FINAL exam (3 lectures) Flashcards

1
Q

Three complications in treating monogenic disorders

A

1.) gene may not have been identified
2.) Fetal damage
3.) most severe clinical phenotypes are less ammenable to intervention

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2
Q

Levels of intervention for treatment strategy

A

-mutant gene modification
-mutant mRNA modification
-mutant protein modification
-disease-specific compensation
-clinical phenotype modification (medical/surgical)
-genetic counseling

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3
Q

Long-term complications of gene therapy

A

1.) deficiencies have a late onset
2.) successful in one tissue but harmful to another
3.) side effects have a late onset

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4
Q

Dominant negative

A

effect of genetic heterogeneity on therapy, new wildtype replacements my be “poisoned” by a still-present mutant gene

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5
Q

The most successful gene therapy

A

treatment of metabolic deficiencies (strategies include: dietary modification, avoidance, diversion, inhibition. and depletion)

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6
Q

Biotinidase deficiency

A

prenatal biotin administration

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7
Q

Cobalamin-responsive methylmalonic adicuria

A

prenatal maternal cobalamin administration

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8
Q

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

A

Dexamethasone, a cortisol analogue

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9
Q

Phosphoglycerate dehydrogenase (PGDH) deficiency, a disorder of L-serine synthesis

A

Prenatal L-serine administration

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10
Q

Protein mutation genetic therapies

A

1.) add a cofactor
2.) replace the defective protein

Problems:
1.) proteins with a short half-life require frequent treatments and replacement –> insufficent supplies and harmful immune responses

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11
Q

Ivacaftor

A

For CF patients, restores lung function by permitting CTFR protein to be integrates into the cell membrane (augmentation)

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12
Q

Gaucher Disease

A

Lysosomal storage disease, mutation in glucocerebrosidase causing accumulation of glucocerebrosides in reticuloendothelial system

treated successfully with enzyme replacement (imiglucerase, miglustat) therapy (expensive and weekly infusions)

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13
Q

Beta-globin deficiencies– sickle cell

A

inducing the expression of gamma-globin (noramally only found in fetus) can partially rescue beta-globin deficiency phenotype

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14
Q

Hematopoietic stem cell (HSC) transplantation

A

bone marrow transplant, is risky due to infection

placental cord blood is more desirable over bone marrow, rich in HSCs, graft vs host risk is greatly reduced

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15
Q

gene therapy

A

modification of cells to produce a therapeutic effect, based on recombinant DNA technology that permits the introduction of new genes and possibly the removal of damaged genes

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16
Q

reasons to do gene therapy

A
  • compensate for a mutant cellular gene with a loss of function mutation
  • replace or inactivate a dominant mutant gene
  • Pharmacological effect (like cancer)
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17
Q

Ex vivo gene transfer

A

transfer outside the body or a stem cell, followed by introduction into the body
ADVANTAGES: does not require an efficient means to enter a cell because it can be engineered for
DISADVANTAGES: difficult and time consumig

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18
Q

In vivo gene transfer:

A

direct injection into the body using a vector
ADVANTAGES: quick and easy
DISADVANTAGES: targeting proper cells, immune responses, safety

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19
Q

Retroviral vectors

A

-Can enter virtually all target cells
-made simple and replication-defective
-Easy to engineer
-Introduce DNA into host genome
-accomodate large transgenes

Problems:
-require dividing cells to introduce DNA into host genome (lentiviruses, HIV can get around this)
- Safety due to mutagenesis

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20
Q

adenoviral vectors

A

Advantages:
- generated at high titer
- infect wide range of cell types
- accomodate large genes

Disadvantages:
- does not integrate into the genome
- expression is transient
-strong immune responses
- result in cell toxicity sometimes

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21
Q

Adeno-associated vectors (AAVs)

A

Advantages:
- can infect both dividing and non-dividing cells
- integrate host genome
- EX: CF, Factor IX, muscular dystrophy, CNS diseases

Disadvantages:
- Small transgenes (5KB)
—- Preferred viral vector for clinical trials

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22
Q

non-viral vectors

A

Advantages:
- lack biological risks associated with viral vectors

Disadvantages:
- not successful, DNA degraded in lysosomes

EX: naked DNA, liposomes, protein-DNA conjugates, artificial chromosomes, nanoparticles

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23
Q

Herpesviruses

A

central nervous system tropism, have large packing capacity, however they have strong inflammation and neurotoxic responses

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24
Q

CRISPR/CAS-9 example

A

in vivo-gene editing of transthyretin amyloidosis (ATTR), KO the mutant gene with 87% response positive

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25
Q

siRNA gene therapy

A

designed to target a range of tissues

ex studies: SARS, pathology of lungs in CF, KO of Huntington mRNA

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26
Q

Hemophilia B gene therapy

A
  • Factor IX replacement
  • Liver-specific
    -AAV2, AAV9
    and Hemophilia A (factor VIII)
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27
Q

Lysosomal storage disease gene therapy

A
  • enzyme replacement therapy, Gaucher disease)
  • hematopoietic cell transplantation
  • AAVs and other vectors
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28
Q

Parkinson’s disease gene therapy

A
  • Viral vectors targeting the neuronal population that is affected in PD
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29
Q

Leber congenital amaurosis gene therapy

A

early onset photoreceptor degeneration
- RPE65 gene (RA metabolism)
-AAV2 vectors

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30
Q

DMD gene therapy

A

-mini-dystrophin genes delivered by AAVs
- mutation suppression by STOP codon read through
- Exon skipping

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31
Q

SCID gene therapy treatment

A

OTC deficiency gene therapy, Jesse Gelsinger, X-SCID –> fatality and Leukemia (LMO2 gene)

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32
Q

Terminal differentiation

A

As cells differentiate, they usually stop dividing permanently.

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33
Q

Two features of stem cells that are consistently present

A

1.) stem cells retain the capacity to proliferate and self-renew
2.) stem cells produce daughter cells that can terminally differentiate into specific cell types

34
Q

Hematopoiesis

A

the ground floor of stem cells; hierarchy of cell types
multipotent SC > multipotent progenitor > common myeloid/lymphoid progenitor > erythrocytes/leukocytes

35
Q

transit amplifying cells/progenitors

A

transient between stem cell and only proliferative for a limited time

36
Q

Mechanisms to promote stem cell DNA health

A

1.) use progenitor cells to divide to create tissues so that stem cells don’t have to divide as frequently (dividing leads to errors)
2.) exceptions to random assortment because they give ALL parental (non-copied) chromosomes to one daughter cell to reduce the chance of them being altered during synthesis– known as “the immortal strand hypothesis”

37
Q

Embryonic stem cells

A

obtained from inner cell mass, are pluripotent. Primarily obtained from unneeded extra blastocytes created for IVF. Ethical considerations

38
Q

Tissue-specific stem cells

A

Somatic/adult stem cells: multi or uni-potent and usually exist in small numbers. Can be difficult to isolate and grow in cultures

39
Q

Mesenchymal stem cells

A

multipotent stromal cells from various locations including: bone marrow, connective tissue, and adipose tissue. Can be induced into bone, cartilage, and fat cells

40
Q

Cancer stem cells

A

undifferentiated cells, contain a mix of pleomorphic and relatively undifferentiated cells

41
Q

Induced pluripotent stem cells (iPS/iPSCs)

A

Differentiated cells engineered in the lab to resemble embryonic stem cells.

42
Q

Regulation of Embryonic pluripotency

A

– Oct4, Sox2, NANOG, KLF4 forming a core Pluripotency Gene Regulatory Network
- miR-302 regulating the inhibition of Oct4 and NANOG

43
Q

PGRN

A

transcription factors acting as hubs, core intact=pluripotency

44
Q

PGRN

A

transcription factors acting as hubs, core intact=pluripotency

Three general levels:
1.) signaling pathways
2.) Transcriptional networks
3.) Epigenetic factors

45
Q

Stem cell niche

A

stem cell regions that allow for controlled stem cell proliferation (uses Hh and Wnt). They produce paracrine factors that regulate stem cell proliferation and prevent differentiation

46
Q

The 4 R’s of regenerative medicine

A

1.) Repair
2.) Replace
3.) Restore
4.) Regenerative

47
Q

OKSM method

A

Certain transcription factors were strongly expressed in pluripotent embryonic stem cells, but suppressed in differentiating cells: Oct4/Sox2/Klf4/Myc or Oct4/Sox2/Klf4/NANOG because overexpression of Myc increases the risk of oncogenic transformation

48
Q

Direct reprogramming examples

A

Fibroblasts –> Neurons
Pancreatic exocrine cells –> Beta-cells
Fibroblasts –> cardiac muscle cells

49
Q

SCNT cloning

A

replacing the genome of an oocyte with that of an adult cell

Ex. Dolly ant the mammary cell

50
Q

Antigen assay

A

Search for microbial or virus antigens, using fluorescent antibody, or EIA

51
Q

Molecular assay

A

 Search for key genes of pathogen, nucleic acid hybridization, PCR

52
Q

Blood sample

A

search for antibodies using agglutination, RIA, EIA, and so on 

53
Q

Direct microscopic examination of clinical specimen

A

• gram stain, acid fast stain
• India ink, CSF for cryptococcus neoformans
• KOH treatment for fungal forms,
blue
• fluorescent antibodies
• Electron microscopy for viral infection

54
Q

Most common direct microscopic exams

A

Bright field, and fluorescence

55
Q

Culture media

A

Supplies the nutritional needs of micro organisms and can either be chemically defined or undefined (complex media) 

56
Q

Selective media

A

Contains compounds that selectively inhibit growth of some microbes but not others

57
Q

Differential media

A

Contains an indicator, usually a guy, that to text chemical reactions were occurring during growth

58
Q

Anaerobic micro organisms

A

Isolation, growth, and identification must be kept in anoxic conditions

59
Q

Aerobes

A

Require oxygen to live, whereas anaerobes do not and may even be killed by oxygen

60
Q

Facultative organisms

A

Can live with or without oxygen

61
Q

Aerotolerant anaerobes

A

Can tolerate oxygen and grow and its presence even though they cannot use it

62
Q

Microaerophiles

A

Arabs that can use oxygen only when it is present levels reduced from that an air

63
Q

Most common culture medias

A

Blood agar, enteric agar

64
Q

Sheep’s blood agar

A

Nonselective nutrient base with 5% sheep‘s blood added. Used for the cultivation of non-fastidious micro organisms. Measures hemolytic capacity, and classifies into alpha beta or gamma

65
Q

EMB agar

A

Enteric media,eosin- methylene blue, selective and differential media. Inhibits growth of gram-positive bacteria and distinguishes gram-negative bacteria based on their ability to ferment lactose (metallic sheen= can ferment, blue = cannot ferment) 

66
Q

EMB appearance for Escherichia coli

A

Dark center with greenish metallic Sheen

67
Q

EMB appearance of Enterobacter

A

Similar to E. coli, but colonies are larger

68
Q

EMB appearance of klebsiella

A

Large, mucoid, brownish

69
Q

ENB appearance of proteus

A

Translucent, colorless

70
Q

EMB appearance of pseudomonas, salmonella, Shigella

A

Translucent, colorless to Gold

71
Q

MacConkey agar

A

Selective and differential, enteric agar inhibits the growth of G positive, distinguishes G negative by lactose fermenters. Lactose fermenter will be deep purple/pink and non-fermenter will be colorless

72
Q

Thayer-Martin media

A

Used for isolating Neisseria bacteria. Media inhibits the growth of most other organisms by using:
Vancomycin to kill G positive
Colistin to kill G negative
Nystatin to kill fungi
SXT to inhibit G negative, swarming Proteus

Nutrients: chocolate chips blood, beef infusion, casein hydrolysate, and starch

73
Q

Example identification of N. gonorrhea

A

Look for cytochrome C oxidase, oxidase positive means gonorrhea positive

On Thayer-Martin media

74
Q

API strip

A

Purified colony growths added to solutions, looking for biochemical pathways (changes the color of the liquid)

75
Q

Serology

A

The study of antigen antibody reactions in vitro, looking for particular antigen using antibodies or looking for antibodies against a particular antigen

76
Q

Agglutination

A

The visible clumping of a particular antigen when mixed with antibodies specific for the particulate antigens

Typically used to identify blood group antigens and many pathogens

77
Q

Direct Agglutination

A

When soluble antibody causes clumping due to interaction with an antigen that is an integral part of the surface of a cell or other insoluble particle. Used for classification of antigens found on RBCs

78
Q

Passive agglutination

A

When it is too small, colorless: chemically couple to cells or insoluble particles like latex beads or charcoal. Clumping gives you a positive test, while diffusion is a negative result

79
Q

Direct ELISA test

A

Antibodies bound to the wells, allow for virus antigen binding, add antivirus antibody containing conjugated enzyme and look for fluorescent colors

80
Q

Indirect ELISA test

A

Wells coated with antigen preparation, looking for antibodies from the patient (allowing them to bind antigen), add fluorescent conjugated enzyme

81
Q

Search for pathogenic nucleic acid

A

Finding Jean on present, deep sequencing/next generation sequencing