FINAL EXAM Flashcards
T/F: a horse that is resting his hind foot is usually upset
False
T/F: when approaching a horse, you should approach from the right side and cluck
False
T/F: when tying a horse to a stationary object, you should use a quick release knot at the level of the poll
False
T/F: the safest way to move around a horse is to be as close to the hindquarters as possible, using a firm touch and talking to them
True
T/F: when placing a bandage on the distal limb of a horse, it is acceptable to place one of your knees on the ground to stabilize yourself
False
T/F: the curry comb should never be used on the lower limb of the horse
True
T/F: thrush is commonly seen in moist, muddy conditions
True
T/F: a halter, lead rope, and a twitch should be in place during all medical procedures
False
T/F: the pectoral muscles are a site that may be used for IM injection in the horse
True
T/F: the proper method for obtaining a respiratory rate in horses is to watch the nostrils for 15 seconds and multiply that number by 4
False
T/F: when ausculting the lungs of a horse, it is normal to hear loud, prominent lung sounds
False
T/F: when bandaging, the vetwrap is applied distal to proximal to prevent pooling of blood in the extremity
False
T/F: AMDUCA’s Animal Medical Drug use Clarification Act states that there must be a valid patient-client-veterinarian relationship in order to use a drug “extra label”
True
T/F: the preferred injectable route of admin in beef cattle is subcutaneous
False
T/F: Diethyl Stilbestrol must never be used in cattle for any reason
True
T/F: naxel is an acceptable antibiotic for use in food animals
True
T/F: Banamine is a commonly used NSAID for a horse that is colicky
True
T/F: Acepromazine can safely be given as a tranquilizer to geldings
True
T/F: The normal volume for bull ejaculate is about 5mls
True
T/F: it is acceptable practice to use an electro-ejaculator for a fractious stallion
False
T/F: Bull semen collection is performed by using an androgenized steer, never a cow.
True
T/F: Rapid cooling (cold shock) can cause abnormal motility and morphology in sperm
True
T/F: 80% of body weight is water in the adult horse
True
T/F: total protein will increase to >8.0 g/dl in an animal that is >10% dehydrated
False
T/F: it is safe to admin up to 5 gallons of water through an orogastric tube to a cow that is lying in lateral recumbency
False
Which grooming instrument should be last, as a finishing brush
Dandy brush
Which piece of information is included in the subjective portion of the PE form
Normal feces present
What is the normal TPR for a horse
Temp= 101.5 +/- 1degree Pulse= 30-40bpm Resp= 10-20rpm
What anatomical structure is located in the RUQ?
Cecum
What anatomical structure is located in the LLQ
Large colon
Which route of admin is the Strangles vaccine given to a horse?
IN
Which of the following druges is commonly admin through a “dial-a-dose”
De-wormer
Banamine paste
Bute paste
ALL OF THE ABOVE
Twitches work as a restraint device by
Distraction & Endorphin release
Which twitch is designed for use when no assistant is available, and one must work alone?
Humane twitch
What is the best form of restraint for a mare when doing a repro exam?
Stocks
Acepromazine is characterized as a
Tranquilizer
Which of the following drugs can be reversed by a drug called Yohimbine?
Xylazine
Which of the following drugs is prohibited in cattle due to the potential to cause aplastic anemia in humans?
Chloramphenicol
Which of the following drugs is used as an anti-inflammatory and free-radical scavenger. This drug can be used topically or IV, and can be readily be absorbed through your skin
Dimethyl Sulfoxide
Bandages may be used to
Protect
Support
Decrease edema
Decrease granulation tissue
ALL OF THE ABOVE
A sweat wrap is used to
draw out edema and toxins
How often should a saline wrap be replaced
BID
Which of the following statements is true regarding the procedure for bandaging a horses leg
Begin the bandage at mid-cannon bone
Overlap the vet wrap by 50%
Leave 0.5-1 inch of padding exposed at the distal and proximal ends
What type of stain is used in assessing sperm morphology
Eosin-Nigrosin
What is considered normal percentage of progressively motile sperm for a stallion?
> 60%
What is considered normal total sperm ejaculate volume for a bull?
4-5 Billion
What is an example of a condition that would cause electrolyte loss in large animals?
Scours
What percentage of dehydration would you estimate a calf to be if they have cold extremities
12%
What is considered to be counting losses in a horse requiring fluid therapy?
Scouring
What is the primary layer of a foot bandage?
diaper
Name one treatment for thrush
dilute bleach
What is the name of the knot that is used with the tail tie to serve as a non-tightening knot around the neck?
bow-line
When performing a physical exam on a horse, how are gut sounds reported out?
on a 0-3 scale
Which arteries are used to evaluate the condition of a horses foot?
digital
when prepping a stallion for collection, what should the penis be washed with
non-spermicidal soap
T/F: the most common time of the year to dehorn cattle is June-August
False
T/F: normal horn growth is similar to hoof growth
True
T/F:Horns are made of horny keratin
True
T/F: dehorning performed by a caustic stick is best performed in cattle aged 60 days or younger
False
T/F: after the horn is removed, the vet pulls the vessels to provide hemostasis
True
T/F: cattle are easily distracted by sound
True
T/F: when using the tail tie on a cow, it is common to tie one end of the rope to the stocks so she is unable to swish her tail
False
T/F: a frick speculum is used to administer a bolus to a cow
False
T/F: the best method to check that a stomach tube is in place in cattle is to listen to the rumen when someone blows on the end of the tube
True
T/F: the point of balance is the wing of the ilium on cattle
False
T/F: when casting a cow, a quick release knot is often tied around the neck
False
T/F: there is no exchange of maternal and fetal blood before day 30 of pregnancy in the horse
False
T/F: a “foal heat” is an estrous cycle of increased fertility in the mare that occurs just after weaning of the previous years foal
False
T/F: the estrous cycle of the mare can be manipulated by artificially extending the amount of light in the day to 16 hours beginning about 3 months prior to being bred
True
T/F: the teat canal stays open for 2 hours post milking
True
T/F: when administering SQ fluids to stick a calf, it is acceptable to give 700mls per site
False
T/F: calves thermoregulate well
True
T/F: Calf milk replacers should be made up of at least 22% fiber
True
T/F: when treating a calf with scours, the fluid of choice would be LRS
False
Which dehorning method requires the use of a bone chisel?
Cosmetic
Which dehorning method is commonly used on calves aged 4-12 months
Barnes
What is the name of the local anesthetic block used prior to dehorning
Cornual
Intradermal injections are given in
Caudal folds of the tail
What is the knot that will not tighten?
Bowline knot
Where does the tightening strap of the cow halter go?
Under the chin
Which of the following restrain techniques results in a cow lying in sternal or lateral recumbency
Casting
When moving cattle, what principle of cattle handling will help you move the cow either forward of backward?
Point of balance
Name the substance that is secreted by the uterus if an embryo is NOT detected
Interferon
What is the hormone of pregnancy in the horse?
Progesterone
What is a “fresh” cow
a cow that has just calved
Which of the following is NOT true concerning dairy cows?
1st target breeding age is 12-14 months
the more a cow is bred, the more milk it produces
cows are dried about 2 months before their next calf is due
ALL ARE TRUE
Which is NOT true concerning the mare?
She will ovulate during metestrus
Which of the following total plasma protein measurements indicated an adequate intake of colostrum for the calf?
5.0-6.0 g/dl
The calf’s umbilicus should be dipped with which of the following solutions?
7% iodine
at great than ____% dehydrated, the body loses the ability to absorb SQ fluids
8%
Area here abnormal sperm are filtered
Utero tubaljunction
Fetal side of the placenta
cotelydon
capacitation occurs here
isthmus
area where fertilization occurs
ampulla
structure that catches ovulated ova
infundibulum
maternal/uterus side of the placenta
caruncle
Day 0
estrus
Day 1-5
metestrus
Day 5-19
diestrus
day 19-21
proestrus
Highest estrogen levels
proestrus
CL fully developed
diestrus
maternal recognition
metestrus
ovulation
metestrus
two factors tat influence calf survivability
dystocia, poor health, inside vs. outside
what statement best describes phenotypic trait?
a characteristic that is the result of gene expression and environmental influences
in class we discussed regulatory vet medicine. There is one requirement for a vet to perform reulatory functions on behalf of the state or federal departments of agriculture. That requirement is
the vet must be accredited by the USDA and the state dept. of agriculture
animal breeders can use quantitative techniques for selection of animals to retain as breeding stock. Select one method that can be used to quantify phenotypic performance of an animal, for a specific measurable trait, within a group of contemporary animals
ranking the animals performance for a specific trait, within a contemporary group, using an index
EPD and PTA stats are calculated from one of the following
statistical analysis of phenotypic trait measurements from the individual, its ancestors, siblings and progeny
EPD is the abbreviation for
Expected progeny difference
PTA is the abbreviation for
Predicted Transmitting Ability
The main use for DNA typing in livestock is:
Verification of the identity of the sire and/or dam of an animal
When submitting a blood sample for DNA typing identification of the carrier status for recessive traits or genomic analysis of the animals production traits, the lab will probably request that you submit.
A drop or two of blood on an FTA card
Which of the following is the most common reason for culling animals from beef or dairy cattle herds
Reproduction failure
Prior to examining a sick or injured animal, the pt should be
observed at a distance, undisturbed and unrestrained
Perineural anesthesia is used in a lameness examination to
localize the lameness
When the vet is using a series of perineural anesthesia injections in a lameness exam, the first injection should be given,
in the digital nerve at the lowest part of the leg, in the pastern area
T/F: when prepping a horse for perineural anesthesia injections, clipping the hair and doing a three scrub surgical prep is essential
False
T/F: normal synovial fluid contains 1. polymerized glycosaminoglycan sucha and hyaluronic acid, 2. high levels of inmmunoglobins and 3 many lyphocytes
False
T/F: When performing arthroscopy, a small diameter rigid endoscope is used
True
Which of the following musculo-skeletal tissues or structures is not suited for exam with ultrasonography
Bones
you are on a farm with Dr. Schwartz and he asks you to take a TPR on Magic a 10 year old thoroughbred gelding. His temp is 100.5, his heart rate is 50bpm, and his resps are 22rpms
only the heart rate and resps are elevated
Bovine are considered to be ____ when it comes to their breeding season
Polyestrus
a bullock is
a young male
what is the correct vetebral formula for the equine?
C7 T18 L6 S5 Cy15-21
Horses are in heat for
7 days
Which of the following can be normal in a horse and may not be an indication of illness
Lying down in the sun
T/F: It is okay to use saliva as a lubricant on your thermometer for large animal animals
True
Which compartment is considered the “true stomach” in ruminants
Abomasum
How long is a cow in heat?
18 hours
T/F: A filly is a young male horse
False
On a farm call with Dr. Schwartz you are examining a pregnant mare who has been pregnant for 235 days, how much longer does she have?
100-105 days
What is the scientific name for an equine
Equus caballus
T/F: when you are doing your afternoon shift of large animal care, you find sweetie pie has not eaten any of her grain or hay, this can be a normal occurrence
False
If a technician is using an ultrasound machine to examine a large muscular structure; such as the longissimus and spinalis muscle group, of a 1200 pound yearling bull, it would be best to use a probe with which one of the following sound frequency ratings?
3.5mHz
Glucose absorption testing and Lactose absorption testing measure the body’s utilization of these sugars. Whih of the following statements are false
Lactose absorption testing measures absorption of lactose by intestine &
Glucose must be digested prior to absorption in the intestines
A simple method for obtaining a small liver biopsy sample for general hepatic diagnostics in horses and cattle is by doing a
Percutaneous needle biopsy on the right side
If a biopsy of the liver is to be obtained using alaparoscopy, which type of endoscope should be selected for use?
Rigid endoscope
There are certain times where ultrasonography can be beneficial in dx of resp conditions, two conditions that can be easily identified with ultrasounds are
Bronchopneumonia with consolidation of lung tissue &
Pleural effusion
T/F: When removing or retracting the cath that is used for a trans-tracheal wash, it is important that the cath is removed from the trachea prior to removing the needle
False
When susceptible cattle are kept at high elevations, pulmonary arterial hypertension can progress to congestive heart failure, with peripheral edema, venous congestion and ultimately death. This can be reduced by testing and eliminating susceptible breeding cattle from the herd based on measurements obtained with what test?
Pulmonary Arterial Pressure (PAP test)
What is the common name for the PAP disease when it progresses to congestive right heart failure with peripheral edema
Brisket disease
A rancher has raised cattle at high elevation for many years, he wants to reduce the incidence of pulmonary arterial hypertension and congestive heart failure in his herd. What could he do
Test all of the breeding bulls
The mode used to create a 2-D cross sectional, real time ultrasound video image, to eval the carcass of a live animal
B Mode
A one dimensional vs. time video graph as used in echocardiography, produced using ____ mode
M Mode
Repro exam in farm animals such as early dx of pregnancy will utilize equipment set up to display a video using ___ mode
B Mode
An ultrasound machine capable of displaying fluid turbulence in a vascular aneurysm, using colorization of the image is produced using ___ mode
D Mode
Imaging blood flow and computation of blood flow rates utilized ___ Mode
D Mode
The culture swab that is typically used to obtain an un-contaminated culture from the uterus of large animals is called
Tiegland culture swab
When using an ultrasound machine to Dx pregnancy in large animals there is a min. number of days that should pass between the animal going out of heat or ovulating and the exam
25 days in cattle and 11 days in mares
When using an ultrasound machine to Dx pregnancy in horses, what is the maximum number of days that should pass after the animal ovulates or goes out of heat when examining for twins
15 days
When accompanying Dr. Schwartz on a farm call, you are asked to perform a physical exam on a lamb the lambs temp is 104degrees, Heart rate is 99bpm, and resp are 22rpm is this normal?
No, only the temperature is normal
During which stage of parturition is the dam most vulnerable to outside predators
Stage 2
What is the term for the relaxation of the sarco-sciatic ligaments 24-48 hours pre-partum
Springing
How long should a first calf heifer be in Stage 2 of parturition
1-2 hours
What is the most common cause of dystocia in the bovine?
calf-dam mismatch
What is the gestation length in a doe
150 days
T/F: it is better for a calf to be born indoors vs. outside
False
T/F: sheep have the same dental formula as cattle
True
T/F: during stage 2 of parturition in a horse, you would want to interfere if it lasts longer than 40 minutes
False
What type of aid must not be used in a mare experiencing dystocia
Calf Puller
T/F: During stage 1 of labor, the dam may continue to eat and drink
True
Which of the following is the hormone responsible for maintaining pregnancy
Progesterone
The proper name for the genital structure that is located on ultrasound exams to determine the sex of a fetus at 60 days is
Genital tubercle
In which species would it be much more difficult to obtain a diagnostic or prognostic endometrial biopsy, due to anatomy of the cervix, endometrium, and distribution of placental sites
Bovine
T/F: When collecting semen for breeding soundness eval it is common to use electro ejaculation for bulls and a mount dummy and artificial vagina for stallions
True
In order to calculate the total number of motile sperm cells in a stallions ejaculate it is necessary to use
Ejaculate volume
Sperm cell concentration
Percentage of motile cells
Which one of the following types of microscope is best for eval of the percentage of motile sperm cells in a wet mount
Phase contrast
When collecting embryos for transfor or for diagnostic purposes, the embryos are typically collected from cows or mares within the range of ___ days
6-8 days
Embryos are contained within the Zona Pellucida when they are collected at the correct number of days post-estrus. One of the earliest and probably most important biological functions of the Zona Pellucida is to
Prevent polyspermy during fertilization
What pharmaceutical hormone is used to control the estrus cycle by causing luteal regression and resulting drop in progesterone production from that CL allowing a cow or mare to express estrus and ovulate
Prostaglandin F2 alpha
What hormone is capale of suppressing estrus and ovulation whether produced by the animal or admin. as a pharmaceutical
Progesterone
In order to re-program the follicular cycles in a group of cows that are to have their estrus cycle and ovulation synchronized for timed artificial insemination, it is necessary to induce ovulation in the dominant follicles of the current follicular wave, thereby allowing a new follicular wave to being in about 2 days….
GnRH
The most frequent repro hormone assay in livestock is the progesterone assy. Low P4 levels indicate an active CL. In cattle, a common best use for the progesterone assays is to
Determine that a cow is not pregnant
There are 2 endocrine assays used to determine if a horse has functional testicular tissue. Which 2 are those tests?
Single estrone sulphate &
HCG response test
In an estrous mare that is scheduled for breeding, which of the following endocrine assays can also be used to help predict the time of impending ovulation
LH
Who is the most difficult to cath in the urinary bladder?
Bull
A name for urolithiasis with either rupture of the urethra and accumulation of subQ urine, or rupture of the bladder and accumulation of urine in the peritoneal cavity is “water belly”. this name is commonly applied to….
Steers
Which of the following procedures is used to facilitate ophthalmologic exams or therapy in equine?
Auriculopalpebral nerve block
Failure of passive transfer in foals and calves results from inadequate immunoglobin transfer. The mode of uptake of IMG in the calf or foal is
Absorption of whole antibodies from the GI tract within 24 hours of birth
Sometimes colostrum substitues are used to supplement colostral immunoglobulins. It is essential that these substitutes contain adequate quantity of
IgG
Vert. formula for pig
C7 T14-15 L6-7 S4 Cy20-30
T/F: pigs are in heat for approx. 2.5 days
True
T/F: LDA is typically not life-threatening in a cow
True
What Dz in a cow has the following clinical signs? Hypothermia, Decreased blood calcium, Weakness, and Recumbency
Eclampsia
When sending in samples for pathology following a cow’s abortion, what particular sample is the only place to find nitrate in the deceased calf?
Eyeball
What Dz is characterized by paralysis of the hind limbs post-partum in a dam?
Uterine prolapse
Giving what drug immediately postpartum can hopefully prevent retained palcentas
Oxytocin
T/F: Caloric needs of a dairy cow are greater during gestation than lactation
False
Gestation length for a pig
114 days
Neutered male pig
Barrow
T/F: Retained placenta is not typically treated in cows
True
T/F: in horses, the diaphragmatic flexure of the large colon comes before the pelvic flexure and the sternal flexure
False
T/F: in horses, the right and left dorsal colon comes before the left and right ventral colon
False
T/F: in horses, the origin of the large colon is the right ventral colon
True
The primary sites for microbial fermentation of feed in equine is
The cecum and ventral colon
Microbial fermentation in herbivores breaks down non-digestible fibrous plant material. The bacteria produce and excrete two main end products of fermentation. These are…
Gases & Volatile fatty acids
In cattle the stomach compartment where bolus pills, magnets, and other heavy objects end up is the
Reticulum
The primary sites for microbial fermentation of feed in the bovine is
The reticulum and rumen
T/F: a cow how great difficulty regurgitating feed from the rumen. When a cow does regurgitate or vomit is is a sign that she probably has gastritis or frothy bloat
False
Hardware Dz in cattle is the result of
Nails wire, and other objects that can puncture the reticulum
Ruminants indiscriminately eat their feed without chewing and inedible foreign materials are swallowed
When a cow has frothy bloat, it is impossible to relieve the bloat until the cow is treated. What agent is most effective
Poloxalene
When a cow how bloat, a stomach tube is usually used to relieve gas. In an emergency, when there is no tube available a knife could be placed into the rumen through the
Upper left para-lumbar fossa
On a small dairy, ruminal acidosis could be prevented by
feeding grain after hay
In ruminal acidosis due to feeding a high energy, feedlot type ration, what are sequela to the acidosis?
Liver abscesses
Laminitis
What is the most common site for impaction to occur in the bovine stomach?
Omasum
What is a more severe abomasal displacement with torsion, requiring immediate surgery for correction?
RDA
T/F: general anesthesia is not typically recommended for cattle as they passively regurgitate
True
T/F: if placing a cow in lateral recumbency for a c-section, it is preferred they be placed in left lateral recumbency
False
What are the caudal and cranial landmarks for clipping a cow during prep for a c-section?
Flank & last rib
What is a respiratory stimulant that can be used to revive a calf?
Dopram
What is ALWAYS used on a cow for a c-section?
Line block
Which of the following is recommended to use to dip the navel of a newborn calf
7% tincture of iodine
What type of gloving is done over the OB sleeves?
Open
T/F: Dystocia-affected calves are generally hardier and stronger than calves born naturally and do not require extra help.
False
What should be the first thing done to the calf after it is removed from the dam during a C-section
Clear the airway
