Final Exam Flashcards
What is used as initial antihypertensive therapy in the elderly
Low-Dose Diuretic therapy
What is the first line drug of choice in treating elderly patients who present with isolated systolic hypertension
- long-acting calcium channel blocker
is the development of incontinence considered to be a normal part of aging?
No
What are the 4 main causes of acute urinary incontinence?
- Delirium
- Restricted mobility
- Infection, inflammation or impaction
- Pharmaceuticals
What is the most common cause of acute urinary incontinence?
bladder infection
Acute onset of incontinence in a patient with aknown or suspected malignancy is what?.
a medical emergency
What is the triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH).
acute urinary incontinence, acute or sub-acute dementia and wide based gait
What is the most common form of chronic incontinence in the geriatric population.
Urge incontinence
How do you work up hematuria?
- 3 s’s
- Scope
- Cytology (collect first morning void)—> rules out renal cell carcinoma
- Sonogram (ultrasound bladder and kidney)
What should be practiced in all cases of incontinence?
Kegel exercises
What is contraindicated in the use of anticholinergics?
acute angle glaucoma
The risk of falling increases with what?
increased chronic disability.
By the year 2030, it is estimated that what?
22% or 70.2 million Americans will be older then age 65.
The average life expectancy for men is?
approximately 7 years less at 72.7 years.
Why do we age?
The simple answer is: We don’t know. Multiple theories on aging abound, including, but not limited to: The cellular “supply limits” theory The free radical damage theory The autoimmune theory The programmable cell death theory The telomere length theory
The cellular supply theory of aging looks at what?
the decreased supply of nutrients to cells and tissues due to diminished blood flow into and out of cells.
Programmable cell death theory of aging suggest what about thesesignals?
These signals either induce or suppress apoptosis
SSRI’s lead to what nutrient and vitamin deficiency?
deplete the B vitamins B6, B12 and folic acid.
PPI’s and H-2 blockers deplete levels of what?
B12, calcium, iron, magnesium
Metformin leads to what deficiency?
B12 deficiency
Statins lead to what deficiency?
Coenzyme Q10
Birth control Pills lead to what deficiency?
B5, B6, B12
SIezure meds lead to what deficiency?
folic acid
What is a major anatomical change of aging
Kyphosis is increased, especially in females. There is a slight bending (flexion) at the knees and hips which leads to a shortened stature.
What is the most common eye change in the elderly?
Visual acuity is often decreased and adaptation to both darkness and accommodation is often impaired.
Increased minimal threshold of light perception results in what?
difficulty seeing in dim light.
The formation of what is a common cause in for reduced vision and lessened visual acuity in settings of diminished light?
The formation of cataracts is another common cause
Which diseases of the eye cause central vision loss and which cause peripheral?
look up
When is chronic glaucoma a risk?
uncommon below the age of 40 but affects ~1 %of the population aged 40 to 65 and ~5 % of individuals over age 65.
How should you speak to patients with hearing loss?
It may benefit you to speak in a lower pitched voice to your patients who are hard of hearing rather than speaking more loudly
What deficiency plays a role in diminished taste?
zinc
How many vertebral fractures occur annually due to osteoporosis
700,000
What does secondary Osteoporosis imply?
Decreased bone mass is due to other conditions, medications, malabsorption or prolonged immobilization.
What conditions result in an increased risk for osteoporosis?
Hyperthyroidism Excess Supplemental Thyroid Cushing's disease Glucocorticoid use Hyperparathyroidism
What is the T Score for
Normal bone health
T-score >-1
What is the T Score for
Osteopenia
T-Score Between -1 and -2.5
What is the T Score for
Osteoporosis
T- Schore < -2.5
When is prophylactic treatment for osteoporosis began
When Dexa Scan revelals:
T-Score < -2.0
T-Score <1.5 in patients with known risk factors for osteoporosis