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TSM 343 > Final exam > Flashcards

Final exam Flashcards

1
Q

Well-known services ports

A

0-1024

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2
Q

The name of the group responsible for drafting, testing, proposing and maintaining official internet standards.

A

IETF Internet Engineering task force

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3
Q

The group responsible for managing all internet domain names, network addresses and protocol parameters.

A

ICANN Internet corporation for assigned names and numbers

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4
Q

RFC

A

Request for comments

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5
Q

RFC process order

A
  1. Proposed Standard2. Draft Standard3. internet standard4. retired standard or historic standard
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6
Q

OSI network reference layers

A
  1. Application layer6. Presentation layer5. Session layer4. Transport layer3. Network layer2. Data link layer1. Physical layer
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7
Q

Data link layer pdu

A

frames

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8
Q

Network layer pdu

A

packet

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9
Q

transport layer pdu

A

segment

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10
Q

Session layer includes mechanisms to maintain reliable ongoing conversations, called___

A

checkpoints

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11
Q

data link layer addressing

A

MAC address

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12
Q

Network layer addressing

A

IP address

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13
Q

Combining the various sources of outgoing data into a single output data stream is called___

A

multiplexing

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14
Q

______is the process of tapping into the network communications system, capturing packets that cross the network, gathering network statisticss, and decoding the packets into readable form.

A

protocol analysis

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15
Q

Three options for analyzing switched networks:

A
  1. Hubbing out2. Port redirection3. Remote monitoring
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16
Q

The minimum ethernet frame size is ___

A

64 bytes

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17
Q

The maximum ethernet frame size is ____

A

1518 bytes

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18
Q

Ethernet II frame structure

A
  1. Preamble 8 bytes2. Destination address 6 bytes3. Source address 6 bytes4. type field 2 bytes5. Data field 46-1500 bytes6. Frame check sequence 4 bytes
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19
Q

Frame check sequence field includes the result of the ____

A

CRC

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20
Q

Flags field bit 0

A

reserved: set to 0

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21
Q

Flags field bit 1

A

Don’t fragment bit: 0=may fragment 1=don’t fragment

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22
Q

Flags field bit 2

A

More fragments bit: 0=last fragment; 1=more to come

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23
Q

IP protocol field # 1

A

ICMP

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24
Q

IP protocol field #6

A

TCP

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25
Q

IP protocol field #17

A

UDP

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26
Q

The primary function of the _______layer is to provide a globally unique address to every host on the internet and paths to and from hosts.

A

network

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27
Q

When two or more RFCs cover the same topic they usually also share the same title. True or false

A

True

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28
Q

_________involves cutting up a big message into a numbered sequence of chunks, called segments, in which each chunk represents the maximum data payload that the network media can carry between sender and receiver.

A

segmentation

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29
Q

The Session layer includes mechanisms to maintain reliable ongoing conversations, called ____________________.

A

checkpoints

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30
Q

The most important TCP/IP Network Access layer protocol is ____________________.

A

PPP Point-to-Point-Protocol point-to-point-protocol

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31
Q

TCP/IP application processes are sometimes called ____ and are identified by port numbers.

A

network services

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32
Q

____ is considered a premium service connection, offering a service that appears as a “virtual lease line” between end points.

A

expedited forwarding

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33
Q

____ is used to obtain an IP address for an associated data link address.

A

RARP

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34
Q

The ____ field provides error detection on the contents of the IP header only.

A

IP header checksum

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35
Q

IP fragmentation enables a larger packet (for example, a token ring 4,096-byte packet) to be automatically fragmented by a ____ into smaller packets to cross a link that supports a smaller MTU, such as an Ethernet link.

A

router

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36
Q

____ was designed to provide devices with a method for notifying each other that a link is experiencing congestion before the routers start to drop packets.

A

Explicit Congestion Notification

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37
Q

The ____________________ field is a two-byte field that provides bit-level integrity checks for data as sent.

A

FCS Frame-check-sequence

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38
Q

When a packet is fragmented, all fragments are given different TTL values. true of false

A

false

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39
Q

0x0800

A

IPv4

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40
Q

0x0806

A

ARP

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41
Q

IP Header fields

A
  1. Version2. Hdr length3. Type of Service4. Total lenght5. Identification6. Flags7. Fragment offset8. Time to live9. Protocol10. Header checksum11. Source IP12. Dest IP13. Options (if any)
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42
Q

For any network node to communicate and exchange data with another network node, some way of forwarding packets from the sender to the receiver must exist. This concept is called _______-

A

reachability

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43
Q

The ICMP router solicitation packet is sent to the all-routers IP multicast address of _____

A

224.0.0.2

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44
Q

Hackers can use ICMp as part of a _________ to learn about active network addresses and active processes.

A

reconnaissance process

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45
Q

ICMP type number 0

A

Echo Reply

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46
Q

ICMP type number 3

A

Destination unreachable

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47
Q

ICMP type number 5

A

Redirect

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48
Q

ICMP type number 8

A

Echo

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49
Q

ICMP type number 9

A

Router Advertisement

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50
Q

ICMP type number 10

A

Router Solicitation

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51
Q

ICMP type number 11

A

Time exceeded

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52
Q

The checksum field provides error detection for the ________ only.

A

ICMP header

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53
Q

ICMP is a distinct Network layer TCP/IP protocol that has nothing in common with IP. True/False

A

False

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54
Q

What is the name of the concept that indicates that a path exists between two TCP/IP hosts on an internetwork?

A

reachability

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55
Q

Which of the following services does ICMp add to basic IP datagram deliver services?A. improved reliability for datagram deliveryb. reachability analysis supportc. path discovery servicesd. delivery error reportinge. network congestion managementf. network utilization metrics

A

b. reachability analysisd. delivery error reportinge. network Congestion managementeporting

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56
Q

It’s up to the IP host that receives incoming ICMP messages to act on the content of those messages. True or false?

A

True

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57
Q

Which of the following RFCs describes ICMP?a. 792b. 950c. 1191d. 1812

A

a. 792

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58
Q

ping -l

A

sets the size of the data to send

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59
Q

ping -f

A

sets the don’t fragment bit

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60
Q

ping -i

A

sets the TTL value of the TTL field in the IP header

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61
Q

The process of PMTU discovery continues until the ____________ is discovered.

A

end-to-end minimum MTU size

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62
Q

ICMP reports errors only about IP datagrams. Errors about error messages are not reported. True of False?

A

True

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63
Q

Which of the following ICMP message types relates to the reachability analysis?a. Destination Unreachableb. echo/echo replyc. redirect d. Source Quench

A

b. echo/echo reply

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64
Q

Which of the following ICMp message types reports delivery errors?a. Destination Unreachableb. echo/echo replyc. redirect d. Source Quench

A

a. Destination unreachable

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65
Q

Which of the following ICMP message types relates to congestion control?a. Destination Unreachableb. echo/echo replyc. redirect d. Source Quench

A

d. source quench

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66
Q

Which of the following ICMP message types relates to route optimization?a. Destination Unreachableb. echo/echo replyc. redirect d. Source Quench

A

c. redirect

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67
Q

Which of the following Windows command-line utilities performs connectivity or reachability tests?a. pingb. tracertc. tracerouted. ipconfig

A

a. ping

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68
Q

which of the following Windows command-line utilities performs patch discovery tests?a. pingb. tracertc. tracerouted. ipconfig

A

b. tracert

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69
Q

What additional functionality does PATHPING provide?a. reports on all the visted hosts and routers between a sender and a receiver.b. resolves all possible IP addresses into symbolic names for visted nodesc. uses the ICMP TRACEROUTE message typed. test router and link latency

A

d. tests router and link latency

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70
Q

Which of the following statements best defines the intent of the PMTU process?a. determines the largest possible MTU in the path between sender and recieverb. determines the smallest possible MTU in the path between sender and receiverc. instructs the sender what MTU to use to avoid further fragmentation en routed. justifies the inclusion of the Don’t Fragment flag in ICMP messages

A

c. instructs the sender what MTU to use to avoid further fragmentation en route

71
Q

Which of the following statements best describes a black hole router?a. a router that discard all incoming trafficb. a router tat does not support PMTU, but is configured to send Destination Unreachable messagesa router that does not support PMTU, and is configured not to send destination unreachable messagesd. a router that does not support PMTU

A

c. a router that does not support PMTU and is configured no to send destination unreachable messages

72
Q

Which of the following accurately represents the default advertising rate for unsolicited ICMP Router Advertisements?a. every 30 secondsb. every 60 secondsc. two to five minutesd. 7 to 10 minutes

A

d. 7 to 10 minutes

73
Q

The ICMP redirection process serves only IP routers, not IP hosts. True or False?

A

Fales, it only serves hosts

74
Q

What type of scan occurs when a series of PING requests for a range of IP addresses is performed?a. port scanb. protocol scanc. host probed. network mapping

A

c. host probe

75
Q

which of the following ICMP Type nubmers identify echo and echo reply messages? Choose all that applya. 0b. 1c. 3d. 8e. 30

A

a. 0d. 8

76
Q

Which of the following ICMP type numbers relate to Router Advertisement and solicitation messages?a. 8b. 9c. 10d. 11e. 12

A

b. 9c. 10

77
Q

Which of the following TCP/IP protocols are Transport layer protocols? (choose all that apply)a. IPb. TCPc. UDPd. FTP

A

b. TCPc. UDP

78
Q

Whereas UDP is a _____________ protocol, TCP is a _________ protocol.

A

connectionless, connection-oriented

79
Q

Which of the following services are characteristic of a connection-oriented protocol? (choose all that apply).a. connection handlingb. delivery guaranteesc. segmentation and reassemblyd. message-level checksum in header

A

a. connection handlingb. delivery guarenteesd. message level checksum in header(not 100% sure on this answer)

80
Q

A connection-oriented protocol creates more overhead than a connectionless protocol. True or False?

A

true

81
Q

Connectionless protocols usually run slower than connection-oriented protocols. True or false

A

false

82
Q

For connectionless protocols, the application layer protocol or service must provide messages that do no exceed a datagram’s MTU. True of false?

A

true

83
Q

Which of the following services does UDP provide? (choose all that apply)a. segmentationb. optional header checksumc. identification of source and destination port addresseesd. explicit transmission of acknowledgmente. reassembly

A

b. optional header checksumc. id of source and destination port addresses

84
Q

how many bytes are in a UDP header?

A

a. 8

85
Q

What range of addresses traditionally defines a well-known port address?

A

0-1023

86
Q

What range of addresses corresponds to the registered port numbers?

A

1024-49151

87
Q

What range of addresses corresponds to the dynamic port numbers?

A

49152-65535

88
Q

Identical UDP and TCP port numbers always map to the same TCP/IP protocol or service. True or False?

A

false, usually but not always

89
Q

An acknowlegement is tantamount to a positive response, indicating that a set of data arrived at it’s destination. True or false

A

True

90
Q

What does TCP use to track the transfer of data and it’s successful delivery? (choose all that apply)a. logical connection between peersb. acknowledgementsc. sequence numbersd. retry mechanism

A

b. acknowledgementsc. sequence numbers

91
Q

what makes TCP preferable for reliable delivery requirements?a. sequencingb. error recoveryc. end to end reliabilityd. use of the handshake process

A

c. end to end reliability

92
Q

The name of the TCP process used to maintain an active connection between peers is called _________a. TCP startup connectionb. TCP connection terminationc. Keep-alived. congestion control

A

c. keep-alive

93
Q

How many steps occur in the TCP hanshake process?

A

Three

94
Q

Which of the following statements best defines a half-open connection?a. The handshake process does not end with a final SYN.b. The handshake process does not end with a final ACK.c. The handshake process does not end with a final FIN.d. The handshake process does not end with a final RST

A

b. the handshake process does not end with a final ACK

95
Q

TCP keep-alives are enabled by default on Windows 2000 and XP. True or False

A

false

96
Q

What is the proper response to a TCP connection termination?a. Host 1 sends a TCP packet with no data, with FIN and ACK flags set.b. Host 2 sends a TCP packets with no data, with FIN and ACK flags set.c. Host 2 sends an ACK to respond, followed by a TCP packet with no data and FIN and ACK flags set.d. Host 1 returns an ACK response.

A

d. Host 1 returns an ACK response.

97
Q

TCP acknowledgments include sequence numbers to indicate what was received. True of false?

A

False

98
Q

Which of the following mechanisms is part of TCP’s error-detection and error-recovery capabilities?a. Sequencing and reassemblyb. retransmission timerc. explicit acknowledgmentd. Congestion control

A

b. retransmission timer the value is the RTO (retransmission timeout)

99
Q

The current TCP window size is always the greater of what the network and the receiver can handle at any given moment. True or false

A

true

100
Q

Where is TCP data stored when it is received?a. on the receiver’s network interface cardb. inside the TCP windowc. in the TCP buffer aread. inside the network window

A

c. in the TCP buffer area

101
Q

What is the initial size of the TCP congestion window?a. twice the maximum receiver buffer sizeb. twice the MTU sizec. twice the sender’s MSSd. twice the receiver’s MSS

A

c. twice the sender’s MSS

102
Q

What sequence of events signals the TCP Fast recovery process?a. duplicate ACKsb. Three sets of duplicate ACKSc. duplicate FINsd. three duplicate FINs

A

b. Three sets of duplicate ACKS

103
Q

Which of the statements define the edges of the TCP sliding window mechanism? (choose both correct answers)a. acknowledged data plus the receiver’s window sizeb. all data that was receivedc. all data pending transmissiond. all data that was acknowleged

A

a. acknowledged data plus the receiver’s window sizeb. all data that was receivednot sure on this one…

104
Q

Which of the following values are valid TCP Flag settings? (choose all that apply)a. SYNb. ACKc. NULd. FINe. PSH

A

a. SYNb. ACKd. FINe. PSH (push

105
Q

Protocol 17

A

UDP

106
Q

Protocol 06

A

TCP

107
Q

UDP port 53

A

DNS

108
Q

UDP port 161

A

SNMP

109
Q

UDP port 69

A

TFTP

110
Q

UDP port 520

A

RIP

111
Q

UDP port 67 + 68

A

DHCP

112
Q

TCP port 53

A

DNS

113
Q

TCP port 21

A

FTP

114
Q

TCP port 23

A

Telnet

115
Q

TCP port 80

A

HTTP

116
Q

TCP port 110

A

POP3

117
Q

TYPE 0800

A

IPv4

118
Q

________is the overloading of the network or a receiver.

A

congestion

119
Q

_________is a management method for data transmission used to determine the amount of unacknowledged data that can go out on the wire from any sender

A

sliding window mechanism

120
Q

TCP header size

A

at least 20 bytes

121
Q

TCP header fields

A

Source port Destination portsequence numberacknowledgment numberheader lengthflagsWindow sizeTCP checksumUrgent pointTCP options

122
Q

TCP flags field settings

A

URGACKPSHresetSYNFIN

123
Q

ICMP fields

A

TypeCodeChecksum

124
Q

______means to point out another path.

A

redirect

125
Q

The route a packet can take through the network.

A

path

126
Q

What kind of message architecture supports all TCP/IP application layer protocols and services?a. Client/serverb. peer-to-peerc. request/replyd. push-pull

A

c. request/reply

127
Q

When the TCP/IP host that initiats contact with another TCP/IP host nearly always makes requests, and the contacted host invariably reponds to those requests, what kind of relationship exists between those host for that service?a. Client/serverb. peer-to-peerc. request/replyd. push-pull

A

a. client/server

128
Q

When a TCP/IP host can initiate contact with another TCP/IP host to make a request for service, but the other host can turn around and do the same thing, what kind of relationship exsits between those hosts for that service? a. Client/serverb. peer-to-peerc. request/replyd. push-pull

A

b. peer-to-peer

129
Q

When two servers want to exchange data, and the sending host originates the transfer of data to the receiver, what is this kind of transfer operation called?a. pullb. pushc. push-pulld. store and forward

A

b. push

130
Q

When two servers can exchange data, and the sender initiates transfer to the receiver once data changes occur, but the receiver periodically initiates transfers, what is this kind of transfer called?a. pullb. pushc. push-pulld. store and forward

A

c. push-pull

131
Q

Which two advantages are derived immediately when replicating data across multiple servers?a. backup and recoveryb. availabilityc. redundancyd. robustness

A

b. availabilityd. robustness

132
Q

Which form of FTP client operates as a popular, standalone software application?a. command-line FTP programc. embedded FTP codec. Web-based FTP accessd. graphical FTP program

A

d. graphical FTP program

133
Q

Which software component on an FTP server handles incoming user commands?a. command interpreterb. protocol interpreterc. runtime libraryd. user interface

A

b. protocol interpreter

134
Q

Telnet supports only unidirectional, byte-oriented communications. True or false?

A

false

135
Q

Telnet passes account names and passwords in clear text from the local host to the remote host. True or False?

A

true

136
Q

Which of the following statements best describes the sender-SMTP process?a. sends reply codes, including responses to codes and mail messages sentb. forwards e-mail messages from one server to anotherc. sends mail commands and mail messagesd. tracks delivery and reception of all mail messages sent.

A

c. sends mail commands and mail messages

137
Q

Which of the following statements best describes the receiver-SMTP process?a. sends responses to all mail messages received.b. sends reply codes, including responses to codes and mail messages sent.c. forwards e-mail messages from one server to anotherd. sends mail commands and mail messages

A

b. sends reply codes, including responses to codes and mail messages sent.

138
Q

A store and forward email system stores all inbound messages destined for local clients and forwards all inbound messages destined for clients on other email servers. True or False?

A

True

139
Q

The generic named used to identify a Web resource is a:a. Uniform Resource locator (URL)b. Uniform Resource Name (URN)c. Uniform Resource Identifier(URI)d. Universal Naming convention(UNC)

A

c. Uniform Resource Identifier (URI)

140
Q

The abbreviation for the secure implementation of HTTP is called:a. SHTTPb. HTTPSc. SSLd. SSH

A

b. HTTPS

141
Q

Which of the following ongoing connections does FTP maintain during an active session? (Choose all that apply)a. session connectionb. client connectionc. command connection (port 21)d. server connectione. data connection (port 20)

A

c. command connectione. data connection

142
Q

Which of the following basic TCP/IP services responds to a service request with an arbitrary stream of characters?a. Fingerb. echoc. chargend. QODe. whois

A

c. chargen

143
Q

Which of the following basic TCP/IP services can provide information about registered domain names?a. Fingerb. echoc. chargend. QODe. whois

A

e. Whois

144
Q

Which of the following basic TCP?IP utilities is not included in Simple TCP/IP Services in windows 2000 and Windows XP?a. Echob. Chargenc. QODd. Whois

A

a. echob. chargen

145
Q

Why is Finger so soldom available to users of most internet servers?a. It’s no longer neededb. it’s no longer popularc. it proved to be vulnerable to security exploitsd. The term has an unpleasant connotation under some circumstances

A

c. it proved to be vulnerable to security exploits

146
Q

RPC provides a standard mechanism to create custom distributed applications over TCP/IP. True/False?

A

True

147
Q

An SNMP agent must be present on a host or device for it to report to a remote management console. True or false?

A

True

148
Q

NetBIOS over TCP/IP is required on any networks that include versions of Windows older than Windows 2000, no matter what protocols are in use. True or False?

A

false

149
Q

Which of the following statements best explains the importance of data offset values when decoding Application layer protocols?a. Those values pinpoint the location of key fields, such as application layer header information.b. Those values allow the contents of the payload to be inspected at will.c. Those values determine where key fields start and stopd. Those values determine how the Application layer payload should be interpreted.

A

c. Those values determine where key fields start and stop

150
Q

File with information on DNS root servers, that should be pre-loaded on any DNS server.

A

named.root

151
Q

What method of name resolution was used on the internet prior to the introduction of DNS?a. dynamic name resolutionb. static name resolutionc. active name resolutiond. passive name resolution

A

b. static name resolution

152
Q

What is the name of the file that contains name-to-IP address mapping information for Windows and Linux?a. LMHOSTSb. ZONEINFOc. ROOT.dnsd. HOSTS

A

d. Hosts

153
Q

What is the name of the most widely used DNS server implementation on the internet today?a. EasyDNSb. BINDc. WinDNSd. JEEVES

A

b. BIND (berkeley INternet Name Domain)

154
Q

Which of the following characterize valid aspects of DNS? (choose all that apply)a. local control over domain name database segmentsb. designation of optional primary name servers and mandatory secondary name serversc. data from all database segments, available everywhered. highly robust and available database informatione. requires implementation of a relational database management system, such as oracle or sybase

A

a. local control over domain name database segmentsc. data from all database segments, available everywhered. highly robust and available database information

155
Q

in the domain name hierarchy, all domains meet at the root. True or false?

A

True

156
Q

Top-level domain names include two- and three-letter country codes, as well as organizational codes, such as .com, .edu, and .org. True or false?

A

true

157
Q

What is the process whereby a DNS server higher in the domain name hierarchy confers responsibility for portions of the global DNS database to DNS servers lower in its hierarchy?a. subordination of authorityb. database consolidationc. delegation of authorityd. database segmentation

A

c. delegation of authority

158
Q

Which DNS resource records allow use of the FQDNs for domain names? (choose all the apply)a. Ab. SOAc. PTRd. MXe. all of the above

A

a. Ac. PTR

159
Q

Which DNS resource record is used to create aliases for domain names?a. Ab. SOA.c. PTRd. MXe. CNAME

A

e. CNAME

160
Q

Which DNS resource record appears at the beginning of every DNS file?a. Ab. SOA.c. PTRd. MXe. CNAME

A

b. SOA

161
Q

Which DNS resource record enable inverse lookups (also known as revers DNS lookups)?a. Ab. SOA.c. PTRd. MXe. CNAME

A

c. PTR

162
Q

Which DNS resource record maps domain names to IP addresses?a. Ab. SOA.c. PTRd. MXe. CNAME

A

a. A

163
Q

Any type of DNS server also can be a caching-only server. True of False?

A

True

164
Q

What is the minimum and maximum number of primary database servers allowed in any single DNS database zone?a. 1b. 2c. 4d. 8e. 16

A

a. 1

165
Q

It is mandatory to have one or more secondary DNS servers for any DNS database zone. True or False?

A

true

166
Q

What size or type of organizations are likely to benefit from a caching-only DNS server? (choose all that apply)a. smallb. mediumc. larged. service provider

A

c. larged. service provider

167
Q

What kinds of data are most likely to show up in a response to a DNS query of any kind?a. address forwarding instructionsb. DNS resource recordsc. address impersonation alertsd. error messages

A

b. DNS resource recordsd. error messages

168
Q

Which of the following query sequences represents a typical DNS lookup?a. iterative, then recursiveb. recursive, then iterativec. static then dynamicd. dynamic, then static

A

b. recursive, then iterative

169
Q

Why do “all DNS queries end at the root?”a. The root maintains a copy of the global DNS databaseb. The root can access any and all authoritative name servers for any database segmentc. Any DNS server can access the root at any timed. Multiple root servers prevent the root of domain name hierarchy from becoming bogged down with requests

A

b. the root can access any and all authoritative name servers for any database segment

170
Q

When using NSLOOKUP, an authoritative response is:a. explicitly labeled as suchb. available only if the authoritative name server is explicitly targeted for lookupc. available only by request, using the ‘a optiond. implied by the absence of “non-authoritative response” in the reply.

A

d. implied by the absence of “non-authoritative response” in the reply

171
Q

It is necessary to add resource records for the DNS root servers to the cache of any DNS server during initial configuration and setup. True of false?

A

true

172
Q

One common name for presenting a false IP address or domain name when attempting illicit system entry or communications is;a. IP masqueradingb. IP impersonationc. IP spoofingd. False IP credentials

A

c. IP spoofing

173
Q

Because it is a predefined domain name and address pair, it is not necessary to create DNS files for the localhost and the loopback addresses 127.0.0.0 and 127.0.0.1. True of false

A

True

TSM 343 (4 decks)

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