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physiology 2 final > final exam > Flashcards

final exam Flashcards

1
Q

In what cortical layer would you find mostly axons?

a. layer I
b. layer III
c. layer IV
d. layer VI

A

a. layer I

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2
Q

Inhibitory granule cells release primarily what neurotransmitter?

a. GABA
b. acetylcholine
c. glutamate
d. glycine

A

a. GABA

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3
Q

In the human cerebral cortex the largest percentage of cortical tissue produce movements when electrically stimulated.
a. true b. false

A

b. false

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4
Q

Which cortical association area is associated with executive functions of behavior?

a. limbic association area
b. prefrontal association area
c. parieto-occipito-temporal association area
d. basal ganglia association area

A

b. prefrontal association area

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5
Q

Norepinephrine projections to widespread cortical areas, originates primarily from which of the following areas?

a. raphe nucleus
b. locus ceruleus
c. magnocellular area of pons d. intralaminar area of the thalamus
A

b. locus ceruleus

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6
Q

Most incoming sensory signals terminate in what cortical layer?

a. layer I
b. layer II
c. layer III
d. layer IV
e. none of the above
A

d. layer IV

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7
Q

The major efferent output from cortex to the spinal cord originates from which cells?

a. granule cells
b. fusiform cells
c. pyramidal cells
d. basket cells

A

c. pyramidal cells

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8
Q

Cortical neurons in the association areas can change their function as functional demand changes.
a. true b. false

A

a. true

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9
Q

Cortical neurons that fire, when we observe somebody doing something that helps us relate to what they are doing and perhaps is important in our acquiring those motor skills describes which of the following neurons?

a. pyramidal neurons
b. Purkinge neurons
c. LTP neurons
d. mirror neurons
A

d. mirror neurons

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10
Q

What pathway is important in emotional response transfer between anterior portions of right and left temporal lobes?

a. corpus callosum
b. posterior commissure
c. anterior commissure
d. fornix
A

c. anterior commissure

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11
Q

What is the normal function of cells in the orbital frontal cortex?

a. function as an error detector, fire when expectation not met
b. function to suppress emotional behavioral responses
c. function in memory recall, fire when correct decision is made
 	d. no body knows for sure
A

a. function as an error detector, fire when expectation not met

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12
Q

Most left handed individuals have the following cortical dominance?

a. left
b. right
c. dual
d. none

A

a. left

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13
Q

In individuals that have their corpus callosum (split brain) cut, the left hemisphere tends to match objects based on which of the following criteria?

a. function
b. color
c. appearance
d. smell

A

a. function

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14
Q

In individuals that have their corpus callosum (split brain) cut, the right hemisphere tends to
match objects based on which of the following criteria?
a. function
b. color
c. appearance
d. smell

A

c. appearance

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15
Q

After identification of a face, projections from the fusiform gyrus to which area allow us to gage the emotional significance, if any, of what has been identified?

a. occipital cortex
b. hippocampus
c. amygdala
d. frontal cortex
A

c. amygdala

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16
Q

After Phineas Gage recovered which of the following statements is true?

a. made a full recovery, no deficits
b. made a full physical recovery, but personality altered
c. mental faculties intact but was unable to talk
d. recovered with partial paralysis of right extremities

A

b. made a full physical recovery, but personality altered

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17
Q

Which of the following is not associated with a prefrontal lobotomy?

a. loss of ability to solve complex problems
b. increased level of aggressiveness
c. loss of ambition
d. purposeless motor activity

A

b. increased level of aggressiveness

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18
Q

Normally what allows the bulk of information transfer between cerebral hemispheres?

a. anterior commisure
b. corpus luteum
c. superior peduncle
d. corpus callosum
A

d. corpus callosum

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19
Q

In most people the right cortex is actually dominate for which of the following functions?

a. solving complex math problems
b. foreign language
c. non verbal visual experiences
d. prognostication

A

c. non verbal visual experiences

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20
Q

What is one function of the ventromedial region of the frontal lobe?

a. perform mathematical calculations
b. tackle the logic of an abstract problem
c. processing of emotion
d. memory consolidation
A

c. processing of emotion

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21
Q

One major side effect electroconvulsive shock therapy for depression is which of the following?

a. epilepsy
b. memory loss
c. insomnia
d. short term paralysis
A

b. memory loss

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22
Q

The size of a cortical cell body correlates best with which of the following?

a. the number of incoming fibers
b. the number of neurons it synapses with
c. what layer it is found
d. the length of its axon
A

d. the length of its axon

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23
Q

Every cubic inch of cerebral cortex has about how many miles of nerve fibers in it?

a. 100	
b. 1000
c. 10,000
d. 100,000
A

c. 10,000

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24
Q

Which of the following areas is most important in declarative/reflective/episodic memory function?

a. hippocampus
b. hypothalamus
c. cerebellum
d. thalamus

A

a. hippocampus

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25
Q

Which area is important in reflexive learning or memory, i.e. physical skills repeated over and over.

a. hypothalmus
b. cerebellum
c. hippocampus
d. pons

A

b. cerebellum

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26
Q

The hippocampus receives its primary input from the entorhinal cortex via which two pathways? (pick two)

a. medial forebrain bundle
b. alveolar
c. perforant
d. fornix
A

b. alveolar

c. perforant

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27
Q

Which of the following areas promotes more flexible associations with memory function, i.e. recognizing a business colleague at the grocery store.

a. hippocampus
b. cingulate gyrus
c. entorhinal cortex
d. hypothalamus

A

a. hippocampus

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28
Q

In memory, the links between individual neurons, which bind them into a single memory are formed through which process?

a. segmental facilitation
b. neuroimmunomodulation
c. neural plasticity
d. long term potentiation
A

d. long term potentiation

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29
Q

What maintains long term potentiation (LTP) in hippocampal neurons and is thought to be important in consolidation of memory?

a. Zeta inhibitory peptide
b. Nerve growth factor
c. protein kinase M zeta
d. tumor necrosis factor
A

c. protein kinase M zeta

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30
Q

Habituation

a. seen following a noxious stimulus
b. important in acquisition of language
c. decrease in response to repetitive benign stimulus
d. association between unconditioned & conditioned stimulus

A

c. decrease in response to repetitive benign stimulus

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31
Q

Sensitization

a. seen following a noxious stimulus
b. important in acquisition of language
c. decrease in response to repetitive benign stimulus
d. association between unconditioned & conditioned stimulus

A

a. seen following a noxious stimulus

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32
Q

Imitative learning

a. seen following a noxious stimulus
b. important in acquisition of language
c. decrease in response to repetitive benign stimulus
d. association between unconditioned & conditioned stimulus

A

b. important in acquisition of language

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33
Q

Innervated cells release what substances that promote proper innervation of those cells?

a. nerve growth factors
b. biogenic amines (acetylcholine)
c. neuropeptides
d. all of the above
A

a. nerve growth factors

34
Q 
What area controls the overall level of cortical activity, is excitatory, and a lesion here will
       likely result in coma?
a.  ventromedial thalamus
b.  deep nuclei of the cerebellum
c.  reticular formation of the pons
d.  reticular formation of the medulla
A

c. reticular formation of the pons

35
Q

Following his hippocampal removal, what memory function is still intact?

a. declarative memory
b. reflexive memory
c. episodic memory
d. extrinsic memory
A

b. reflexive memory

36
Q

Which of the following neurotransmitters is not associated with wakefulness?

a. histamine
b. acetylcholine
c. glutamate
d. serotonin
A

d. serotonin

37
Q

Strong stimulation in the central gray surrounding the aqueduct of sylvius is associated with
which of the following?
a. pleasure
b. unpleasant feeling
c. induction of sleep
d. positive reinforcement of a particular behavior

A

b. unpleasant feeling

38
Q

Ventral tegmental area

a. norepinephrine
b. dopamine
c. acetylcholine
d. serotonin
e. glutamate

A

b. dopamine

39
Q

Magnocellular nucleus

a. norepinephrine
b. dopamine
c. acetylcholine
d. serotonin
e. glutamate

A

c. acetylcholine

40
Q

Locus ceruleus

a. norepinephrine
b. dopamine
c. acetylcholine
d. serotonin
e. glutamate

A

a. norepinephrine

41
Q

Which of the following areas exert control over both, SNS and parasympathetic nervous system, as well as the pituitary gland?

a. hippocampus
b. basal ganglia
c. hypothalamus
d. ventral tegmental area

A

c. hypothalamus

42
Q

Stimulation in this area will cause an animal to stop the undesired behavior.

a. central gray around the aqueduct of Sylvius
b. along the course of the medial forebrain bundle
c. periventricular zones of the hypothalamus
d. hippocampal formation and entorhinal cortex

A

a. central gray around the aqueduct of Sylvius

43
Q

What are the two basic emotional states? (Pick two)

a. apathy
b. conservation
c. depression
d. arousal
e. sleep
A

b. conservation (parasympathetic)

d. arousal (sympathetic)

44
Q

Which hypothalamic nuclei when stimulated is associated with rage, fighting, thirst.

a. lateral hypothalamus
b. ventromedial nucleus
c. periventricular nucleus
d. arcuate nucleus
A

a. lateral hypothalamus

45
Q

Satiety and tranquility is associated with stimulation of what hypothalamic nucleus/area?

a. ventralmedial nucleus
b. lateral hypothalamus
c. periventricular nucleus
d. extreme anterior and posterior regions
A

a. ventralmedial nucleus

46
Q

Which area of the cortex functions as a gutter, which highly processed sensory signals drain into after complex sensory processing?

a. hypothalamus
b. pineal gland
c. prefrontal cortex
d. hippocampus
A

d. hippocampus

47
Q

Bilateral ablation of the amygdala is associated with all of the following except?

a. loss of fear
b. decreased sex drive
c. excessive tendency to examine objects orally
d. changes in dietary habits
A

b. decreased sex drive

48
Q

With regard to a typical night’s sleep, which of the following statements is not true?

a. The greatest amount of stage IV occurs in the last ½ of the night.
b. Slow wave sleep is interrupted by increasing periods of REM.
c. In REM sleep most skeletal muscle is in a paralysis state
d. A person usually awakens spontaneously from REM

A

a. the greatest amount of stage IV occurs in the last 1/2 of the night

49
Q

REM-off cells which become silent during REM, are associated with which of the following nuclei?

a. Raphe nucleus
b. Magnocellular nucleus
c. nucleus of the tractus solitarius
d. locus ceruleus
A

d. locus ceruleus

50
Q

Stimulation of which of the following is sleep promoting?

a. oral pontine reticular formation
b. anterior hypothalamic preoptic region
c. midbrain central tegmentum
d. posterior hypothalamus
A

b. anterior hypothalamic preoptic region

51
Q

Which of the following functions as a sleep modulating center.

a. locus ceruleus
b. posterior hypothalamus
c. medium eminence
d. nucleus basalis (Meynert)
A

d. nucleus basalis

52
Q

Lesions in the what nuclei will initially produce insomnia?

a. nucleus of the tractus solitarius
b. raphe nucleus
c. locus ceruleus
d. nucleus basalis (Meynert)
A

b. raphe nucleus

53
Q

During what sleep stage is the cortical EEG highly desynchronized and similar to being awake?

a. Stage II
b. Stage III
c. Stage IV
d. REM
A

d. REM

54
Q

What prostaglandin which is highly concentrated in the preoptic nucleus and induces both slow wave and REM sleep?

a. PGF 2 alpha
b. PGE
c. PGA
d. PGD 2
A

d. PGD 2

55
Q

How can sleep deprivation promote fat storage?

a. by activation of the SNS due to the stress of not sleeping
b. by  decreasing metabolic rate, increasing fat deposition
c. mobilization of fat normally occurs during sleep, less sleep, less fat mobilized
d. lack of sleep decreases growth hormone levels, a powerful lipolytic agent
A

d. lack of sleep decreases growth hormone levels, a powerful lipolytic agent

56
Q

A sort of paralysis normally occurs during REM sleep, to keep you from physically acting out dreams, which is reflected by which of the following changes?

a. 30% increase in rheobase in motor neurons
b. > 50% of the EEG is characterized by delta waves
c. increased sensitivity to GABA
d. increase release of glycine in the spinal cord
A

a. 30% increase in rheobase in motor neurons

57
Q

Stimulation of what nerve may be effective at preventing seizures?

a. recurrent laryngeal nerve
b. hypoglossal
c. glossopharyngeal nerve
d. vagus nerve

A

d. vagus nerve

58
Q

How could chiropractic intervention most likely decrease incidence of seizures?

a. by stimulating the vagus nerve
b. by decreasing abnormal nerve traffic into the CNS
c. by proper nutritional counseling
d. only if the chiropractic intervention addressed the cranial sutures

A

b. by decreasing abnormal nerve traffic into the CNS

59
Q

In the brain, neuronal pools with a lowered threshold, and/or in a state of facilitation are a likely source of which of the following?

a. panic attacks
b. schizophrenia
c. manic episodes
d. epileptic seizures
A

d. epileptic seizures

60
Q

Stimulation of GABA receptors have what effect?

a. close Na+ channels
b. open K+ channels
c. open Cl- channels
d. close Mg++ channels
A

c. open Cl- channels

61
Q

Increased sympathetic nervous system activity has what effect on production of antibodies?

a. stimulates
 	b. inhibits
c. no effect
A

b. inhibits

62
Q

Lymphocytes possess receptors for neurotransmitters like norepinephrine, and acetylcholine.
a. true b. false

A

a. true

63
Q

What pituitary gland hormone can counteract the fever producing effects of IL-1?

a. prolactin
b. TSH
c. alpha MSH
d. FSH

A

c. alpha MSH

64
Q

After injury, IL-1 stimulates the synthesis and secretion of which of the following?

a. alpha MSH
b. nerve growth factor
c. norepinephrine
d. prolactin

A

b. nerve growth factor

65
Q

Spinal cord injury patients have decreased function of which of the following?

a. NK cells
b. T cells
c. cellular adhesion molecules (CAM’s)
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
A

d. all of the above

66
Q

Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones can stimulate lymphocyte proliferation and antibody synthesis? (Pick all correct answers)

a. FSH
b. LH
c. Growth hormone
d. STH
e. Prolactin
A

c. growth hormone

e. prolactin

67
Q

Beta endorphins inhibit the activity of T, B and NK cells.

a. true b. false

A

b. false (they stimulate)

68
Q

Experimentally if two adjacent digits are sewn together, the following might be expected to occur?

a. cortical reorganization, whereby the two digits cannot be controlled individually
b. cortical degeneration, the sewn together digits will become progressively paralysed
c. an increase in cortical area devoted to both digits, greater than the sum previously
d. no change in the cortical area devoted to both digits
A

a. cortical reorganization, whereby the two digits cannot be controlled individually

69
Q

In mice who were immobilized, and given the vaccinia virus, what treatment prevented the high mortality normally seen with these stressors.

a. naltrexone
b. PM melatonin injection
c. beta blocker
d. PM prolactin injection

A

b. PM melatonin injections

70
Q

In neonatal mice thymectomy causes which of the following?

a. increased number of degranulated basophilic cells in the anterior pituitary
b. increased number of degranulated acidophilic cells in the anterior pituitary
c. decreased number of neurons in the median eminence of the hypothalamus
d. decreased activity of the paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus
A

b. increased number of degranulated acidophilic cells in the anterior pituitary

71
Q

In old mice, what restores thymic capacity to produce thymulin?

a. dopamine
b. tyrosine
c. L-thyroxine
d. insulin
A

c. L-thyroxine

72
Q

Compare the regenerative capacity in the PNS vs. the CNS.

a. CNS > PNS
b. PNS > CNS
c. CNS = PNS
A

b. PNS>CNS

73
Q

In the adult human where has neurogenesis been shown to occur?

a. orbital frontal cortex
b. amygdala
c. hippocampus
d. post central gyrus
e. none of the above
A

c. hippocampus

74
Q

The cerebral cortex has the capacity to reorganize itself in the face of reduced or enhanced afferent input.
a. true b. false

A

a. true

75
Q

What effect does removal of the pituitary gland have on the body’s ability to mount a local inflammatory response to a chemical applied to the skin?

a. increases
b. decreases
c. no noticeable effect
A

b. decreases

76
Q

What is a source of GABAergic projections that inhibit the ventral tegmental area?

a. prefrontal cortex
b. nucleus accumbens
c. hippocampus
d. amygdala
A

b. nucleus accumbens

77
Q

What is the major source of dopaminergic projections in the pleasure circuit of the rat?

a. prefrontal cortex
b. striatum
c. ventral tegmental area
d. hippocampus
A

c. ventral tegmental area

78
Q

In the brain, what cells are coupled together via gap junctions and form a functional syncytium that allows for the spread of calcium waves?

a. oligodendrocytes
b. microglia
c. Schwann cells
d. astrocytes
e. all of the above
A

d. astrocytes

79
Q 
What glia are involved in pH regulation in the brain.
	(Use choices from question 78)
a.  oligodendrocytes
	b.  microglia
	c.  Schwann cells
	d.  astrocytes
	e.  all of the above
A

a. oligodendrocytes

80
Q

Astrocytes both synthesize and uptake neurotransmitters from the ECF in the brain.
a. true b..false

A

a. true

physiology 2 final (1 decks)

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