how the problem is phrased

177
Q

Sunk-cost fallacy

A

a framing effect in which people make decisions about a current situation based on what they have previously invested in the situation

178
Q

Prospect theory

A

people choose to take on risk when evaluating potential losses and avoid risks when evaluating potential gains

179
Q

Ratio IQ

A

a statistic obtained by dividing a person’s mental age by the person’s physical age and then multiplying the quotient by 100. Works fine for Children, but not really for adults

180
Q

Deviation IQ

A

a statistic obtained by dividing a person’s test score by the average test score of people in the same age group and then multiplying the quotient by 100. This works better for adults

181
Q

Spearman’s two-factor theory of intelligence

A

every task requires a combination of a general ability (which he called g) and skills that are specific to the task (which he called s).

182
Q

Thurstone’s primary mental abilities

A

Thurstone argued that just as we have games called baseball and basketball but no game called athletics, so we have abilities such as verbal ability and perceptual ability but no general ability called intelligence.

a. Verbal word fluency: ability to solve anagrams and to find rhymes
b. Verbal comprehension: ability to understand words and sentences
c. Numerical ability: ability to make mental and other numerical computations
d. Spatial visualization: ability to visualize a complex shape in various orientations
e. Associative Memory: ability to recall verbal material, learn pairs of unrelated words, etc.
f. Perceptual speed: ability to detect visual details quickly
g. Reasoning: ability to induce a general rule from a few instances

183
Q

Fluid intelligence

A

the ability to see abstract relationships and draw logical inferences

184
Q

Crystallized intelligence

A

the ability to retain and use knowledge that was acquired through experience

185
Q

Emotional intelligence

A

the ability to reason about emotions and to use emotions to enhance reasoning

186
Q

Fraternal twins (Dizygotic twins)

A

develop from two different eggs that were fertilized by two different sperm, and although they happen to have the same parents and birthdays, they are merely siblings who shared a womb, so like any siblings, they share on average 50% of their genes

187
Q

Identical twins (Monozygotic twins

A

develop from the splitting of a single egg that was fertilized by a single sperm, so unlike any other siblings, they are genetic duplicates of each other who share 100% of their genes

188
Q

Shared environment

A

those environmental factors that are experienced by all relevant members of a household. For example, siblings raised in the same household have about the same level of affluence, the same number and type of books, the same diet, and so on

189
Q

Nonshared environment

A

those environmental factors that are not experienced by all relevant members of a household. Siblings raised in the same household may have different friends and teachers and may contract different illnesses.

190
Q

Appraisal

A

an evaluation of the emotion-relevant aspects of a stimulus

191
Q

Emotion regulation

A

the strategies people use to influence their own emotional experience

192
Q

Reappraisal

A

changing one’s emotional experience by changing the way one thinks about the emotion-eliciting stimulus

193
Q

Terror management theory

A

a theory about how people respond to knowledge of their own mortality

194
Q

Emotional expression

A

an observable sign of an emotional state

195
Q

Facial feedback hypothesis

A

emotional expressions can cause emotional experiences

196
Q

Universality hypothesis

A

all human beings naturally make and understand the same emotional expressions

197
Q

Display rule

A

a norm for the appropriate expression of emotion

198
Q

James-Lange theory

A

stimuli trigger activity in the body, which in turn produces emotional experiences in the brain. According to this theory, emotional experience is the consequence—not the cause—of our physiological reactions to objects and events in the world

199
Q

Cannon-Bard theory

A

stimuli simultaneously trigger activity in the body and emotional experience in the brain

200
Q

Two-factor theory (Schacter-Singer)

A

emotions are based on inferences about the causes of general physiological arousal; According to this theory, when you see a bear in your kitchen, your heart begins to pound. Your brain notices both the pounding and the bear, puts two and two together, and interprets your bodily arousal as fear. You have the same arousal for all emotions, you just label this feeling with an emotion once you realize what is causing this arousal.

201
Q

Metabolism

A

the rate at which energy is used by the body

202
Q

Bulimia nervosa

A

an eating disorder characterized by binge eating followed by purging

203
Q

Motivation

A

the purpose or goal of an action

204
Q

Drive

A

an internal state that signals a physiological need

205
Q

Need for achievement

A

the motivation to solve worthwhile problems

206
Q

Intrinsic motivation

A

a motivation to take actions that are themselves rewarding.

207
Q

Extrinsic motivation]

A

a motivation to take actions that lead to reward

208
Q

Conscious motivation

A

motivations of which people are aware

209
Q

Unconscious motivation

A

motivations of which people are not aware

210
Q

Approach motivation

A

a motivation to experience a positive outcome

211
Q

Avoidance motivation

A

a motivation not to experience a negative outcome.

212
Q

Developmental psychology

A

the study of continuity and change across the life span

213
Q

Zygote

A

a fertilized egg

214
Q

Germinal stage

A

the 2-week period of prenatal development that begins at conception

215
Q

Embryonic stage

A

a period of prenatal development that lasts from the 2nd week until about the 8th week

216
Q

Fetal stage

A

the period of prenatal development that lasts from the 9th week until birth.

217
Q

Myelination

A

is the formation of a fatty sheath around the axons of a neuron

218
Q

Teratogens

A

Agents that impair development

219
Q

Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS

A

a developmental disorder caused by heavy alcohol use during pregnancy

220
Q

Motor development

A

the emergence of the ability to execute physical actions

221
Q

Reflexes

A

specific patterns of motor response that are triggered by specific patterns of sensory stimulation

222
Q

Cephalocaudal rule

A

(or the “top-to-bottom” rule), which describes the tendency for motor behavior to emerge in sequence from the head to the feet.

223
Q

Proximodistal rule

A

or the “inside-to-outside” rule), which describes the tendency for motor behavior to emerge in sequence from the center to the periphery

224
Q

Temperaments

A

characteristic pattern of emotional reactivity

225
Q

Infancy

A

the stage of development that begins at birth and lasts between 18 and 24 months

226
Q

Childhood

A

the stage of development that begins at about 18 to 24 months and lasts until about 11 to 14 years

227
Q

Adolescence

A

the period of development that begins with the onset of sexual maturity (about 11 to 14 years of age) and lasts until the beginning of adulthood (about 18 to 21 years of age)

228
Q

Puberty

A

the bodily changes associated with sexual maturity

229
Q

Primary sex characteristics

A

bodily structures that are directly involved in reproduction

230
Q

Secondary sex characteristics

A

bodily structures that change dramatically with sexual maturity but that are not directly involved in reproduction

231
Q

Sensorimotor stage

A

a period of development that begins at birth and lasts through infancy

232
Q

Preoperational stage

A

the stage of cognitive development that begins at about 2 years and ends at about 6 years, during which children develop a preliminary understanding of the physical world

233
Q

Concrete operational stage

A

the stage of cognitive development that begins at about 6 years and ends at about 11 years, during which children learn how actions or “operations” can transform the “concrete” objects of the physical world.

234
Q

Formal operational stage

A

the final stage of cognitive development that begins around the age of 11, during which children learn to reason about abstract concepts.

235
Q

Schemas

A

theories about of the way the world works

236
Q

Object permanence

A

the belief that objects exist even when they are not visible

237
Q

Conservation

A

is the notion that basic properties of an object do not change despite changes in the object’s appearance

238
Q

Egocentrism

A

the failure to understand that the world appears different to different people

239
Q

Assimilation

A

the process by which infants apply their schemas in novel situations.

240
Q

Accommodation

A

the process by which infants revise their schemas to take new information into account

241
Q

Attachment

A

an emotional bond with a primary caregiver

242
Q

Secure

A

When the caregiver leaves, secure infants may or may not be distressed. When she returns, the distressed infants go to her and are calmed by her presence, while non-distressed infants acknowledge her with a glance or greeting

243
Q

Avoidant

A

When the caregiver leaves, avoidant infants are not distressed, but when she returns, they don’t acknowledge her

244
Q

Ambivalent

A

When the caregiver leaves, ambivalent infants are distressed, and when she returns, they rebuff her, refusing any attempt at calming while arching their backs and squirming to get away

245
Q

Disorganized

A

When their caregiver leaves and returns, disorganized infants show no consistent pattern of response

246
Q

Internal working model of relationships

A

a set of beliefs about the self, the primary caregiver, and the relationship between them

247
Q

Preconventional stage

A

a stage of moral development in which the morality of an action is primarily determined by its consequences for the actor

248
Q

Conventional stage

A

a stage of moral development in which the morality of an action is primarily determined by the extent to which it conforms to social rules.

249
Q

Post conventional stage

A

a stage of moral development in which the morality of an action is determined by a set of general principles that reflect core values, such as the right to life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness

250
Q

Aggression

A

behavior whose purpose is to harm another

251
Q

Frustration-aggression hypothesis

A

that animals aggress when their desires are frustrated

252
Q

Cooperation

A

behavior by two or more individuals that leads to mutual benefit

253
Q

Altruism

A

behavior that benefits another without benefiting oneself

254
Q

Reciprocal altruism

A

behavior that benefits another with the expectation that those benefits will be returned in the future

255
Q

Mere exposure effect

A

the tendency for liking to increase with the frequency of exposure

256
Q

Prejudice

A

a positive or negative evaluation of another person based on the person’s group membership

257
Q

Discrimination

A

positive or negative behavior toward another person based on the person’s group membership

258
Q

Common knowledge effect

A

the tendency for group discussions to focus on information that all members share

259
Q

Group polarization

A

the tendency for groups to make decisions that are more extreme than any member would have made alone

260
Q

Groupthink

A

the tendency for groups to reach consensus in order to facilitate interpersonal harmony

261
Q

Deindividuation

A

occurs when immersion in a group causes people to become less aware of their individual values

262
Q

Diffusion of responsibility

A

the tendency for individuals to feel diminished responsibility for their actions when they are surrounded by others who are acting the same way

263
Q

Bystander intervention

A

the act of helping strangers in an emergency situation

264
Q

Kin selection

A

the process by which evolution selects for individuals who cooperate with their relatives

265
Q

Passionate love

A

an experience involving feelings of euphoria, intimacy, and intense sexual attraction

266
Q

Compassionate love

A

an experience involving affection, trust, and concern for a partner’s well-being

267
Q

Norms

A

customary standards for behavior that are widely shared by members of a culture

268
Q

Social exchange

A

the hypothesis that people remain in relationships only as long as they perceive a favorable ratio of costs to benefits

269
Q

Social influence

A

the control of one person’s behavior by another

270
Q

Norm of reciprocity

A

the unwritten rule that people should benefit those who have benefited them

271
Q

Normative influence

A

a phenomenon that occurs when another person’s behavior provides information about what is appropriate

272
Q

Informal influence

A

a phenomenon that occurs when another person’s behavior provides information about what is true

273
Q

Stereotyping

A

the process by which people draw inferences about people based on their knowledge of the categories to which those people belong

274
Q

Conformity

A

the tendency to do what others do simply because others are doing it

275
Q

Obedience

A

the tendency to do what authorities tell us to do

276
Q

Attitude

A

an enduring positive or negative evaluation of an object or event

277
Q

Belief

A

an enduring piece of knowledge about an object or event

278
Q

Systematic persuasion

A

the process by which attitudes or beliefs are changed by appeals to reason

279
Q

Heuristic persuasion

A

the process by which attitudes or beliefs are changed by appeals to habit or emotion

280
Q

Foot-in-the-door technique

A

a social influence technique that involves making a small request before making a large request

281
Q

Social cognition

A

the processes by which people come to understand others

282
Q

Cognitive dissonance

A

an unpleasant state that arises when a person recognizes the inconsistency of his or her actions, attitudes, or beliefs

283
Q

Perceptual confirmation

A

the tendency for people to see what they expect to see

284
Q

Self-fulfilling prophecy

A

the tendency for people to behave as they are expected to behave

285
Q

Attribution

A

an inference about the cause of a person’s behavior

286
Q

Correspondence bias

A

the tendency to make dispositional attributions instead of situational attributions

287
Q

Actor-observer effect

A

the tendency to make situational attributions for our own behaviors while making dispositional attributions for the identical behavior of other

288
Q

Situational

A

when we decide that a person’s behavior was caused by some temporary aspect of the situation in which it occurred

289
Q

Dispositional

A

when we decide that a person’s behavior was caused by a relatively enduring tendency to think, feel, or act in a particular way

290
Q

Stressors

A

specific events or chronic pressures that place demands on a person or threaten the person’s well-being

291
Q

Health psychology

A

the subfield of psychology concerned with the ways psychological factors influence the causes and treatment of physical illness and the maintenance of health

292
Q

Stress

A

the physical and psychological response to internal or external stressors

293
Q

Chronic stressor

A

sources of stress that occur continuously or repeatedly

294
Q

Learned helplessness

A

the belief that one has no control over one’s situation based on past experience

295
Q

Fight-or-flight response

A

is an emotional and physiological reaction to an emergency that increases readiness for action

296
Q

General adaptation syndrome (GAS

A

three-stage physiological stress response that appears regardless of the stressor that is encountered

297
Q

Telomeres

A

caps at the ends of each chromosome that protect the ends of chromosomes and prevent them from sticking to each other

298
Q

Immune system

A

a complex response system that protects the body from bacteria, viruses, and other foreign substances

299
Q

Primary Appraisal

A

Primary appraisal allows you to realize that a small dark spot on your shirt is a stressor (spider!) or that a 70-mile-per-hour drop from a great height in a small car full of screaming people may not be (roller coaster!).

300
Q

Secondary Appraisal

A

determining whether the stressor is something you can handle or not—that is, whether you have control over the event

301
Q

Threats

A

a stressor you believe you might not be able to overcome

302
Q

Challenges

A

a stressor you feel fairly confident you can control

303
Q

Type A behavior pattern

A

a tendency toward easily aroused hostility, impatience, a sense of time urgency, and competitive achievement strivings

304
Q

Burnout

A

a state of physical, emotional, and mental exhaustion created by long-term involvement in an emotionally demanding situation and accompanied by lowered performance and motivation

305
Q

Psychosomatic illness

A

an interaction between mind and body that can produce illness

306
Q

Somatic symptom disorders

A

the set of psychological disorders in which a person with at least one bodily symptom displays significant health-related anxiety, expresses disproportionate concerns about symptoms, and devotes excessive time and energy to symptoms or health concerns

307
Q

Sick role

A

a socially recognized set of rights and obligations linked with illness

308
Q

Self-regulation

A

the exercise of voluntary control over the self to bring the self into line with preferred standards

309
Q

Repressive coping

A

avoiding situations or thoughts that are reminders of a stressor and maintaining an artificially positive viewpoint

Something bad happened to you (like being held in captivity) but you instead only talk about all of the positive things that are going on in your life right now. Can work for people who are repressors, but for others it can just add more stress

310
Q

Rational coping

A

facing the stressor and working to overcome it.

a. You lost your job, but you accept that and work hard to find a new job
i. Step 1: Acceptance: coming to realize that a stressor exists and cannot be wished away
ii. Step 2: Exposure: attending to the stressor, thinking about it, and even seeking it out
iii. Step 3: Prolonged exposure: relive the traumatic event daily

311
Q

Reframing

A

1) finding a new or creative way to think about a stressor that reduces its threat.
a. Writing in a diary until you find a new perspective on the situation

312
Q

Meditation

A

the practice of intentional contemplation.

313
Q

Relaxation therapy

A

a technique for reducing tension by consciously relaxing muscles of the body

314
Q

Relaxation response

A

a condition of reduced muscle tension, cortical activity, heart rate, breathing rate, and blood pressure

315
Q

Biofeedback

A

the use of an external monitoring device to obtain information about a bodily function and possibly gain control over that function

316
Q

Social support

A

aid gained through interacting with others

317
Q

Tend and Befriend

A

taking care of people and bringing them together

How women cope

318
Q

Mental disorders

A

as a persistent disturbance or dysfunction in behavior, thoughts, or emotions that causes significant distress or impairment

319
Q

Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM)

A

a classification system that describes the features used to diagnose each recognized mental disorder and indicates how the disorder can be distinguished from other, similar problems.

320
Q

Comorbidity

A

the co-occurrence of two or more disorders in a single individual

321
Q

Research Domain Criteria Project (RDoC)

A

new initiative that aims to guide the classification and understanding of mental disorders by revealing the basic processes that give rise to them

322
Q

Medical model

A

abnormal psychological experiences are conceptualized as illnesses that, like physical illnesses, have biological and environmental causes, defined symptoms, and possible cures

323
Q

Biopsychosocial perspective

A

explains mental disorders as the result of interactions among biological, psychological, and social factors.

324
Q

Diathesis-stress model

A

suggests that a person may be predisposed for a psychological disorder that remains unexpressed until triggered by stress.

325
Q

Anxiety disorder

A

the class of mental disorder in which anxiety is the predominant feature

326
Q

Phobic disorders

A

disorders characterized by marked, persistent, and excessive fear and avoidance of specific objects, activities, or situations.

327
Q

Specific phobia

A

a disorder that involves an irrational fear of a particular object or situation that markedly interferes with an individual’s ability to function

328
Q

Social phobia

A

a disorder that involves an irrational fear of being publicly humiliated or embarrassed

329
Q

Preparedness theory

A

the idea that people are instinctively predisposed toward certain fears

330
Q

Panic disorder

A

a disorder characterized by the sudden occurrence of multiple psychological and physiological symptoms that contribute to a feeling of stark terror

331
Q

Agoraphobia

A

a specific phobia involving a fear of public places

332
Q

Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)

A

involves a chronic state of anxiety not focused on any particular threat

333
Q

Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)

A

repetitive, intrusive thoughts (obsessions) and ritualistic behaviors (compulsions) designed to fend off those thoughts interfere significantly with an individual’s functioning

334
Q

Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD

A

a disorder characterized by chronic physiological arousal, recurrent unwanted thoughts or images of the trauma, and avoidance of things that call the traumatic event to mind.

335
Q

Mood disorders

A

mental disorders that have mood disturbance as their predominant feature and take two main forms: depression (also called unipolar depression) and bipolar disorder (so named because people go from one end of the emotional pole [extreme depression] to the other [extreme mania]).

336
Q

Major depressive disorder (or unipolar depression)

A

disorder characterized by a severely depressed mood and/or inability to experience pleasure that lasts 2 or more weeks and is accompanied by feelings of worthlessness, lethargy, and sleep and appetite disturbance.

337
Q

Seasonal affective disorder (SAD)

A

recurrent depressive episodes in a seasonal pattern

338
Q

Helplessness theory

A

the idea that individuals who are prone to depression automatically attribute negative experiences to causes that are internal (i.e., their own fault), stable (i.e., unlikely to change), and global (i.e., widespread).

339
Q

Bipolar disorder

A

a condition characterized by cycles of abnormal, persistent high mood (mania) and low mood (depression

340
Q

Expressed emotion

A

a measure of how much hostility, criticism, and emotional over involvement are used when speaking about a family member with a mental disorder

341
Q

Schizophrenia

A

a psychotic disorder (psychosis is a break from reality) characterized by the profound disruption of basic psychological processes; a distorted perception of reality; altered or blunted emotion; and disturbances in thought, motivation, and behavior

342
Q

Positive symptoms

A

thoughts and behaviors not seen in those without the disorder

343
Q

Hallucinations

A

false perceptual experiences that have a compelling sense of being real despite the absence of external stimulation (P)

344
Q

Delusions

A

patently false beliefs, often bizarre and grandiose, that are maintained in spite of their irrationality (P)

345
Q

Disorganized speech

A

a severe disruption of verbal communication in which ideas shift rapidly and incoherently among unrelated topics (P)

346
Q

Grossly disorganized behavior

A

behavior that is inappropriate for the situation or ineffective in attaining goals, often with specific motor disturbances (P)

347
Q

Catatonic behavior

A

a marked decrease in all movement or an increase in muscular rigidity and overactivity

348
Q

Negative symptoms

A

deficits or disruptions to normal emotions and behaviors.

349
Q

Cognitive symptoms

A

deficits in cognitive abilities, specifically in executive functioning, attention, and working memory

350
Q

Dopamine hypothesis

A

the idea that schizophrenia involves an excess of dopamine activity.

351
Q

Autism spectrum disorder (ASD)

A

a condition beginning in early childhood in which a person shows persistent communication deficits as well as restricted and repetitive patterns of behaviors, interests, or activities

352
Q

Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)

A

a persistent pattern of severe problems with inattention and/or hyperactivity or impulsiveness that cause significant impairments in functioning

353
Q

Conduct disorder

A

a condition in which a child or adolescent engages in a persistent pattern of deviant behavior involving aggression against people or animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness or theft, or serious rule violations

354
Q

Personality disorders

A

enduring patterns of thinking, feeling, or relating to others or controlling impulses that deviate from cultural expectations and cause distress or impaired functioning

355
Q

Antisocial personality disorder (APD)

A

a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others that begins in childhood or early adolescence and continues into adulthood

356
Q

Suicide

A

intentional self-inflicted death

357
Q

Suicide attempt

A

self-inflicted injury from which a person has at least some intention of dying

358
Q

Nonsuicidal self-injury (NSSI)

A

direct, deliberate destruction of body tissue in the absence of any intent to die

359
Q

Random assignment

A

a procedure that lets chance assign people to the experimental or the control group