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Final Exam 500 ?'s Flashcards

1
Q
  1. All of the following Left Ventricular wall segments may be evaluated in the parasternal long-axis view EXCEPT:

A. Basal anterior interventricular septum
B. Mid-anterior interventricular septum
C. Basal inferolateral wall
D. cardiac apex

A

D. cardiac apex

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2
Q
  1. All of following left ventricular wall segments may be evaluated in the parasternal short axis of the left ventricle at the level of the papillary muscles EXCEPT:

A. Anterior IVS
B. Anterior Wall
C. Anterolateral Wall
D. Cardiac Apex

A

D. Cardiac Apex

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3
Q
  1. All of the following wall segments may be visualized in the apical 4 chamber view EXCEPT:

A. Anterolateral Wall
B. Cardiac Apex
C. Anterior IVS
D. Lateral Wall of the RV

A

C. Anterior IVS

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4
Q
  1. All of the following wall segments may be visualized in the apical 2 chamber view EXCEPT:

A. Anterior Wall
B. Cardiac Apex
C. Inferior Wall
D. RVOT

A

D. RVOT

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5
Q
  1. The Crista Terminalis is found in the:

A. RA
B. LA
C. RV
D. LV

A

A. RA

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6
Q
  1. All of the following structures are located in the RA EXCEPT:

A. Eustachian Valve
B. Crista Terminalis
C. Thebesian Valve
D. Moderator Band

A

D. Moderator Band

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7
Q
  1. The moderator band is always located in the:

A. RA
B. LA
C. RV
D. LV

A

C. RV

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8
Q
  1. All of the following are true statements concerning the RV EXCEPT:

A. Heavily Trabeculated
B. Normal wall thickness is 0.3 to 0.5 cm
C. Normally forms the cardiac apex
D. Most anterior positioned cardiac chamber

A

C. Normally forms the cardiac apex

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9
Q
  1. All of the following are true statements concerning the LV EXCEPT:

A. Bullet shaped (Truncated ellipsoid)
B. Heavily Trabeculated
C. Top normal thickness is approximatels 1.0 cm
D. Contains two papillary muscle groups

A

B. Heavily Trabeculated

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10
Q
  1. The potential Space behind the left atrium where pericardial effusion could accumulate is the:

A. Sinus of Valsalva
B. Pleural potential space
C. Oblique Sinus
D. Transverse sinus

A

C. Oblique Sinus

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11
Q
  1. Increasing the pulsed wave doppler sample gate length will result in:

A. Increased peak velocity
B. Increased spectral broadening
C. Better determination of laminar flow
D. lower frame rates

A

B. Increased spectral broadening

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12
Q
  1. The sonographer may avoid PW doppler aliasing by all of the following techniques EXCEPT:

A. Increase the velocity scale
B. decrease the doppler transmit gain
C. Decrease image depth
D. Shift the zero baseline

A

B. Decrease the doppler transmit gain

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13
Q
  1. Which instrument control directly affects the dynamic range:

A. Transmit gain
B. TGC
C. Compression
D. image depth

A

C. Compression

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14
Q
  1. The image artifact associated with displaying double images of a structure due to the change in the direction of the sound beam is called:

A. Reverberation
B. Refraction
C. Acoustic shadowing
D. Range ambiguity

A

B. Refraction

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15
Q
  1. Agitated saline contrast may be used to evaluate all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Aortic regurg
B. Left to right ASD
C. TR
D, Patent foramen ovale

A

A. AR

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16
Q
  1. A maneuver which results in the decrease in venous return is:

A. Inspiration
B. Squatting
C. Straight leg raising
D. Valsalva

A

D. Valsalva

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17
Q
  1. The three two-D planes used to examine the heart with transthoracic echo are:

A. Parasternal, apical, subcostal
B. Long axis, short axis, 5 chamber
C. long axis, short axis, apical
D. Long axis, short axis, 4 chamber

A

D, Long axis, short axis, 4 chamber

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18
Q
  1. The measurement of the LVOT diameter during early ventricular systole is an important measurement in all of the following calculations EXCEPT:

A. SV
B. AVA
C. MVA
D. RVSP

A

RVSP.

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19
Q
  1. The preferred 2D view for determining the presence of bicuspid aortic valve is:

A. PLAX
B. PSAX AOV
C. Apical 5 chamber
D. Apical long axis

A

B. PSAX AOV

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20
Q
  1. All of the following may be evaluated with cardiac doppler in the apical 5 chamber view EXCEPT:

A. Valvular aortic stenosis
B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
C. Discrete subaortic stenosis
D. Patent foramen ovale

A

D. Patent foramen ovale

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21
Q
  1. Conditions that may lead to clinical symptoms that mimic those with rheumatic mitral stenosis include:

A. Aortic Stenosis
B. Left Atrial myxoma
C. Pericaridal Effusion
D. Ventricular septal defect

A

B. Left atrial Myxoma

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22
Q
  1. The equation used in the cardiac catheterization laboratory to determine mitral valve area is the:

A. Gorlin
B. Bernoulli
C. Doppler
D. Continuity

A

A. Gorlin

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23
Q
  1. A strong indication for mitral stenosis on two-dimensional echocardiography is an anterior mitral valve leaflet that exhibits:

A. Coarse, chaotic diastolic motion
B. Diastolic doming
C. REverse doming
D. Systolic bowing

A

B. Diastolic doming

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24
Q
  1. Two-dimensional echocardiographic findings for rheumatic mitral stenosis include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Hockey-stick appearance of the anterior MV leaflet
B. Increased left atrial dimension
C. Reverse doming of the anterior MV leaflet
D. Thickened MV leaflets and subvalvular apparatus

A

C. Reverse doming of the anterior MV leaflet

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25
Q
  1. Critical mitral valve stenosis is said to be present if the mitral valve area is reduced to:

A.

A

A.

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26
Q
  1. A deceleration time of 800 msec was obtained by CW Doppler in a patient with rheumatic mtiral valve stenosis. The pressure half-time is:

A. 220 msec
B. 232 msec
C. 400 msec
D. 800 msec

A

B. 232 msec

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27
Q
  1. The classic description of the murmur of chronic mitral regurgitation is:

A. Holosystolic murmur heard best at the apex radiating to the axilla
B. Continuous machinery-like murmur
C. Systolic ejection murmur heard best at the right upper sternal border
D. Diastolic decrescendo murmur heard best at the left sternal border

A

A. Holosystolic murmur heard best at the apex radiating to the axilla

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28
Q
  1. Cardiac magnetic resonance imaging provides all of the following information in the evaluation of MR EXCEPT:

A. Regurgitant volume
B. Left ventricular volumes
C. Detailed visualization of the MV apparatus
D. Left ventricular mass

A

C. Detailed visualization of the MV apparatus

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29
Q
  1. In patients with significant MR, the CW Doppler tracing of the regurgitate lesion may demonstrate a(n):

A. Asymmetrical shape of the MR flow velocity spectral display
B. Jet area of

A

A. Asymmetrical shape of the MR flow velocity spectral display

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30
Q
  1. A color flow Doppler method for semi-quantitating MR is regurgitant jet:

A. Area
B. Height
C. Length
D. Turbulence

A

A. Area

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31
Q
  1. All of the following are true statements concerning MR EXCEPT:

A. MR may be acute, chronic or intermittent
B. MR may result in an increase in preload
C. Severity of MR is not affected by afterload
D. Regurgitant jet area, vena contracts width and proximal isovelocity surface area are recommended when determining severity

A

C. Severity of MR is not affected by afterload

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32
Q
  1. The complications of MVP include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Increased risk of infective endocarditis
B. Significant MR
C. MV repair and replacement
D. Valvular stenosis

A

D. Valvular stenosis

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33
Q
  1. A key word that is often used to describe the characteristics of the valve leaflets in MVP is:

A. Dense
B. Doming
C. Redundant
D. Sclerotic

A

C. Redundant

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34
Q
  1. MV chordal rupture usually results in:

A. Aortic regurgitation
B. Mitral regurgitation
C. Pulmonary regurgitation
D. Tricuspid regurgitation

A

B. Mitral regurgitation

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35
Q
  1. The etiology of aortic valve stenosis includes all the following EXCEPT:

A. Bacterial
B. Congenital
C. Degenerative
D. Rheumatic

A

A. Bacterial

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36
Q
  1. The murmur of aortic stenosis is described as:

A. Holosystolic murmur heard best at the cardiac apex
B. Holodiastolic decrescendo murmur heard best at the right sternal border
C. Systolic ejection murmur hear best at the right upper sternal border
D. Diastolic rumble

A

C. Systolic ejection murmur heard best at the right upper sternal border

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37
Q
  1. The pulse that is characteristic of significant valvular aortic stenosis is:

A. Pulsus alternans
B. Pulsus bisferiens
C. Pulsus paradoxus
D. Pulsus parvus et tardus

A

D. Pulsus parvus et tardus

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38
Q
  1. The aortic valve area considered critical aortic valve stenosis is:

A.

A

D. Less than/or equal to 0.75 cm squared

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39
Q
  1. The formula used to determine aortic valve area in the cardiac catheterization laboratory is the:

A. Bernoulli equation
B. Continuity equation
C. Doppler equation
D. Gorlin equation

A

D. Gorlin equation

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40
Q
  1. Pathologies that may result in a left ventricular pressure overload include all the following EXCEPT:

A. Discrete subaortic stenosis
B. MV stenosis
C. Systemic hypertension
D. Valvular aortic stenosis

A

B. MV stenosis

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41
Q
  1. The characteristic M-mode findings for aortic valve stenosis include all the following EXCEPT:

A. A lack of systolic flutter of the aortic valve leaflets
B. Diastolic flutter of the aortic valve leaflets
C. Reduced leaflet separation in systole
D. Thickening of the aortic valve leaflets

A

B. Diastolic flutter of the aortic valve leaflets

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42
Q
  1. Secondary echocardiograph if findings associated with severe valvular aortic stenosis include all the following EXCEPT:

A. Decreased left ventricular systolic function (late in course)
B. Left ventricular hypertrophy
C. Post-stenotic dilatation of the ascending aorta
D. Right ventricular hypertrophy

A

D. Right ventricular hypertrophy

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43
Q
  1. Cardiac Doppler parameters used to assess the severity of valvular aortic stenosis include all the following EXCEPT:

A. Aortic pressure half-time
B. Aortic velocity ratio
C. Mean pressure gradient
D. Peak aortic valve velocity

A

A. Aortic pressure half-time

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44
Q
  1. The echocardiographer may differentiate between the similar systolic flow patterns seen in coexisting severe aortic valve stenosis and MR by all the following EXCEPT:

A. Aortic ejection time is shorter than the MR time
B. MR flow always lasts until mitral valve opening, whereas aortic valve stenosis flow does not
C. Mitral diastolic filling profile should be present during recording of the MR, whereas no diastolic flow is observed in aortic valve stenosis
D. Since both are systolic flow patterns, it is not possible to separate MR from AS

A

D. Since both are systolic flow patterns, it is not possible to separate MR from AS

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45
Q
  1. All of the following are two-dimensional echocardiography findings in a patient with significant chronic AR EXCEPT:

A. Left atrial enlargement
B. Abnormal aortic valve or aortic root
C. Left ventricular enlargement
D. Hyperkinetic left ventricular wall motion

A

A. Left atrial enlargement

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46
Q
  1. Echocardiographic evidence of severe acute AR includes all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Premature closure of the MV
B. Premature opening of the aortic valve
C. Premature opening of the MV
D. Reverse doming of the anterior MV leaflet

A

C. Premature opening of the MV

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47
Q
  1. Holodiastolic flow reversal in the descending thoracic aorta and/or the abdominal aorta may be present in each of the following EXCEPT:

A. Severe AR
B. Severe MR
C. Patent ductus arteriosus
D. Aortopulmonary window

A

B. Severe MR

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48
Q
  1. Causes of anatomic TR include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Carcinoid heart disease
B. Ebstein’s anomaly
C. Infective endocarditis
D. Pulmonary hypertension

A

D. Pulmonary hypertension

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49
Q
  1. The murmur of TR is best described as a:

A. Holodiastolic murmur heard best at the lower left sternal border
B. Pansystolic murmur heard best at the lower left sternal border
C. Pansystolic murmur heard best at the cardiac apex with radiation to the Scilla
D. Systolic ejection murmur heard best at the upper right sternal border

A

B. Pan systolic murmur heard best at the lower left sternal border

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50
Q
  1. A TR peak velocity of 3.0 m/s is obtained. This indicates:

A. Mild TR
B. Moderate TR
C. Severe TR
D. Pulmonary hypertension

A

D. Pulmonary hypertension

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51
Q
  1. All of the following color flow Doppler findings indicate significant pulmonary regurgitation EXCEPT:

A. Wide jet width at origin
B. Jet width/right ventricular outflow tract width >70%
C. Holodiastolic flow reversal in the main pulmonary artery
D. Peak velocity of

A

D. Peak velocity of

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52
Q
  1. The most common symptom of infective endocarditis is:

A. Chest pain
B. Dyspnea
C. Orthopnea
D. Fever

A

D. Fever

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53
Q
  1. A patient with a history of intravenous drug abuse presents to the echo lab with complaints of fever, night sweats and weight loss. The most likely explanation is:

A. Congestive heart failure
B. Coronary artery disease
C. Infective endocarditis
D. Kawasaki disease

A

C. Infective endocarditis

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54
Q
  1. The classic manifestation of infective endocarditis is cardiac valve:

A. Vegetation
B. Doming
C. Sclerosis
D. Tumor

A

A. Vegetation

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55
Q
  1. The usual site of attachment for vegetation a on the MV and TV is the:

A. Annulus
B. Atrial side of the valve leaflets
C. Papillary muscles
D. Ventricular surface of the valve leaflets

A

B. Atrial side of the valve leaflets

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56
Q
  1. Which two cardiac valves need to be evaluated carefully in a patient with the Ross procedure?

A. MV and TV
B. AoV and PV
C. MV and AoV
D. AoV and TV

A

B. AoV and PV

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57
Q
  1. The primary disadvantage of the mechanical valve is:

A. Dehiscence
B. Pannus ingrowth
C. Thrombogenicity
D. Durability

A

C. Thrombogenicity

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58
Q
  1. The most common ball and cage valve is the:

A. Start-Edwards
B. Omniscience
C. St. Jude
D. Medtronic-Hall

A

A. Starr-Edwards

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59
Q
  1. The most common bileaflet tilting disc valve is the:

A. St. Jude
B. Starr-Edwards
C. Medtronic-Hall
D. Omniscience

A

A. St. Jude

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60
Q
  1. All of the following should be determined when evaluating a prosthetic valve with cardiac Doppler EXCEPT:

A. Peak velocity
B. Mean pressure gradient
C. Effective office area
D. Shunt ratio

A

D. Shunt ratio

61
Q
  1. Cardiac Doppler evaluation of a prosthetic MV should include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Effective orifice area
B. Peak MV “A” wave velocity
C. Peak and mean pressure gradients
D. Pressure half-time

A

B. Peak MV “A” wave velocity

62
Q
  1. The determination of prosthetic MR and prosthetic TR is made difficult by the artifact called:

A. Slice thickness
B. Shadowing
C. Mirroring
D. Enhancement

A

B. Shadowing

63
Q
  1. All of the following are true statements concerning prosthetic valves EXCEPT:

A. A baseline study should be optioned post-surgery
B. Velocities depend upon the size and type of prosthetic valve
C. Prosthetic valve peak velocities are generally higher as compared to normal native valves
D. Prosthetic valve regurgitation is always abnormal

A

D. Prosthetic valve regurgitation is always abnormal

64
Q
  1. The most common presenting symptom of acute pericarditis is:

A. Chest pain
B. Cachexia
C. Hemoptysis
D. Fatigue

A

A. Chest pain

65
Q
  1. All of the following are associated findings for pericarditis EXCEPT:

A. Pericardial friction rub
B. Pericardial effusion by echo
C. Fever
D. Tachycardia

A

B. Pericardial effusion by echo

66
Q
  1. A posterior echo-free space is detected during the systolic phase only by M-mode/two-dimensional echo. This is considered a:

A. Normal finding
B. Small pericardial effusion
C. Moderate pericardial effusion
D. Large pericardial effusion

A

A. Normal finding

67
Q
  1. An anterior clear space is noted in the PLAX view. The diagnosis is most likely:

A. Adipose tissue
B. Pericardial effusion
C. Cardiac tamponade
D. Constrictive pericardits

A

A. Adipose tissue

68
Q
  1. The pulse associated with cardiac tamponade is:

A. Pulsus Alternans
B. Pulsus Bisfierens
C. Pulsus Paradoxus
D. Pulsus Parvus Et Tardus

A

C. Pulsus Paradoxus

69
Q
  1. PW Doppler evidence of cardiac tamponade from diastolic hepatic vein flow is:

A. Expiratory decrease
B. Expiratory increase
C. Inspiratory increase
D. Inspiratory decrease

A

A. Expiratory decrease

70
Q
  1. All of the following are possible etiologies of constrictive pericarditis EXCEPT:

A. Prior pericardiotomy
B. Tuberculosis
C. Radiation therapy to the chest region
D. Atherosclerosis

A

D. Atherosclerosis

71
Q
  1. The tissue doppler finding for constrictive pericarditis is MV annulus:

A. Increased S’ wave peak velocity
B. Normal E’ wave peak velocity
C. E’/A’ ratio reversal
D. Absent A’ wave

A

B. Normal E’ wave peak velocity

72
Q
  1. The most common location for pericardial cyst is the :

A. Hilum
B. Left costophrenic angle
C. Right costophrenic angle
D. Superior mediastinum

A

C. Right costophrenic angle

73
Q
  1. Air in the pericardial sac is known as:

A. Cardiac tamponade
B. Effusive-constrictive pericardium
C. Hemopericardium
D. Pneumopericardium

A

D, Pneumopericardium

74
Q
  1. Secondary findings associated with systemic hypertension include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Left Ventricular hypertrophy
B. Left atrial enlargement
C. Increased main pulmonary artery
D. Increased left ventricular mass

A

C. Increased main pulmonary artery

75
Q
  1. All of the following may result in secondary pulmonary hypertension EXCEPT:

A. TR
B. MS
C. Left ventricular failure
D. Coronary artery disease

76
Q
  1. M-mode findings associated with pulmonary hypertension include:

A. Absent or shallow “a” dip of the pulmonary valve
B. Deep “a” dip of the pulmonic valve
C. Paradoxical “a” dip of the pulmonic valve
D. Reverse “a” dip of the pulmonic valve

A

A. Absent of shallow “a” dip of the pulmonary valve

77
Q
  1. A two-dimensional echo finding associated with pulmonary hypertension is:

A. Atrial septal aneurysm
B. Flattening of the inter ventricular septum during ventricular systole
C. Interventricular myocardial infarction
D. Hyperkinetic interventricular septal motion

A

B. Flattening of the inter ventricular septum

78
Q
  1. M-mode findings associated with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Asymmetrical septal hypertrophy (ASH)
B. Mid-systolic notching of the aortic valve
C. Mid-systolic notching of the pulmonary valve
D. Systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve (SAM)

A

C. Mid-systolic notching of the pulmonary valve

79
Q
  1. A speckled or ground-glass appearance of the inter ventricular septum seen on 2D echo is found is:

A. Constrictive pericarditis
B. MS
C. Dilated cardiomyopathy
D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

80
Q
  1. PW doppler and color flow doppler are useful in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy in all of the following ways EXCEPT:

A. Aid in guiding the CW doppler beam
B. Determine the presence and severity of MR
C. Help distinguish LVOT flow from MR
D. Quantitate the severity of the LVOT obstruction

A

D. Quantitate the severity of the LVOT obstruction

81
Q
  1. A systolic high-velocity, late peaking, dagger-shaped CW doppler signal is obtained. The most likely diagnosis is:

A. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
B. MR
C. TR
D. Valvular aortic stenosis

A

A. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

82
Q
  1. Echo findings in dilated cardiomyopathy include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Apical mural thrombus
B. Dilated ventricular cavities
C. Enlarged atrial cavities
D. Preserved ejection fraction

A

D. Preserved ejection fraction

83
Q
  1. A common MV finding in dilated cardiomyopathy in 2D echo is:

A. Decreased E-septal separation
B. Reversed diastolic doming
C. Incomplete closure of the MV
D. Premature closure of the MV

A

C. Incomplete closure of the MV

84
Q
  1. Possible causes of restrictive cardiomyopathy include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Alcohol
B. Amyloidosis
C. Hemochromatosis
D. Sarcoidosis

A

A. Alcohol

85
Q
  1. The progressive replacement of right ventricular myocardium with fatty and fibrous tissue is called:

A. HCM
B. ARVC
C. IHSS
D. DSS

86
Q
  1. Persistent intramyocardial sinusoids located in the left ventricle are found in:

A. Dilated cardiomyopathy
B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
C. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
D. Noncompaction cardiomyopathy

A

D. Noncompaction cardiomyopathy

87
Q
  1. The formula used to determine ejection fraction is:

A. EDV-ESV
B. (EDD-ESD)/EDD x 100
C. (EDV-ESV)/EDV x 100
D. CSA x VTI

A

C. (EDV-ESV)/EDV x 100

88
Q
  1. An ejection fraction of 42% is determine with 2D echo. This indicates ____ global left ventricular systolic function.

A. Normal
B. Mildly abnormal
C. Moderately abnormal
D. Severely abnormal

A

C. Moderately abnormal

89
Q
  1. Which maneuver is most useful to use when trying to determine the presence of Grade II (pseudo normalization) or when determining between Grade III (reversible restrictive) and Grade IV (fixed restrictive):

A. Valsalva
B. Mueller
C. Leg raising
D. Squatting

A

A. Valsalva (strain phase)

90
Q
  1. A wall segment of the heart that is without systolic wall thickening is best described as:

A. Hypokinetic
B. Akinetic
C. Dyskinetic
D. Hyperkinetic

A

B. Akinetic

91
Q
  1. The echo appearance of necrotic myocardium secondary to myocardial infection includes all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Akinetic wall segment
B. Echogenic wall segment
C. Thin ventricular wall
D. Wall motion score of 1

A

D. Wall motion score of 1

92
Q
  1. The definition of stunned myocardium is:

A. Myocardium after cardiopulmonary resuscitation
B. Myocardium after electrical cardioversion
C. Myocardium that is hyperkinetic post-myocardial infarction
D. Reperfused viable myocardium that is not functioning

A

D. Reperfused viable myocardium that is not functioning

93
Q
  1. Echocardiographic findings in the post-myocardial infarction patient include:

A. MAC
B. Mural thrombus
C. Valvular stenosis
D. Ventricular septal aneurysm

A

B. Mural thombus

94
Q
  1. The infarction most commonly associated with left ventricular aneurysm is:

A. Anterior
B. Inferior
C. Lateral
D. True posterior

A

A. Anterior

95
Q
  1. The expected Doppler finding in a patient with ventricular septal rupture is:

A. Laminar low-velocity flow during diastole on the left side of the inter ventricular septum
B. Laminar high-velocity flow in diastole on the right side of the septum
C. Turbulent high-velcity flow in diastole on the right side of the septum
D. Turbulent high-velocity flow in systole on the right side of the interventricular septum

A

D. Turbulent high-velocity flow in systole on the right side of the interventricular septum

96
Q
  1. Which of the following MV flow patterns provides risk stratification post-myocardial infarction?

A. Normal for age
B. Impaired relaxation (Grade I)
C. Pseudonormal (Grade II)
D. Restrictive (Grade III-IV)

A

D. Restrictive (Grade III-IV)

97
Q
  1. The most common medication used in performing pharmacological stress echo is:

A. Dobutamine
B. Dipyridamole
C. Propranolol
D. Adenosine

A

A. Dobutamine

98
Q
  1. Patients with increased diastolic filling pressures post-exercise will demonstrate:

A. Normal mitral E/A ratio
B. E/E’ ratio > 10
C. Increased mitral deceleration time
D. Normal TR peak velocity

A

B. E/E’ ratio > 10

99
Q
  1. The most common primary benign intracardiac tumor found in children is:

A. Myxoma
B. Papilloma
C. Rhabdomyosarcoma
D. Rhabdomyoma

A

D. Rhabdomyoma

100
Q
  1. A dumbell-shaped configuration of the inter-atrial septum is associated with:

A. Amyloidosis
B. Lipomatous hypertrophy
C. Sarcoidosis
D. Sarcoma

A

B. Lipomatous hypertrophy

101
Q
  1. The most common primary malignant intracardiac tumor in adults is the:

A. Myxoma
B. Paillary fibroelastoma
C. Angiosarcoma
D. Fibroma

A

C. Angiosarcoma

102
Q
  1. All of the following are expected echo/doppler finding in the elderly EXCEPT:

A. MAC
B. Aortic Valve Sclerosis
C. Mild left atrial dilatation
D. Mitral valve E/A ratio of 1.5

A

D. Mitral valve E/A ratio of 1.5

103
Q
  1. All of the following are findings for ankylosing spondylitis EXCEPT:

A. Dilatation of the aortic annulus
B. Dilatation of the sinuses of Valsalva
C. Thickened aortic valve leaflets with aortic regurgitation
D. Acute myocardial infarction

A

D. Acute myocardial infarction

104
Q
  1. All of the following are expected echo/Doppler findings for atrial fibrillation EXCEPT:

A. Normal mitral valve E/A ratio
B. Biatrial dilatation
C. Reduced left atria appendage peak velocity
D. Pulmonary vein absent atrial reversal wave

A

A. Normal mitral valve E/A ratio

105
Q
  1. Which of the following mitral valve PW doppler parameters suggests increased left heart filling pressures in a patient with atrial fibrillation?

A. Decreased mitral valve E velocity
B. Reduced mitral valve deceleration time (

A

B. Reduced mitral valve deceleration time (

106
Q
  1. A left atrial volume is determined to be 44 ml/m(squared). The left atrium is:

A. Normal
B. Enlarged
C. Hyperdynamic
D. Thrombosed

A

B. Enlarged

107
Q
  1. A membrane is visualized in the left atrium and appears to be superior to the fossa ovals. This finding suggests:

A. Mitral Stenosis
B. Supravalvular Mitral ring
C. Cor triatriatum
D. Tetralogy of Fallot

A

C. Cor triatriatum

108
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most likely finding in Chagas disease?

A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
B. Mitral stenosis
C. Dilated Cardiomyopathy
D. Aortic stenosis

A

C. Dilated cardiomyopathy

109
Q
  1. The echo/Doppler findings for diabetes include:

A. Dilated cardiomyopathy
B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
C. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
D. Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy

A

A. Dilated cardiomyopathy

110
Q
  1. All of the following are possible echo/Doppler findings for Ehlers-Danlos EXCEPT:

A. Ascending aortic aneurysm
B. Valvular prolapse
C. Mitral stenosis
D. Ventricular septal defect

A

C. Mitral stenosis

111
Q
  1. Rupture of the vasa vasorum into the media of the aortic wall may result in:

A. Aortic aneurysm
B. Supravalvular aortic stenosis
C. Intramural hematoma
D. Coarctation of the aorta

A

C. Intramural hematoma

112
Q
  1. The classic echocardiographic findings for Noonan syndrome is:

A. Ventricular septal defect
B. Dysplastic pulmonary valve
C. Bicuspid aortic valve
D. Dilated cardiomyopathy

A

B. Dysplastic pulmonary valve

113
Q
  1. Osler-Weber-Rendu disease is associated with pulmonary arteriovenous fistula. The preferred echo/Doppler technique to determine the presence of this finding is:

A. M-mode
B. 2D
C. Color flow Doppler
D. Agitated saline contrast

A

D. Agitated saline contrast

114
Q
  1. All of the following are most likely to mimic the findings of mitral stenosis EXCEPT:

A. Left atrial myxoma
B. Cor triatriatum
C. Parachute mitral valve
D. Infective endocarditis

A

D. Infective endocarditis

115
Q
  1. Penetrating aortic ulcer is considered to be:

A. Congenital
B. Idiopathic
C. Aortic dissection
D. Aortopulmonary window

A

C. Aortic dissection

116
Q
  1. A dilated coronary sinus is visualized in the PLAX. An agitated saline contrast study is performed and contrast is noted to appear in the coronary sinus before entering the right atrium. The diagnosis is most likely:

A. Normal
B. Persistent left superior vena cava
C. Patent forman ovale
D. Inlet ventricular septal defect

A

B. Persistent left superior vena cava

117
Q
  1. An aortic arteritis associated with marked intimal proliferation and fibrous scarring is:

A. Libman-Sacks
B. Takayasu’s disease
C. Shone’s complex
D. Marfan’s syndrome

A

B. Takayasu’s disease

118
Q
  1. The principal echo feature of left bundle branch block is:

A. early systolic dip of the inter ventricular septum
B. Hyperkinesis of the inter ventricular septum
C. Hyperkinesis of the lateral wall of the left ventricle
D. Posterior motion of the inter ventricular septum

A

A. early systolic dip of the interventriuclar septum

119
Q 
402. A defect is found in the central portion of the inter-atrial septum. The type of atrial septal defect present is:
A. Ostium secundum
B. Ostium primum
C. Sinus venosus
D. Coronary sinus
A

A. Ostium secundum

120
Q
  1. All of the following are associated echo findings for atrial septal defect EXCEPT:

A. Right atrial enlargement
B. Right ventricular enlargement
C. Left ventricular enlargement
D. Paradoxical interventricular septal motion

A

C. Left ventricular enlargement

121
Q
  1. The normal Qp/Qs ratio is:

A. 1:1
B. 2:1
C. 1:2
D. 50%

122
Q
  1. When evaluating atrial septal defect flow with color doppler, the sonographer should:

A. Invert the color flow map
B. Reduce the color velocity scale
C. Invert the color flow map
D. Increase the color doppler filter

A

B. Reduce the color velocity scale

123
Q
  1. The type of ventricular septal defect most often associated with ventricular septal aneurysm is:

A. Perimembranous
B. Trabecular
C. Inlet
D. Outlet

A

A. Perimembranous

124
Q
  1. In a patient with ventricular septal defect the blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg and the peak systolic velocity of the ventricular septal defect is 5 m/s. The right ventricular systolic pressure and systolic pulmonary artery pressure is:

A. 120 mmHg
B. 110 mmHg
C. 30 mmHg
D. 20 mmHg

A

D. 20 mmHg

125
Q
  1. The congenital heart defect most often associated with Down syndrome (trisomy 21) is:

A. Coarctation of the aorta
B. Atrioventricular septal defect
C. Peripheral pulmonary stenosis
D. Tetralogy of Fallot

A

B. Atrioventricular septal defect

126
Q
  1. A congenital malformation of the TV in which one, two or all three leaflets are displaced downward from the annulus with right ventricular dysplasia (atrialization) is known as:

A. Ebstein’s anomaly
B. Epsetin-Barr anomaly
C. Tricuspid atresia
D. Tricuspid stenosis

A

A. Ebstein’s anomaly

127
Q
  1. Uhl’s anomaly is:

A. Left atrial aneurysm
B. Abnormal displacement of the TV
C. Right ventricular dysplasia
D. Ostium primum atrial septal defect w/ cleft MV

A

C. Right ventricular dysplasia

128
Q
  1. A communication between the ascending aorta and the main pulmonary artery is called:

A. Aortopulmonary window
B. Coarctation of the aorta
C. Patent ductus arteriosus
D. Supracristal ventricular septal defect

A

A. Aortopulmonary window

129
Q
  1. Narrowing of the aortic isthmus is:

A. Aortic arch aneurysm
B. Aortic dissection
C. Coarctation of the aorta
D. Patent ductus aretriosus

A

C. Coarctation of the aorta

130
Q
  1. All of the following are associated with pulmonary stenosis EXCEPT:

A. Right ventricular hypertrophy
B. Systolic doming of the pulmonary valve
C. Pulmonary regurgitation
D. Coarctation of the aorta

A

D. Coarctation of the aorta

131
Q
  1. Eisenmenger’s syndrome may be associated with all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Atrial septal defect
B. Bicuspid aortic valve
C. Ventricular septal defect
D. Patent ductus arteriosus

A

B. Bicuspid aortic valve

132
Q
  1. The physical finding of cyanosis is most common in:

A. Patent foramen ovale
B. Eisenmenger’s syndrome
C. Mitral valve prolapse
D. Pulmonary regurgiation

A

B. Eisenmenger’s syndrome

133
Q
  1. A 2D echo finding for an aortic intimal flap indicates aortic:

A. Aneurysm
B. Dissection
C. Regurgitation
D. Stenosis

A

B. Dissection

134
Q
  1. Associated anomalies of sinus of Valsalva aneurysm include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Atrial septal defect
B. Bicuspid aortic valve
C. Coarctation of the aorta
D. Ventricular septal defect

A

A. Atrial septal defect

135
Q
  1. Pressure recovery may explain discrepancies between the pressure gradient measurements acquired in the cardiac catherterization laboratory and the pressure gradient measurements acquired in the echo lab (e.g. AS, prosthetic aortic valve). Pressure recovery occurs at the:

A. Flow convergence region (PISA)
B. Vena contracta
C. Turbulent region
D. Relaminarization zone

A

D. Relaminarization zone

136
Q
  1. The simplified Bernoulli equation disregards all of the following factors EXCEPT:

A. Flow acceleration
B. Proximal velocity
C. Velocity at the site of obstruction
D. Viscous friction

A

C. Velocity at the site of obstruction

137
Q
  1. Which of the following represent the lengthened Bernoulli equation?

A. CSA x VTI
B. 4 x V2(squared)
C. EDV-ESV
D. 4 x V2(squared) - V1(squared)

A

D. 4 x V2(squared) - V1(squared)

138
Q
  1. In patients with aortic valve stenosis the pressure gradients measured by Doppler include:

A. Peak (maximum) instantaneous pressure gradient and peak to peak gradient
B. Peak (maximum) instantaneous pressure gradient
C. Peak to peak pressure gradient
D. Peak to mean gradient

A

B. Peak (maximum) instantaneous pressure gradient

139
Q
  1. With aortic valve stenosis and poor global left ventricular systolic function the severity of aortic stenosis by the Doppler pressure gradient may be:

A. Underestimated
B. Overestimated
C. Unaffected
D. Unpredictable

A

A. Underestimated

140
Q
  1. Assuming normal intracardiac pressures, predict the peak systolic velocity for a patent ductus arterioles.

A. 5 m/s
B. 3 m/s
C. 1 m/s
D. 0.5 m/s

141
Q
  1. The pulmonary regurgitation is determined to be 2.0 m/s. The inferior vena cava is normal in dimension (
A

D. 21 mmHg

142
Q
  1. The formulae used to estimate left ventricular end-diastolic pressure (LVEDP) from CW Doppler recording of aortic regurgitation is LVEDP is equal to:

A. BP(systolic) - V(max)AR
B. BP(diastolic) - V(max)AR
C. BP(diastolic) - 4 x EDV AR
D. BP(diastolic) - 4 x EDV AR(squared)

A

D. BP(diastolic) - 4 x EDV AR(squared)

143
Q
  1. The peak velocity across a patent foramen oval (PFO) is determined to be 1.0 m/s. The right atrial pressure (RAP) is determine to be 5 mmHg by examination of the characteristics of the IVC. The left atrial pressure (LAP) is equal to:

A. 1 mmHg
B. 4 mmHg
C. 9 mmHg
D. 14 mmHg

144
Q
  1. The following data is obtained: LVOT diameter is 2.2 cm, LVOT peak systolic velocity is 1.1 m/s and the peak systolic aortic valve velocity is 5 m/s. The aortic valve area is:

A. 0.75 cm squared
B. 0.83 cm squared
C. 3.14 cm squared
D. 100 cm squared

A

B. 0.83 cm squared

145
Q
  1. Determine the mitral effective regurgitant orifice and regurgitant volume using the PISA method: Radium = 1.0 cm; Aliasing velocity = 40 cm/s; MR peak velocity = 500 cm/s; MR VTI = 110 cm

A. 1 cm(squared); 50 mL
B. 0.50 cm(squared); 55 mL
C. 55 cm(squared); 50 mL
D. 0.40 cm(squared); 110 mL

A

B. 0.50 cm(squared); 55 mL

ERO= (6.28 x radium squared x aliasing velocity)/MR peak velocity

146
Q
  1. All of the following are simplified PISA methods for determining the severity of MR EXCEPT:

A. 220/pressure halt-time
B. ERO(cm squared)= r squared / 2
C. RV (mL)= 2 x radius squared x aliasing velocity (cm/s)
D. >/= 0.9 cm PISA radius that is holosystolic indicates significant MR

A

A. 220/pressure half-time

147
Q
  1. Determine the MR volume, regurgitant fraction and effective regurgitant orifice using the following info: LVOTd=2.0 cm; LVOTvti= 10cm; MV annulus diameter=3.0 cm; MV annulus VTI=15 cm; MR vti= 200 cm

A. 2 mL; 100%; 2 cm squared
B. 74 mL; 70%; 37 cm squared
C. 200 mL; 50%; .75 cm squared
D. 34 mL; 17%; .17 cm squared

A

B. 74 mL; 70%; 37 cm squared

148
Q
  1. The S’ wave of the MV annulus is determined to be 3 cm/s in peak velocity. This suggests:

A. Normal global ventricular systolic function
B. Reduced global left ventricular systolic function
C. Hyperdynamic global left ventricular systolic function
D. Dependent upon respiration

A

B. Reduced global left ventricular systolic function

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