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Microbiology Final > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

True or false, immersion oil can be used with any of the high-power objective lenses to increase the resolution power of the bright field microscope

A

False

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2
Q

Crystal violet and several other dyes used to stain bacteria have a net _______ charge that binds to bacteria readily because most bacterial cells, under normal conditions, have a net _______ charge

A

electropositive, electronegative

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3
Q

what prevents bacterial cells from rupturing when found in a hypotonic environment

A

peptidogylcans

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4
Q

Although fermentation does not yield nearly as many ATPs as respiration does, fermentation has the advantage that

A

fermentation does not require an external source of electron receptors

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5
Q

true or false the term facultative anaerobe refers to an organism that grows without oxygen

A

true

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6
Q

what causes the formation of dimers in DNA

A

ultraviolet light

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7
Q

What concentration of ethyl alcohol is the most effective antimicrobial

A

70%

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8
Q

Order the following microorganismsfrom more to less resistant to disinfectants - 1. Gram negative bacteria; 2. Mycobacteria; 3. Enveloped viruses

A

2, 1, 3

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9
Q

most of the available antibiotics are effective against _______ targets

A

bacterial

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10
Q

An elderly man was admitted toa hospital for heart surgery. Two days after surgery he developed septicemia which was treated with broad-spectrum antibiotics. Three days later the septicemia was controlled, but the patient developed a severe enterocolitis probably due to a(n)

A

a superinfection

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11
Q

The phylogenetic classification of bacteria is mostly based on what

A

rRNA sequences

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12
Q

list three nutritional adaptations of fungi

A

acidic pH
complex carb utilization
low moisture

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13
Q

the most outer layer of naked viruses is _______; where as in enveloped viruses it is ______

A

proteins

lipids

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14
Q

the most difficult to control and most common pathogen portal of entry is what

A

the respiratory tract

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15
Q

siderophores help bacteria to obtain what

A

iron

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16
Q

name characteristics of the first-line of defense

A

skin, mucous membranes, and normal microbiota

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17
Q

what kind of receptors on host cells recognize broadly-shared molecules of pathogens

A

toll-like receptors

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18
Q

important regulatory signaling molecules produced mostly by defense cells are what

A

cytokines

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19
Q

flow-washing is an affective defense mechanism because it does what

A

interferes with colonization

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20
Q

name 4 bodily fluids in which lysosomes are found

A

sweat, saliva, tears, semen

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21
Q

antimicrobial molecules of about a dozen amino acids are produced mostly by mucous epithelial cells and phagocytic cells are called what

A

antimicrobial peptides

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22
Q

name three places in the body in which low pH is one of the defense mechanisms

A

skin, vagina, stomach

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23
Q

what is the most effective against bacteria in the blood; IgAs, transferrin, fatty acids, or low pH

A

transferrin

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24
Q

Opsonization is the coating of a particle/microorganism with________________to enhance phagocytosis

A

antibodies, complement proteins, mannose-binding lectin

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25
Q

what is the correct sequence of events in the process of phagocytosis

A
  1. chemotaxis
  2. adherence
  3. ingestion
  4. digestion
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26
Q

what is the direct outcome of complement activation

A

promotion of inflammation, cell lysis, and opsonization

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27
Q

complement can be activated by what three known mechanisms

A

antibacterial peptides, mannose-binding lectin, and polysaccharides

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28
Q

During inflammation, the first cells to arrive at the damaged site are the_________followed by___________

A

neutrophils, macrophages

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29
Q

complement can be fixed/activated by which immunoglobulins

A

G and M

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30
Q

most phagocytized bacteria are killed where

A

the phagolysosome

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31
Q

protein produced in a viral-infected cell that protects non-infected cells from a viral infection is called what

A

an interferon

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32
Q

a T-independent immune response is likely to result from exposure to what

A

polysaccharides

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33
Q

antibodies bind specifically to the _____ on antigens

A

epitopes

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34
Q

name a small molecule that needs a large carrier molecule to stimulate an immune response

A

hapten

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35
Q

An antigen presenting cell (APC) engulfs antigen, processes it and displays it on____________molecules on the surface of its cytoplasmic membrane to present it to T helper cells

A

major histocompatibility complex class II (MHCII)

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36
Q

long-lasting immunity may be obtained by what

A

artificial active immunity

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37
Q

short-lasting immunity may be obtained by what

A

artificial passive immunity and natural passive immunity

38
Q

which type of molecule is more likely to stimulate a strong immune response

A

bacterial protein

39
Q

which type of molecules are more likely to stimulate a weak and short-lasting immune response

A

capsule polysaccharides

40
Q

specific region of an antigen recognized by the immune system

A

epitope

41
Q

component of an antibody that binds to an antigen is called what

A

variable region of H and L chains

42
Q

processed antigens need to be presented to T helper cells to stimulate an immune response. this is carried out by antigen-presenting cells such as

A

dendritic cells

43
Q

B lymphocytes are stimulated mostly by cytokines produced by…

A

helper T cells

44
Q

activation of B lymphocytes results in multiplication and

A

maturation of B lymphocytes into plasma cells

45
Q

during fetal development, clones of lymphocytes that react with self antigens are eliminated. this process is known as

A

clonal deletion

46
Q

antibody-producing cells are what

A

plasma cells

47
Q

the cellular immune response does what

A
  1. neutralizes toxins
  2. destroys pathogenic cells by fixing complement
  3. destroys host’s altered cells
48
Q

variation used to involve the exposure of a person to what

A

material from lesions of a person suffering from smallpox

49
Q

monoclonal antibodies are produced by

A

fusing B cells with myeloma

50
Q

HIV infection is generally screened first by_____________and positive results are confirmed by______________

A

ELISA - Western blot

51
Q

Most immunologic diagnostic tests are based on the use of antibodies; however, the____________is an example of an in vivo test.

A

TB skin test

52
Q

True or false; If a blood type A pregnant woman carries a blood type B baby, her natural antibodies against blood type B can cross the placenta and lyse the red blood cells of the baby.

A

False

53
Q

biofilm formation on a tooth surface depends initially on what

A

the formation a pellicle on the tooth’s enamel by saliva glycoproteins

54
Q

what are the first colonizers of the tooth’s surface

A

streptococcus spp.

55
Q

most streptococcus app involved in dental disease carry out what kind of hemolysis

A

alpha hemolytic

56
Q

damage to tooth’s enamel results mostly from what

A

acid produced from fermented refined carbohydrates

57
Q

name the disease: chronic inflammation associated with heart disease and loss of supporting bone

A

periodontal disease

58
Q

name the most likely bacterium transmitted by consumption of raw eggs

A

salmonella enterica

59
Q

what kind of pets are often associated with the transmission of salmonella enterica

A

turtles

60
Q

name the

Gram positive bacterium that may grow at 4 degrees C and cause foodborne disease with high mortality

A

listeria monocytogenes

61
Q

the use of broad spectrum antibiotics may result in sever colitis with ulceration and perforation causes by what

A

clostridium difficile

62
Q

what two organisms only infect humans

A

salmonella typhi and shigella spp

63
Q

true or false; most bacterial gastroenteric infections must be treated with antibiotics to prevent serious complications

A

false

64
Q

the temperatures used to handle food in a safe manner are ___ and ___

A

below 5 degrees C and above 57 degrees C

65
Q

gram postitive bacteria that is a leading cause of superinfection and nosocomial gastroenteritis is ____

A

clostridium difficile

66
Q

An example of food poisoning (intoxication) is _________________; and an example of a gastrointestinal infection is _________________.
Answer

A

botulism; salmonellosis

67
Q

most important respiratory virus in infants is what

A

respiratory scyncytial virus

68
Q

what is the most common respiratory virus in humans

A

rhinovirus

69
Q

Infections by______________ fail to stimulate a long-lasting immunity; therefore, re-infections by this virus are relatively common.

A

influenza virus

70
Q

there is a vaccine available to prevent infections by _____

A

influenza virus

71
Q

most secondary bacterial infections following an influenza infection are caused by ____ and _____

A

streptococcus spp. and staphylococcus spp.

72
Q

what is the most common month of highest influenza activity in the USA

A

February

73
Q

true or false; antigenic drift is a gradual change of a flu virus resulting from genetic reassortment

A

false

74
Q

true or false; antigenic shift is a sudden change of a flu virus resulting from genetic reassortment

A

true

75
Q

all documented influenza pandemics have been caused by influenza type ___

A

A

76
Q

what type of flu (H5n!) causes high mortality in humans

A

avian flu

77
Q

the influenza vaccine typically contains what

A

two types of influenza A viruses and one type of B

78
Q

among the blood-borne pathogens (HBV, HIV, and HCV) order them from less infectious to more infectious

A

HIV, HCV, HBV

79
Q

which type of hepatitis viruses is not a blood-borne pathogen

A

HAV

80
Q

the risk of becoming chronically infected with the HBV is greater if ____

A

infection occurs before 5 years of age

81
Q

there is an effective vaccine against which o the viral blood borne pathogens

A

HBV

82
Q

the chances of HBV perinatal infection can be reduced by ____

A
  1. screening pregnant women for HBsAg
  2. vaccinating babies from HBsAg positive mothers immediately after birth
  3. passively immunize babies from HBsAg positive mothers immediately after birth
83
Q

what is the most common blood born infection in the USA

A

HCV

84
Q

true or false; in the transmission of HIV, injection drug use is more common than transmission by heterosexual contact

A

false

85
Q

The lack of proofreading of HIV reverse transcriptase is associated with _____

A
  1. HIV high mutation rate
  2. HIV developing drug resistance
  3. HIV undergoing extensive antigenic changes
86
Q

HIV Category C infection is typically observed when CD4 lymphocytes fall below__________/mm3

A

200

87
Q

Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) in the treatment of HIV infections refers to the administration of

A

a combination of several drugs simultaneously

88
Q

which HIV enzyme Inserts viral DNA into the host DNA

A

Integrease

89
Q

which HIV enzyme makes a copy of DNA using viral RNA as a template

A

reverse transcriptase

90
Q

which HIV enzyme breaks a large viral protein into smaller functional proteins

A

protease

Microbiology Final (1 decks)

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