Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What are the different types of Home Care?

A

Includes home health agencies, home care, personal-care providers, and hospice.

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2
Q

Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act

A

Mandated the implementation of a new prospective payment system for skilled nursing facilities, home healthcare agencies, outpatient rehabilitation services, and other outpatient services provided to Medicare beneficiaries.

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3
Q

Prospective Payment System

A

Changed Medicare and Medicaid home care reimbursement from a cost-based system to a fixed-fee system based on a patient-need classification system.

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4
Q

Outcome and Assessment Information Set (OASIS)

A

Is a group of data elements that represent core items in a comprehensive assessment for an adult home care patient. The data elements for the basis of measurements used for outcome-based quality improvement.

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5
Q

Uniform Minimum Data Set (UDS)

A

Is a minimum set of informational items that have uniform definitions and predefined categories.

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6
Q

Community Health Accreditation Program (CHAP)

A

An accreditation organization whose core standards are related to information management, clinical records, and management information systems.

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7
Q

What are the 4 key processes for data that involve continuous improvement for data quality?

A
  1. Application: The purpose for which data are collected
  2. Collection: The processes by which data elements are accumulated.
  3. Warehousing: The processes and systems used to archive data and data journals.
  4. Analysis: The process of translating data into information used for an application.
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8
Q

What are the 4 general categories that govern admittance into a home care facility?

A
  1. Medical stability (with the exclusion of hospice patients)
  2. Desire for home care (or hospice)
  3. The suitability of the home environment
  4. Financial resources
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9
Q

How soon after a home health referral must the initial assessment visit take place?

A

The intake or clinical record documentation must specify a start-of-care date. According to Medicare COP, the initial assessment must be held within either 48 hours of referral or 48 hours of the patient’s return home or on the physician-specified start-of-care date.

In the absence of a physician-specified start-of-care date, the initial assessment visit is conducted within 48 hours of the referral. The physician specified start-of-care date supersedes the 48-hour time frame.

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10
Q

What happens when you elect hospice care?

A

When patient elect hospice care, they waive their rights to Medicare reimbursement for treatment of their principal (terminal) diagnosis and related conditions outside of care provided by the designated hospice.

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11
Q

What are the 4 general hospice care levels?

A
  1. Routine home care
  2. Continuous home care
  3. Inpatient respite care
  4. General inpatient care
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12
Q

Who are the main hospice employees?

A
  1. A doctor of medicine
  2. A doctor of osteopathy
  3. A registered nurse
  4. A social worker
  5. A pastoral counselor or another type of counselor
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13
Q

What does Medicare require of hospice facilities regarding medical record documentation?

A
  • The health record must contain evidence that the interdisciplinary team plans and manages a patient’s care across all settings of care
  • The health record must contain evidence that hospice interdisciplinary care continues when a patient is admitted for inpatient hospice care.
  • Health record documentation must justify the level of hospice care the patient is receiving. When the status of a patient changes such that he requires continuous home care or inpatient care, clinical notes must document this change, and the care plan must be revised to indicate any new problems or changes in plans.
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14
Q

To be a Medicare-reimbursed home health facility, what conditions must the facility meet?

A
  • the beneficiary is confined to home
  • the beneficiary is under the care of a physician, who establishes and approves the plan of care for the individual
  • the beneficiary needs intermittent, skilled nursing care, physical therapy, speech therapy services, or continuing occupational therapy.
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15
Q

What does it mean to be homebound?

A

Not necessarily bedridden, but leaving home must present considerable difficulty and be infrequent and of short duration unless for medical reasons.

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16
Q

What types of documentation should be monitored concurrently?

A
  • Documentation generating charges (especially higher dollar amounts)
  • Documentation for any physician charges
  • Documentation for ancillary service billing.
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17
Q

Advance Directives

A

Are instruments patients can use to clarify treatment choices in the event that they lose the ability to do so. Two common types are living wills and durable powers of attorney.

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18
Q

Patient Outcome Measures

A

Are calculated on a completed episode of care that begins with admission to a Home Health Agency and ends with discharge or transfer to an inpatient facility. This is different from a home health prospective payment episode of 60 days. The patient outcome is defined as a change (or lack of change) in a patient’s condition during an episode of care.

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19
Q

What areas of hospice care should be studied annually?

A
  • Symptom management
  • Stress management
  • Continuity of care
  • Inpatient care
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20
Q

Inpatient Facilities

A

Provide patients with around-the-clock care.

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21
Q

Partial Stay or Day Treatment Programs

A

Provide individuals with mental health treatment that is more intense than the services provided on an outpatient basis.

  • Typically, partial hospitalization is a four-hour-a-day, Monday through Friday program in which treatment may be provided in the morning, afternoon, or even early treatment,
  • Day treatment is typically provided eight hours a day, Monday through Friday, during the work day.
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22
Q

Residential Programs

A

These programs provide a homelike environment and help residents build self-esteem, develop relationships, and improve life skills. Treatment can include individual psychotherapy, group therapy, vocational/educational counseling and support, and treatment for co-occurring addictions.

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23
Q

What are the 2 Types of Residential Programs?

A
  • Group Residential Communities: Also called “group homes,” these family-like surroundings provide tools through which residents repair self-esteem, build skills, develop relationships, and learn to manage symptoms. They create a stable long term living arrangement.
  • Apartment-Based Communities: Residents live in apartments while participating in a program of therapeutic activities, supportive relationships, and treatment. Clinicians may visit resident apartments to gain insight that enhances treatment and recovery.
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24
Q

Outpatient Facilities

A

Provide clients with access to a stable treatment provider on an outpatient basis. Such care may occur in a formal office setting or in the comfort of the patient’s residence.

25
Q

Employee Assistance Programs (EAP)

A

These outpatient programs are designed to provide employees with immediate access to psychological counseling on a limited bases and may be provided on-site or through local providers.

26
Q

Schools and University Treatment

A

Schools and Universities commonly provide outpatient mental health assistance to their students through formal clinics, guidance therapy, or direct collaboration with area community-based-providers.

27
Q

Seclusion and Restraints

A

In most states, only licensed physicians are allowed to issue orders for the use of seclusion or restraints. In some states, psychologists, physician assistants, and certified nurse practitioners, are allowed to write such orders. In all cases, health record documentation must support the medical necessity of the services and materials ordered.

28
Q

Suicide Watch

A

Patient observation, such as one-to-one staffing or 15-minute checks, should be documented in a patient’s health record.

29
Q

Psychotherapy Notes

A

Are also referred to as Progress Notes

30
Q

What types of therapy documentation may be released with valid authorization?

A
  • Records of the prescription and monitoring of medication
  • Counseling session start and stop times
  • Modalities and frequency of treatment
  • Results of clinical tests
  • Any summary of the client’s diagnoses, functional status, treatment plan, symptoms, prognosis, and progress to date.
31
Q

Conservatorship

A

Placed under the care of an appointed guardian. Usually is recommended when a patient is unable to provide for personal needs such as food, shelter, or clothing as a result of a mental disorder, and is thereby gravely disabled and unwilling or incapable of accepting voluntary treatment.

32
Q

What are the 6 areas to cover in the initial psychiatric assessment?

A
  • Psychiatric history
  • Medical and family health history
  • Social history
  • Developmental history
  • Daily conduct
  • Potential for harm to self or others
33
Q

Commission on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities

A

The CARF is a not-for-profit organization devoted to ensuring continuous quality improvement in healthcare. It specifically accredits organizations for quality excellence in rehabilitative and human services.

34
Q

American Osteopathic Association (AOA)

A

Accredits mental health, substance abuse, and several other types of organizations.

35
Q

Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA)

A

A federal agency that targets substance abuse and mental health services to the people most in need.

36
Q

Outcomes Assessment

A

An effective tool used to monitor the success of a plan from beginning to end. In behavioral health, it is a way to determine whether care and services were prescribed appropriately and provided to assist the client in achieving the expected or desired outcome.

37
Q

How long are patient’s hospitalized for a Long Term Acute Care Hospital to treat them?

A

More than 25 days

38
Q

Most patient in an LTCH are considered what?

A

Medically complex patients - includes intensive therapies and nursing care. Consists of multisystem failure, neuromuscular damage, contagious infections, and complex wounds needing extended care, congestive heart failure, uncontrolled diabetes, HIV and AIDS, renal failure, and methicillin-resisistant staphylococcus aureus.

39
Q

Problem List

A

Captures relevant past and current problems of each patient. It provides a mechanism to organize each of the patient’s medical or physical issues. Problems are listed numerically, with the dates each problem was identified and resolved.

40
Q

Graphical Data

A

Typically includes blood sugar monitoring and vital signs sheets. May also include growth charts.

41
Q

Adult Foster Care

A

Provided for individuals or small groups of adults who need help functioning or who cannot live safely on their own.

42
Q

Board and Care Homes

A

Also called residential care facilities or group homes, are smaller private facilities, usually with 20 or fewer residents. Rooms may be private or shared. Residents receive meals and personal care and have staff available 24 hours a day.

43
Q

Assisted Living

A

Designed for people who want to live in a community setting and who need or expect to need help functioning, but do not need as much care as they would receive at a nursing home.

44
Q

Continuing Care Retirement Comminities (CCRCs)

A

Are also called life care communities. They offer several levels of care in a single location.

45
Q

Nursing Homes

A

Also called skilled nursing facilities (SNFs), nursing facilities (NFs), or convalescent care facilities, provide a wide range of services, including nursing care, 24-hour supervision, assistance with ADLs, and rehabilitation services such as physical, occupational, and speech therapy.

46
Q

Skilled Nursing Facility (SNF)

A

Is defined as an institution which is primarily engaged in providing skilled nursing care and related services for residents who require medical or nursing care, rehabilitation services for the rehabilitation of injured, disabled, or sick persons.

47
Q

Resident Assessment Instrument (RAI)

A

Is used to collect the necessary information from and about the facility resident.

48
Q

Minimum Data Set (MDS)

A

A core set of screening, clinical, and functional status elements, including common definitions and coding categories, which forms the foundation of a comprehensive assessment for all residents of nursing homes certified to participate in Medicare or Medicaid.

49
Q

Care Area Assessment (CAA)

A

This process is designed to help the assessor systematically interpret the information recorded on the MDS. Once a care area has been triggered, nursing home providers use current, evidence-based, clinical resources to access the potential problem and determine whether or not to make a care plan for it.

50
Q

Utilization Guidelines

A

Provide instructions for when and how to use the RAI. These include instructions for completing the RAI and structured frameworks for synthesizing MDS and other clinical information.

51
Q

Resident Assessment Protocols (RAPs)

A

Are problem oriented frameworks for additional assessment based on problem identification items (triggered conditions). They form a critical link to decisions about care planning.

The RAPs Guidelines help facility staff evaluate ‘triggered’ conditions.

52
Q

Skilled Nursing Facility Physician Visit Frequency

A
  • The residents must be seen by a physician at least once every 30 days for the first 90 days after admission, and at least once every 60 days thereafter.
  • A physician visit is considered timely if it occurs no later than 10 days after the date the visit was required.
53
Q

Elements of Performance (EPs)

A

Are the Joint Commission’s specific performance expectations and/or structures or processes that must be in place for an organization to provide safe, high-quality, treatment, and services.

54
Q

The American College of Radiology (ACR)

A

Is the most widely recognized diagnostic medical imaging accrediting body.

55
Q

Commission on Cancer (COC)

A

An accreditation program that encourages hospitals, treatment centers, and other facilities to improve their quality of patient care through various cancer-related programs. These programs focus on prevention, early diagnosis, pretreatment evaluation, staging, optimal treatment, rehabilitation, surveillance for recurrent disease, support services, and end-of-life care.

56
Q

National Committee for Quality Assurance (NCQA)

A

Is primarily an accrediting body for health insurance plans. It is branching out to include managed care and wellness programs that are both providers and payers.

57
Q

Closing Practice Policy

A

Directs an organization to send letters to patients of physicians who are closing their practice at a facility. Information should include options for patients to either continue receiving care from another physician at the facility or to receive copies of their medical records if they decide to transfer to another practice.

58
Q

Shadow Chart Policy

A

Should require that all original information and medical reports be kept in the medical record located in the HIM department.