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Microbiology Final > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

True or false, immersion oil can be used with any of the high-power objective lenses to increase the resolution power of the bright field microscope

A

False

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2
Q

Crystal violet and several other dyes used to stain bacteria have a net _______ charge that binds to bacteria readily because most bacterial cells, under normal conditions, have a net _______ charge

A

electropositive, electronegative

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3
Q

what prevents bacterial cells from rupturing when found in a hypotonic environment

A

peptidogylcans

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4
Q

Although fermentation does not yield nearly as many ATPs as respiration does, fermentation has the advantage that

A

fermentation does not require an external source of electron receptors

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5
Q

true or false the term facultative anaerobe refers to an organism that grows without oxygen

A

true

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6
Q

what causes the formation of dimers in DNA

A

ultraviolet light

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7
Q

What concentration of ethyl alcohol is the most effective antimicrobial

A

70%

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8
Q

Order the following microorganismsfrom more to less resistant to disinfectants - 1. Gram negative bacteria; 2. Mycobacteria; 3. Enveloped viruses

A

2, 1, 3

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9
Q

most of the available antibiotics are effective against _______ targets

A

bacterial

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10
Q

An elderly man was admitted toa hospital for heart surgery. Two days after surgery he developed septicemia which was treated with broad-spectrum antibiotics. Three days later the septicemia was controlled, but the patient developed a severe enterocolitis probably due to a(n)

A

a superinfection

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11
Q

The phylogenetic classification of bacteria is mostly based on what

A

rRNA sequences

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12
Q

list three nutritional adaptations of fungi

A

acidic pH
complex carb utilization
low moisture

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13
Q

the most outer layer of naked viruses is _______; where as in enveloped viruses it is ______

A

proteins

lipids

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14
Q

the most difficult to control and most common pathogen portal of entry is what

A

the respiratory tract

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15
Q

siderophores help bacteria to obtain what

A

iron

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16
Q

name characteristics of the first-line of defense

A

skin, mucous membranes, and normal microbiota

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17
Q

what kind of receptors on host cells recognize broadly-shared molecules of pathogens

A

toll-like receptors

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18
Q

important regulatory signaling molecules produced mostly by defense cells are what

A

cytokines

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19
Q

flow-washing is an affective defense mechanism because it does what

A

interferes with colonization

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20
Q

name 4 bodily fluids in which lysosomes are found

A

sweat, saliva, tears, semen

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21
Q

antimicrobial molecules of about a dozen amino acids are produced mostly by mucous epithelial cells and phagocytic cells are called what

A

antimicrobial peptides

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22
Q

name three places in the body in which low pH is one of the defense mechanisms

A

skin, vagina, stomach

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23
Q

what is the most effective against bacteria in the blood; IgAs, transferrin, fatty acids, or low pH

A

transferrin

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24
Q

Opsonization is the coating of a particle/microorganism with________________to enhance phagocytosis

A

antibodies, complement proteins, mannose-binding lectin

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25
what is the correct sequence of events in the process of phagocytosis
1. chemotaxis 2. adherence 3. ingestion 4. digestion
26
what is the direct outcome of complement activation
promotion of inflammation, cell lysis, and opsonization
27
complement can be activated by what three known mechanisms
antibacterial peptides, mannose-binding lectin, and polysaccharides
28
During inflammation, the first cells to arrive at the damaged site are the_________followed by___________
neutrophils, macrophages
29
complement can be fixed/activated by which immunoglobulins
G and M
30
most phagocytized bacteria are killed where
the phagolysosome
31
protein produced in a viral-infected cell that protects non-infected cells from a viral infection is called what
an interferon
32
a T-independent immune response is likely to result from exposure to what
polysaccharides
33
antibodies bind specifically to the _____ on antigens
epitopes
34
name a small molecule that needs a large carrier molecule to stimulate an immune response
hapten
35
An antigen presenting cell (APC) engulfs antigen, processes it and displays it on____________molecules on the surface of its cytoplasmic membrane to present it to T helper cells
major histocompatibility complex class II (MHCII)
36
long-lasting immunity may be obtained by what
artificial active immunity
37
short-lasting immunity may be obtained by what
artificial passive immunity and natural passive immunity
38
which type of molecule is more likely to stimulate a strong immune response
bacterial protein
39
which type of molecules are more likely to stimulate a weak and short-lasting immune response
capsule polysaccharides
40
specific region of an antigen recognized by the immune system
epitope
41
component of an antibody that binds to an antigen is called what
variable region of H and L chains
42
processed antigens need to be presented to T helper cells to stimulate an immune response. this is carried out by antigen-presenting cells such as
dendritic cells
43
B lymphocytes are stimulated mostly by cytokines produced by...
helper T cells
44
activation of B lymphocytes results in multiplication and
maturation of B lymphocytes into plasma cells
45
during fetal development, clones of lymphocytes that react with self antigens are eliminated. this process is known as
clonal deletion
46
antibody-producing cells are what
plasma cells
47
the cellular immune response does what
1. neutralizes toxins 2. destroys pathogenic cells by fixing complement 3. destroys host's altered cells
48
variation used to involve the exposure of a person to what
material from lesions of a person suffering from smallpox
49
monoclonal antibodies are produced by
fusing B cells with myeloma
50
HIV infection is generally screened first by_____________and positive results are confirmed by______________
ELISA - Western blot
51
Most immunologic diagnostic tests are based on the use of antibodies; however, the____________is an example of an in vivo test.
TB skin test
52
True or false; If a blood type A pregnant woman carries a blood type B baby, her natural antibodies against blood type B can cross the placenta and lyse the red blood cells of the baby.
False
53
biofilm formation on a tooth surface depends initially on what
the formation a pellicle on the tooth's enamel by saliva glycoproteins
54
what are the first colonizers of the tooth's surface
streptococcus spp.
55
most streptococcus app involved in dental disease carry out what kind of hemolysis
alpha hemolytic
56
damage to tooth's enamel results mostly from what
acid produced from fermented refined carbohydrates
57
name the disease: chronic inflammation associated with heart disease and loss of supporting bone
periodontal disease
58
name the most likely bacterium transmitted by consumption of raw eggs
salmonella enterica
59
what kind of pets are often associated with the transmission of salmonella enterica
turtles
60
name the | Gram positive bacterium that may grow at 4 degrees C and cause foodborne disease with high mortality
listeria monocytogenes
61
the use of broad spectrum antibiotics may result in sever colitis with ulceration and perforation causes by what
clostridium difficile
62
what two organisms only infect humans
salmonella typhi and shigella spp
63
true or false; most bacterial gastroenteric infections must be treated with antibiotics to prevent serious complications
false
64
the temperatures used to handle food in a safe manner are ___ and ___
below 5 degrees C and above 57 degrees C
65
gram postitive bacteria that is a leading cause of superinfection and nosocomial gastroenteritis is ____
clostridium difficile
66
An example of food poisoning (intoxication) is _________________; and an example of a gastrointestinal infection is _________________. Answer
botulism; salmonellosis
67
most important respiratory virus in infants is what
respiratory scyncytial virus
68
what is the most common respiratory virus in humans
rhinovirus
69
Infections by______________ fail to stimulate a long-lasting immunity; therefore, re-infections by this virus are relatively common.
influenza virus
70
there is a vaccine available to prevent infections by _____
influenza virus
71
most secondary bacterial infections following an influenza infection are caused by ____ and _____
streptococcus spp. and staphylococcus spp.
72
what is the most common month of highest influenza activity in the USA
February
73
true or false; antigenic drift is a gradual change of a flu virus resulting from genetic reassortment
false
74
true or false; antigenic shift is a sudden change of a flu virus resulting from genetic reassortment
true
75
all documented influenza pandemics have been caused by influenza type ___
A
76
what type of flu (H5n!) causes high mortality in humans
avian flu
77
the influenza vaccine typically contains what
two types of influenza A viruses and one type of B
78
among the blood-borne pathogens (HBV, HIV, and HCV) order them from less infectious to more infectious
HIV, HCV, HBV
79
which type of hepatitis viruses is not a blood-borne pathogen
HAV
80
the risk of becoming chronically infected with the HBV is greater if ____
infection occurs before 5 years of age
81
there is an effective vaccine against which o the viral blood borne pathogens
HBV
82
the chances of HBV perinatal infection can be reduced by ____
1. screening pregnant women for HBsAg 2. vaccinating babies from HBsAg positive mothers immediately after birth 3. passively immunize babies from HBsAg positive mothers immediately after birth
83
what is the most common blood born infection in the USA
HCV
84
true or false; in the transmission of HIV, injection drug use is more common than transmission by heterosexual contact
false
85
The lack of proofreading of HIV reverse transcriptase is associated with _____
1. HIV high mutation rate 2. HIV developing drug resistance 3. HIV undergoing extensive antigenic changes
86
HIV Category C infection is typically observed when CD4 lymphocytes fall below__________/mm3
200
87
Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) in the treatment of HIV infections refers to the administration of
a combination of several drugs simultaneously
88
which HIV enzyme Inserts viral DNA into the host DNA
Integrease
89
which HIV enzyme makes a copy of DNA using viral RNA as a template
reverse transcriptase
90
which HIV enzyme breaks a large viral protein into smaller functional proteins
protease

Microbiology Final (1 decks)

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