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Large Animal -Hemming/Liz/Jessie > FINAL EXAM > Flashcards

FINAL EXAM Flashcards

1
Q

T/F: a horse that is resting his hind foot is usually upset

A

False

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2
Q

T/F: when approaching a horse, you should approach from the right side and cluck

A

False

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3
Q

T/F: when tying a horse to a stationary object, you should use a quick release knot at the level of the poll

A

False

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4
Q

T/F: the safest way to move around a horse is to be as close to the hindquarters as possible, using a firm touch and talking to them

A

True

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5
Q

T/F: when placing a bandage on the distal limb of a horse, it is acceptable to place one of your knees on the ground to stabilize yourself

A

False

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6
Q

T/F: the curry comb should never be used on the lower limb of the horse

A

True

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7
Q

T/F: thrush is commonly seen in moist, muddy conditions

A

True

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8
Q

T/F: a halter, lead rope, and a twitch should be in place during all medical procedures

A

False

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9
Q

T/F: the pectoral muscles are a site that may be used for IM injection in the horse

A

True

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10
Q

T/F: the proper method for obtaining a respiratory rate in horses is to watch the nostrils for 15 seconds and multiply that number by 4

A

False

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11
Q

T/F: when ausculting the lungs of a horse, it is normal to hear loud, prominent lung sounds

A

False

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12
Q

T/F: when bandaging, the vetwrap is applied distal to proximal to prevent pooling of blood in the extremity

A

False

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13
Q

T/F: AMDUCA’s Animal Medical Drug use Clarification Act states that there must be a valid patient-client-veterinarian relationship in order to use a drug “extra label”

A

True

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14
Q

T/F: the preferred injectable route of admin in beef cattle is subcutaneous

A

False

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15
Q

T/F: Diethyl Stilbestrol must never be used in cattle for any reason

A

True

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16
Q

T/F: naxel is an acceptable antibiotic for use in food animals

A

True

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17
Q

T/F: Banamine is a commonly used NSAID for a horse that is colicky

A

True

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18
Q

T/F: Acepromazine can safely be given as a tranquilizer to geldings

A

True

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19
Q

T/F: The normal volume for bull ejaculate is about 5mls

A

True

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20
Q

T/F: it is acceptable practice to use an electro-ejaculator for a fractious stallion

A

False

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21
Q

T/F: Bull semen collection is performed by using an androgenized steer, never a cow.

A

True

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22
Q

T/F: Rapid cooling (cold shock) can cause abnormal motility and morphology in sperm

A

True

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23
Q

T/F: 80% of body weight is water in the adult horse

A

True

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24
Q

T/F: total protein will increase to >8.0 g/dl in an animal that is >10% dehydrated

A

False

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25
Q

T/F: it is safe to admin up to 5 gallons of water through an orogastric tube to a cow that is lying in lateral recumbency

A

False

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26
Q

Which grooming instrument should be last, as a finishing brush

A

Dandy brush

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27
Q

Which piece of information is included in the subjective portion of the PE form

A

Normal feces present

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28
Q

What is the normal TPR for a horse

A 
Temp= 101.5 +/- 1degree 
Pulse= 30-40bpm
Resp= 10-20rpm
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29
Q

What anatomical structure is located in the RUQ?

A

Cecum

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30
Q

What anatomical structure is located in the LLQ

A

Large colon

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31
Q

Which route of admin is the Strangles vaccine given to a horse?

A

IN

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32
Q

Which of the following druges is commonly admin through a “dial-a-dose”

A

De-wormer
Banamine paste
Bute paste

ALL OF THE ABOVE

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33
Q

Twitches work as a restraint device by

A

Distraction & Endorphin release

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34
Q

Which twitch is designed for use when no assistant is available, and one must work alone?

A

Humane twitch

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35
Q

What is the best form of restraint for a mare when doing a repro exam?

A

Stocks

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36
Q

Acepromazine is characterized as a

A

Tranquilizer

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37
Q

Which of the following drugs can be reversed by a drug called Yohimbine?

A

Xylazine

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38
Q

Which of the following drugs is prohibited in cattle due to the potential to cause aplastic anemia in humans?

A

Chloramphenicol

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39
Q

Which of the following drugs is used as an anti-inflammatory and free-radical scavenger. This drug can be used topically or IV, and can be readily be absorbed through your skin

A

Dimethyl Sulfoxide

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40
Q

Bandages may be used to

A

Protect
Support
Decrease edema
Decrease granulation tissue

ALL OF THE ABOVE

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41
Q

A sweat wrap is used to

A

draw out edema and toxins

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42
Q

How often should a saline wrap be replaced

A

BID

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43
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the procedure for bandaging a horses leg

A

Begin the bandage at mid-cannon bone
Overlap the vet wrap by 50%
Leave 0.5-1 inch of padding exposed at the distal and proximal ends

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44
Q

What type of stain is used in assessing sperm morphology

A

Eosin-Nigrosin

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45
Q

What is considered normal percentage of progressively motile sperm for a stallion?

A

> 60%

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46
Q

What is considered normal total sperm ejaculate volume for a bull?

A

4-5 Billion

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47
Q

What is an example of a condition that would cause electrolyte loss in large animals?

A

Scours

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48
Q

What percentage of dehydration would you estimate a calf to be if they have cold extremities

A

12%

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49
Q

What is considered to be counting losses in a horse requiring fluid therapy?

A

Scouring

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50
Q

What is the primary layer of a foot bandage?

A

diaper

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51
Q

Name one treatment for thrush

A

dilute bleach

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52
Q

What is the name of the knot that is used with the tail tie to serve as a non-tightening knot around the neck?

A

bow-line

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53
Q

When performing a physical exam on a horse, how are gut sounds reported out?

A

on a 0-3 scale

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54
Q

Which arteries are used to evaluate the condition of a horses foot?

A

digital

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55
Q

when prepping a stallion for collection, what should the penis be washed with

A

non-spermicidal soap

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56
Q

T/F: the most common time of the year to dehorn cattle is June-August

A

False

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57
Q

T/F: normal horn growth is similar to hoof growth

A

True

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58
Q

T/F:Horns are made of horny keratin

A

True

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59
Q

T/F: dehorning performed by a caustic stick is best performed in cattle aged 60 days or younger

A

False

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60
Q

T/F: after the horn is removed, the vet pulls the vessels to provide hemostasis

A

True

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61
Q

T/F: cattle are easily distracted by sound

A

True

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62
Q

T/F: when using the tail tie on a cow, it is common to tie one end of the rope to the stocks so she is unable to swish her tail

A

False

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63
Q

T/F: a frick speculum is used to administer a bolus to a cow

A

False

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64
Q

T/F: the best method to check that a stomach tube is in place in cattle is to listen to the rumen when someone blows on the end of the tube

A

True

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65
Q

T/F: the point of balance is the wing of the ilium on cattle

A

False

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66
Q

T/F: when casting a cow, a quick release knot is often tied around the neck

A

False

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67
Q

T/F: there is no exchange of maternal and fetal blood before day 30 of pregnancy in the horse

A

False

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68
Q

T/F: a “foal heat” is an estrous cycle of increased fertility in the mare that occurs just after weaning of the previous years foal

A

False

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69
Q

T/F: the estrous cycle of the mare can be manipulated by artificially extending the amount of light in the day to 16 hours beginning about 3 months prior to being bred

A

True

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70
Q

T/F: the teat canal stays open for 2 hours post milking

A

True

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71
Q

T/F: when administering SQ fluids to stick a calf, it is acceptable to give 700mls per site

A

False

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72
Q

T/F: calves thermoregulate well

A

True

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73
Q

T/F: Calf milk replacers should be made up of at least 22% fiber

A

True

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74
Q

T/F: when treating a calf with scours, the fluid of choice would be LRS

A

False

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75
Q

Which dehorning method requires the use of a bone chisel?

A

Cosmetic

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76
Q

Which dehorning method is commonly used on calves aged 4-12 months

A

Barnes

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77
Q

What is the name of the local anesthetic block used prior to dehorning

A

Cornual

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78
Q

Intradermal injections are given in

A

Caudal folds of the tail

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79
Q

What is the knot that will not tighten?

A

Bowline knot

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80
Q

Where does the tightening strap of the cow halter go?

A

Under the chin

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81
Q

Which of the following restrain techniques results in a cow lying in sternal or lateral recumbency

A

Casting

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82
Q

When moving cattle, what principle of cattle handling will help you move the cow either forward of backward?

A

Point of balance

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83
Q

Name the substance that is secreted by the uterus if an embryo is NOT detected

A

Interferon

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84
Q

What is the hormone of pregnancy in the horse?

A

Progesterone

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85
Q

What is a “fresh” cow

A

a cow that has just calved

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86
Q

Which of the following is NOT true concerning dairy cows?

A

1st target breeding age is 12-14 months
the more a cow is bred, the more milk it produces
cows are dried about 2 months before their next calf is due

ALL ARE TRUE

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87
Q

Which is NOT true concerning the mare?

A

She will ovulate during metestrus

88
Q

Which of the following total plasma protein measurements indicated an adequate intake of colostrum for the calf?

A

5.0-6.0 g/dl

89
Q

The calf’s umbilicus should be dipped with which of the following solutions?

A

7% iodine

90
Q

at great than ____% dehydrated, the body loses the ability to absorb SQ fluids

A

8%

91
Q

Area here abnormal sperm are filtered

A

Utero tubaljunction

92
Q

Fetal side of the placenta

A

cotelydon

93
Q

capacitation occurs here

A

isthmus

94
Q

area where fertilization occurs

A

ampulla

95
Q

structure that catches ovulated ova

A

infundibulum

96
Q

maternal/uterus side of the placenta

A

caruncle

97
Q

Day 0

A

estrus

98
Q

Day 1-5

A

metestrus

99
Q

Day 5-19

A

diestrus

100
Q

day 19-21

A

proestrus

101
Q

Highest estrogen levels

A

proestrus

102
Q

CL fully developed

A

diestrus

103
Q

maternal recognition

A

metestrus

104
Q

ovulation

A

metestrus

105
Q

two factors tat influence calf survivability

A

dystocia, poor health, inside vs. outside

106
Q

what statement best describes phenotypic trait?

A

a characteristic that is the result of gene expression and environmental influences

107
Q

in class we discussed regulatory vet medicine. There is one requirement for a vet to perform reulatory functions on behalf of the state or federal departments of agriculture. That requirement is

A

the vet must be accredited by the USDA and the state dept. of agriculture

108
Q

animal breeders can use quantitative techniques for selection of animals to retain as breeding stock. Select one method that can be used to quantify phenotypic performance of an animal, for a specific measurable trait, within a group of contemporary animals

A

ranking the animals performance for a specific trait, within a contemporary group, using an index

109
Q

EPD and PTA stats are calculated from one of the following

A

statistical analysis of phenotypic trait measurements from the individual, its ancestors, siblings and progeny

110
Q

EPD is the abbreviation for

A

Expected progeny difference

111
Q

PTA is the abbreviation for

A

Predicted Transmitting Ability

112
Q

The main use for DNA typing in livestock is:

A

Verification of the identity of the sire and/or dam of an animal

113
Q

When submitting a blood sample for DNA typing identification of the carrier status for recessive traits or genomic analysis of the animals production traits, the lab will probably request that you submit.

A

A drop or two of blood on an FTA card

114
Q

Which of the following is the most common reason for culling animals from beef or dairy cattle herds

A

Reproduction failure

115
Q

Prior to examining a sick or injured animal, the pt should be

A

observed at a distance, undisturbed and unrestrained

116
Q

Perineural anesthesia is used in a lameness examination to

A

localize the lameness

117
Q

When the vet is using a series of perineural anesthesia injections in a lameness exam, the first injection should be given,

A

in the digital nerve at the lowest part of the leg, in the pastern area

118
Q

T/F: when prepping a horse for perineural anesthesia injections, clipping the hair and doing a three scrub surgical prep is essential

A

False

119
Q

T/F: normal synovial fluid contains 1. polymerized glycosaminoglycan sucha and hyaluronic acid, 2. high levels of inmmunoglobins and 3 many lyphocytes

A

False

120
Q

T/F: When performing arthroscopy, a small diameter rigid endoscope is used

A

True

121
Q

Which of the following musculo-skeletal tissues or structures is not suited for exam with ultrasonography

A

Bones

122
Q

you are on a farm with Dr. Schwartz and he asks you to take a TPR on Magic a 10 year old thoroughbred gelding. His temp is 100.5, his heart rate is 50bpm, and his resps are 22rpms

A

only the heart rate and resps are elevated

123
Q

Bovine are considered to be ____ when it comes to their breeding season

A

Polyestrus

124
Q

a bullock is

A

a young male

125
Q

what is the correct vetebral formula for the equine?

A

C7 T18 L6 S5 Cy15-21

126
Q

Horses are in heat for

A

7 days

127
Q

Which of the following can be normal in a horse and may not be an indication of illness

A

Lying down in the sun

128
Q

T/F: It is okay to use saliva as a lubricant on your thermometer for large animal animals

A

True

129
Q

Which compartment is considered the “true stomach” in ruminants

A

Abomasum

130
Q

How long is a cow in heat?

A

18 hours

131
Q

T/F: A filly is a young male horse

A

False

132
Q

On a farm call with Dr. Schwartz you are examining a pregnant mare who has been pregnant for 235 days, how much longer does she have?

A

100-105 days

133
Q

What is the scientific name for an equine

A

Equus caballus

134
Q

T/F: when you are doing your afternoon shift of large animal care, you find sweetie pie has not eaten any of her grain or hay, this can be a normal occurrence

A

False

135
Q

If a technician is using an ultrasound machine to examine a large muscular structure; such as the longissimus and spinalis muscle group, of a 1200 pound yearling bull, it would be best to use a probe with which one of the following sound frequency ratings?

A

3.5mHz

136
Q

Glucose absorption testing and Lactose absorption testing measure the body’s utilization of these sugars. Whih of the following statements are false

A

Lactose absorption testing measures absorption of lactose by intestine &
Glucose must be digested prior to absorption in the intestines

137
Q

A simple method for obtaining a small liver biopsy sample for general hepatic diagnostics in horses and cattle is by doing a

A

Percutaneous needle biopsy on the right side

138
Q

If a biopsy of the liver is to be obtained using alaparoscopy, which type of endoscope should be selected for use?

A

Rigid endoscope

139
Q

There are certain times where ultrasonography can be beneficial in dx of resp conditions, two conditions that can be easily identified with ultrasounds are

A

Bronchopneumonia with consolidation of lung tissue &

Pleural effusion

140
Q

T/F: When removing or retracting the cath that is used for a trans-tracheal wash, it is important that the cath is removed from the trachea prior to removing the needle

A

False

141
Q

When susceptible cattle are kept at high elevations, pulmonary arterial hypertension can progress to congestive heart failure, with peripheral edema, venous congestion and ultimately death. This can be reduced by testing and eliminating susceptible breeding cattle from the herd based on measurements obtained with what test?

A

Pulmonary Arterial Pressure (PAP test)

142
Q

What is the common name for the PAP disease when it progresses to congestive right heart failure with peripheral edema

A

Brisket disease

143
Q

A rancher has raised cattle at high elevation for many years, he wants to reduce the incidence of pulmonary arterial hypertension and congestive heart failure in his herd. What could he do

A

Test all of the breeding bulls

144
Q

The mode used to create a 2-D cross sectional, real time ultrasound video image, to eval the carcass of a live animal

A

B Mode

145
Q

A one dimensional vs. time video graph as used in echocardiography, produced using ____ mode

A

M Mode

146
Q

Repro exam in farm animals such as early dx of pregnancy will utilize equipment set up to display a video using ___ mode

A

B Mode

147
Q

An ultrasound machine capable of displaying fluid turbulence in a vascular aneurysm, using colorization of the image is produced using ___ mode

A

D Mode

148
Q

Imaging blood flow and computation of blood flow rates utilized ___ Mode

A

D Mode

149
Q

The culture swab that is typically used to obtain an un-contaminated culture from the uterus of large animals is called

A

Tiegland culture swab

150
Q

When using an ultrasound machine to Dx pregnancy in large animals there is a min. number of days that should pass between the animal going out of heat or ovulating and the exam

A

25 days in cattle and 11 days in mares

151
Q

When using an ultrasound machine to Dx pregnancy in horses, what is the maximum number of days that should pass after the animal ovulates or goes out of heat when examining for twins

A

15 days

152
Q

When accompanying Dr. Schwartz on a farm call, you are asked to perform a physical exam on a lamb the lambs temp is 104degrees, Heart rate is 99bpm, and resp are 22rpm is this normal?

A

No, only the temperature is normal

153
Q

During which stage of parturition is the dam most vulnerable to outside predators

A

Stage 2

154
Q

What is the term for the relaxation of the sarco-sciatic ligaments 24-48 hours pre-partum

A

Springing

155
Q

How long should a first calf heifer be in Stage 2 of parturition

A

1-2 hours

156
Q

What is the most common cause of dystocia in the bovine?

A

calf-dam mismatch

157
Q

What is the gestation length in a doe

A

150 days

158
Q

T/F: it is better for a calf to be born indoors vs. outside

A

False

159
Q

T/F: sheep have the same dental formula as cattle

A

True

160
Q

T/F: during stage 2 of parturition in a horse, you would want to interfere if it lasts longer than 40 minutes

A

False

161
Q

What type of aid must not be used in a mare experiencing dystocia

A

Calf Puller

162
Q

T/F: During stage 1 of labor, the dam may continue to eat and drink

A

True

163
Q

Which of the following is the hormone responsible for maintaining pregnancy

A

Progesterone

164
Q

The proper name for the genital structure that is located on ultrasound exams to determine the sex of a fetus at 60 days is

A

Genital tubercle

165
Q

In which species would it be much more difficult to obtain a diagnostic or prognostic endometrial biopsy, due to anatomy of the cervix, endometrium, and distribution of placental sites

A

Bovine

166
Q

T/F: When collecting semen for breeding soundness eval it is common to use electro ejaculation for bulls and a mount dummy and artificial vagina for stallions

A

True

167
Q

In order to calculate the total number of motile sperm cells in a stallions ejaculate it is necessary to use

A

Ejaculate volume
Sperm cell concentration
Percentage of motile cells

168
Q

Which one of the following types of microscope is best for eval of the percentage of motile sperm cells in a wet mount

A

Phase contrast

169
Q

When collecting embryos for transfor or for diagnostic purposes, the embryos are typically collected from cows or mares within the range of ___ days

A

6-8 days

170
Q

Embryos are contained within the Zona Pellucida when they are collected at the correct number of days post-estrus. One of the earliest and probably most important biological functions of the Zona Pellucida is to

A

Prevent polyspermy during fertilization

171
Q

What pharmaceutical hormone is used to control the estrus cycle by causing luteal regression and resulting drop in progesterone production from that CL allowing a cow or mare to express estrus and ovulate

A

Prostaglandin F2 alpha

172
Q

What hormone is capale of suppressing estrus and ovulation whether produced by the animal or admin. as a pharmaceutical

A

Progesterone

173
Q

In order to re-program the follicular cycles in a group of cows that are to have their estrus cycle and ovulation synchronized for timed artificial insemination, it is necessary to induce ovulation in the dominant follicles of the current follicular wave, thereby allowing a new follicular wave to being in about 2 days….

A

GnRH

174
Q

The most frequent repro hormone assay in livestock is the progesterone assy. Low P4 levels indicate an active CL. In cattle, a common best use for the progesterone assays is to

A

Determine that a cow is not pregnant

175
Q

There are 2 endocrine assays used to determine if a horse has functional testicular tissue. Which 2 are those tests?

A

Single estrone sulphate &

HCG response test

176
Q

In an estrous mare that is scheduled for breeding, which of the following endocrine assays can also be used to help predict the time of impending ovulation

A

LH

177
Q

Who is the most difficult to cath in the urinary bladder?

A

Bull

178
Q

A name for urolithiasis with either rupture of the urethra and accumulation of subQ urine, or rupture of the bladder and accumulation of urine in the peritoneal cavity is “water belly”. this name is commonly applied to….

A

Steers

179
Q

Which of the following procedures is used to facilitate ophthalmologic exams or therapy in equine?

A

Auriculopalpebral nerve block

180
Q

Failure of passive transfer in foals and calves results from inadequate immunoglobin transfer. The mode of uptake of IMG in the calf or foal is

A

Absorption of whole antibodies from the GI tract within 24 hours of birth

181
Q

Sometimes colostrum substitues are used to supplement colostral immunoglobulins. It is essential that these substitutes contain adequate quantity of

A

IgG

182
Q

Vert. formula for pig

A

C7 T14-15 L6-7 S4 Cy20-30

183
Q

T/F: pigs are in heat for approx. 2.5 days

A

True

184
Q

T/F: LDA is typically not life-threatening in a cow

A

True

185
Q

What Dz in a cow has the following clinical signs? Hypothermia, Decreased blood calcium, Weakness, and Recumbency

A

Eclampsia

186
Q

When sending in samples for pathology following a cow’s abortion, what particular sample is the only place to find nitrate in the deceased calf?

A

Eyeball

187
Q

What Dz is characterized by paralysis of the hind limbs post-partum in a dam?

A

Uterine prolapse

188
Q

Giving what drug immediately postpartum can hopefully prevent retained palcentas

A

Oxytocin

189
Q

T/F: Caloric needs of a dairy cow are greater during gestation than lactation

A

False

190
Q

Gestation length for a pig

A

114 days

191
Q

Neutered male pig

A

Barrow

192
Q

T/F: Retained placenta is not typically treated in cows

A

True

193
Q

T/F: in horses, the diaphragmatic flexure of the large colon comes before the pelvic flexure and the sternal flexure

A

False

194
Q

T/F: in horses, the right and left dorsal colon comes before the left and right ventral colon

A

False

195
Q

T/F: in horses, the origin of the large colon is the right ventral colon

A

True

196
Q

The primary sites for microbial fermentation of feed in equine is

A

The cecum and ventral colon

197
Q

Microbial fermentation in herbivores breaks down non-digestible fibrous plant material. The bacteria produce and excrete two main end products of fermentation. These are…

A

Gases & Volatile fatty acids

198
Q

In cattle the stomach compartment where bolus pills, magnets, and other heavy objects end up is the

A

Reticulum

199
Q

The primary sites for microbial fermentation of feed in the bovine is

A

The reticulum and rumen

200
Q

T/F: a cow how great difficulty regurgitating feed from the rumen. When a cow does regurgitate or vomit is is a sign that she probably has gastritis or frothy bloat

A

False

201
Q

Hardware Dz in cattle is the result of

A

Nails wire, and other objects that can puncture the reticulum
Ruminants indiscriminately eat their feed without chewing and inedible foreign materials are swallowed

202
Q

When a cow has frothy bloat, it is impossible to relieve the bloat until the cow is treated. What agent is most effective

A

Poloxalene

203
Q

When a cow how bloat, a stomach tube is usually used to relieve gas. In an emergency, when there is no tube available a knife could be placed into the rumen through the

A

Upper left para-lumbar fossa

204
Q

On a small dairy, ruminal acidosis could be prevented by

A

feeding grain after hay

205
Q

In ruminal acidosis due to feeding a high energy, feedlot type ration, what are sequela to the acidosis?

A

Liver abscesses

Laminitis

206
Q

What is the most common site for impaction to occur in the bovine stomach?

A

Omasum

207
Q

What is a more severe abomasal displacement with torsion, requiring immediate surgery for correction?

A

RDA

208
Q

T/F: general anesthesia is not typically recommended for cattle as they passively regurgitate

A

True

209
Q

T/F: if placing a cow in lateral recumbency for a c-section, it is preferred they be placed in left lateral recumbency

A

False

210
Q

What are the caudal and cranial landmarks for clipping a cow during prep for a c-section?

A

Flank & last rib

211
Q

What is a respiratory stimulant that can be used to revive a calf?

A

Dopram

212
Q

What is ALWAYS used on a cow for a c-section?

A

Line block

213
Q

Which of the following is recommended to use to dip the navel of a newborn calf

A

7% tincture of iodine

214
Q

What type of gloving is done over the OB sleeves?

A

Open

215
Q

T/F: Dystocia-affected calves are generally hardier and stronger than calves born naturally and do not require extra help.

A

False

216
Q

What should be the first thing done to the calf after it is removed from the dam during a C-section

A

Clear the airway

Large Animal -Hemming/Liz/Jessie (5 decks)

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