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Sublux > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

The only line on pelvic line analysis that is not parallel to the femur head line is the ___ ___ __.

A

Horizontal Plane Line

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2
Q

When measuring height of pelvis, the taller side is the PI or AS?

A

PI by the difference between sides

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3
Q

What line on a lateral cervical view runs from the tip to the base of the odontoid process?

A

Odontoid Line

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4
Q

The odontoid plane line runs perpendicular to which line?

A

Odontoid line

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5
Q

If the foramen magnum line is diverging posteriorly from the atlas plane line, the occiput is __.

A

PS

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6
Q

T/F: In an ideal neck curve, all disc plane lines on lateral cervical view should converge to one point.

A

True

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7
Q

What are the 3 labeled lines on AP Open Mouth view of cervicals?

A

Transverse condylar line,
transverse atlas line
axis plane line

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8
Q

T/F: To determine occiput rotation, we must first determine atlas rotation.

A

True

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9
Q

T/F: On AP open mouth view, the wider lateral mass indicates a posteriority.

A

False: wider lateral mass=anterior

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10
Q

On lateral thoracic/lumbar view, we visualize for atypical ___ ___, stacking, and ___.

A

Atyp. Disc Wedging; Degeneration

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11
Q

What are the 2 subcategories of degeneration?

A

Degenerative Disc Disease, Degenerative Joint Disease

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12
Q

On AP Thoracic view, a larger pedicle shadow indicates the more ___ side.

A

Larger shadow=posterior

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13
Q

Why do we apply headward pressure when doing a leg check?

A

Removes any potential slack between foot and shoe.

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14
Q

When we conclude an atlas listing we are using what as the reference point?

A

Anterior tubercle of the atlas (which is why we say AI or AS)

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15
Q

On pelvic film, the wider ilium is rotated externally or internally?

A

Wider=internal

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16
Q

What should be removed first before running the nervoscope over the cervicals?

A

Necklaces, glasses, large earrings

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17
Q

What are the 3 steps of active light touch for static palpation?

A

Sudoriferous changes
Turgidity changes
Surface tonicity changes

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18
Q

What are the 3 steps of deep touch for static palpation?

A

Tissue prominency
Palpatory tenderness
Deep tonicity changes

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19
Q

T/F: Sunburns, blemishes, fever, and perspiration are all conditions that limit effectiveness of instrumentation readings.

A

True

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20
Q

____ is an infrared paraspinal thermal imaging system gathering information from the first 5mm of the epidermis.

A

TyTron C 3000

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21
Q

___ receptors are unmyelinated and ___ receptors are myelinated.

A

Warmth=unmyelinated

Cold=myelinated (think you need a coat when you’re cold)

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22
Q

Where does the first synapse occur in the neurologic pathway?

A

Dorsal horn at the Tract of Lissauer

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23
Q

T/F: The Tract of Lissauer sorts between pain and temperature information.

A

True

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24
Q

What 2 areas will the thalamus relay information to in the neurologic pathway?

A

BA 3, 1, 2

Insular Cortex/Insula/Isle of Reil

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25
Q

Where does the lateral spinothalamic tract terminate?

A

VPL (ventral posterolateral) Nucleus of the Thalamus

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26
Q

The anterior portion of the ___ ___ regulates viscera-autonomic function.

A

Insular cortex

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27
Q

Where is autonomic information forwarded after synapsing in the insula?

A

Anterior hypothalamic nucleus of the hypothalamus

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28
Q

Where will the preganglionic sympathetic fiber synapse?

A

Sympathetic paravertebral ganglionic chain

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29
Q

T/F: Once at the sympathetic paravertebral ganglionic chain, the most likely outcome for dermatomal thermoregulation is for it to stay at the same ganglionic level.

A

True

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30
Q

The pre-gang sympathetic fiber will utilize which neurotransmitter to stimulate the post-gang fiber?

A

Pre-gang=ACh

Post-gang=epinephrine

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31
Q

Where will the post-gang symp fiber terminate?

A

Tunica media to constrict the vasculature

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32
Q

T/F: The parasymp NS is the antagonist to the symp NS.

A

False: Symp has no antagonist, there’s no opposing regulation

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33
Q

From which cord levels do symp originate from?

A

T1-L3

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34
Q

The Palmer Gonstead System compares to the segment __, whereas the Palmer Upper Cervical Specific compares the ___ ___.

A

below; foramen magnum

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35
Q

The preferred segmental contact point is what?

A

The spinous process

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36
Q

PLI-M: What region of the spine is this referencing?

A

Lumbars

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37
Q

PRI-T: What region of the spine is this referencing?

A

Thoracics

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38
Q

If we cannot access the spinous in the cervicals, what anatomy do we contact?

A

Lamina

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39
Q

What is the difference between global wedging and segmental wedging?

A

Global involves multiple segments

Segmental is only involving one

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40
Q

Scoliosis involves what type of wedging?

A

Global or multisegmental

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41
Q

Is a curve noted with segmental wedging?

A

No

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42
Q

It is clinical practice to contact on the side of ___ if wedging is present.

A

Convexity

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43
Q

T/F: The nervoscope is primarily used for segmental “break” analysis.

A

True

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44
Q

How can a nervoscope be used for pattern analysis?

A

Must be connected to a recording unit (analagraph)

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45
Q

T/F: A heat swing is the gradual sweeping of the needle indicating normal physiologic function and is generally multisegmental.

A

True

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46
Q

A dysfunctional physiology will be refect on the nervoscope as a rapid, reproducible deflection called a ___.

A

Break

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47
Q

What is the ideal acclimation time before running a nervoscope exam?

A

10 minutes

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48
Q

T/F: Regarding nervoscope, patient is seated to the back of the chair for thoracolumbar, and seated slightly forward for cervicals.

A

False: cervicals–>back of chair

thoracolumbar–>slightly forward

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49
Q

How is your stance for a cervical nervoscope examination?

A

Scissored stance (45 degrees or less), knee on outside of chair

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50
Q

What is your stabilization hand doing in cervical nervoscope examination?

A

Hair sweep or forehead stabilization

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51
Q

What is your stabilization hand doing in thoracolumbar nervoscope examination?

A

Don’t have one…requires a two-handed grip on the nervoscope

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52
Q

The cervical glide begins on __ and will terminate 1/2” up onto the ___.

A

T1; occiput

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53
Q

What is your glide speed for a cervical nervoscope examination?

A

3s/segment–> 18-21s glide time ideally

54
Q

Where do you mark cervical breaks?

A

1/4” below mid thermocouple and well outside of glide path

55
Q

The thoracolumbar nervoscope examination begins at __ and terminates at ___.

A

C7; S2

56
Q

T/L glide speed should be _s/segment.

A

2s/segment–> 35-38s glide time

57
Q

Where do you mark thoracolumbar breaks?

A

1/2” above mid thermocouple well outside of glide path

58
Q

A break is found between C3 and C4, whom does it belong to?

A

C3 because C2-T3 reflect into ISS below

59
Q

Which segments reflect their breaks at their own spinous level?

A

T4, T10-T12

60
Q

A break is found between T7 and T8, whom does it belong to?

A

T8 because T5-T9 relect into the ISS above

61
Q

What is special about breaks found between L1-L5?

A

The general break location is the lower 25% of the involved segment.

62
Q

X-rays are insightful about which components of the subluxation complex?

A

Kinesiopathology

Histopathology

63
Q

X-rays are insightful about which components of the PART system?

A

A-asymmetry/misalignment

R-Range of motion

64
Q

Who developed motion palpation?

A

Henri Gillet, Belgian chiropractor

65
Q

T/F: Motion palpation is insightful about the kinesiopathology component of the subluxation complex.

A

True

66
Q

T/F: Motion palpation is insightful about all 4 parts of the PART system.

A

False: Only P, A, R

67
Q

If C6 was determined to be PRS, which motions would be diminished?

A

Decr PA extension
Decr R rotation (spinous does not move freely to the left)
Decr R lateral bend

68
Q

If the spinous does not move laterally and superior to the right, it indicates a wedge on the __ side.

A

Left side

69
Q

If T5 was determined to be PLI-T, which motions would be diminished?

A

Decr PA extension
Decr L rotation (spinous does not move freely to the right)
Decr R lateral bend

70
Q

What are you feeling for upon lumbar P-A extension?

A

Assessing joint excursion, NOT for joint approximation

71
Q

Your patient has ebola, you opt to not adjust and call an ambulance; which chiropractic principle justifies your actions?

A

24: Limitations of adaptation

72
Q

Which chiropractic principle accounts for the inborn intelligence within everyone?

A

20: Innate intelligence

73
Q

Tom’s a young, healthy individual that comes to you wanting to know why he still got the flu this year despite his rigorous concern for his health, which principle would you refer him to?

A

30: The Cause of Dis-ease (May be healthy outward but if innate is disrupted, dis-ease may ensue)

74
Q

Which number chiropractic is dealing with causes and effects?

A

17

75
Q

___ is an aberration in biomechanical spinal anatomy that compromises the functional integrity of the nervous system.

A

Subluxation

76
Q

Who wrote the 33 Chiropractic Principles?

A

Ralph W. Stephenson, DC

77
Q

What are the 4 T’s?

A

Thoughts, Traumas, Toxins, Threshold

78
Q

What are the 5 parts of the vertebral subluxation complex?

A 
Kinesiopathology
Myopathology
Neuropathology
Histopathology
Pathophysiology
79
Q

What are the 4 parts of the PART system?

A

Pain/Tenderness
Asymmetry/Misalignment
Range of Motion Abnormality
Tissue/Tonal changes

80
Q

Analyzing a patients gait would fall under which part of the PART system?

A

Asymmetry

81
Q

Visualizing a spasm is under what part of the PART system?

A

Tissue/Tonal changes

82
Q

T/F: Leg length checks are under the Tissue/Tonal changes, not the Range of Motion abnormality category of the PART system.

A

True

83
Q

T/F: All four of the VSC (kinesio, myo, histo, neuro) correlate to Asymmetry of the PART system.

A

True

84
Q

____pathology is the only one to include Range of Motion Abnormality from the PART system.

A

Kinesiopathology–>A, R

85
Q

____ are a manifestation of the body’s failure to adapt to stimulus from a homeostatic perspective.

A

Symptoms

86
Q

T/F: It is ok for one to visualize the bottom of the shoes during a leg check as long as you remove the slack.

A

False: too much variability in the wear of shoes–>unreliable results

87
Q

If a person is wearing loose sandals for a leg check, what part of the anatomy do you visualize for comparison?

A

Medial malleolus

88
Q

T/F: Be sure not to torsion the tibia/femur during a leg check as it can skew the results.

A

True

89
Q

With which instrument do you scan from S2 until you “run into” the occiput?

A

Tytron C3000

90
Q

A correct mastoid fossa reading starts with the right barrel in the __ fossa, and then the ___ barrel in the __ fossa.

A

right; right; left

91
Q

A reading of ___ degrees C or greater is clinically significant for a mastoid fossa reading.

A

0.5 degrees C

92
Q

Sudoriferous changes correlates to which component of the VSC?

A

Neuropathology

93
Q

T/F: Turgidity changes are a result of myopathology

A

False: Turgidity-histopathology

94
Q

Both surface tonicity and deep tonicity changes found during static palpation are a relation to which part of the VSC?

A

Myopathology

95
Q

Tissue prominency, aka __ prominency is correlated to kinesiopathology b/c the bone is moved out of place.

A

bony

96
Q

You suspect an elderly patient of having osteoporosis, is it reasonable to take X-rays?

A

Yes

97
Q

A 3rd tri student needs X-rays for an upcoming Toggle class, is it rational to take X-rays?

A

No

98
Q

Chiropractic X-rays are taken from - but analyzed -.

A

Taken A-P,

Analyzed P-A

99
Q

What three things is a pathology based on?

A
  1. Postural distortions
  2. Palpatory findings
  3. X-rays
100
Q

What parts of the PART system do X-ray satisfy?

A

Asymmetry

Range of Motion

101
Q

T/F: X-ray satisfies the kinesio and histo components of the VSC.

A

True

102
Q

Static palpation is insightful about which components of the PART system?

A

P,A,T

103
Q

Innervation of the eccrine glands is through the SNS by ___ and ___ fibers.

A

cholinergic and adrenergic fibers

104
Q

Oily, greasy skin texture is indicative of an __ VSC.

A

acute VSC

105
Q

The patient indicates pain as you palpate over the spinous of T6, is this myotogenous or sclerotogenous pain?

A

Sclerotogenous

106
Q

As you are performing deep tonicity palpation, the patient reports pain upon a ‘ropey’ area, is this myotogenous or sclerotogenous pain?

A

Myotogenous

107
Q

A patient reports pain upon a patellar reflex test, is this myotogenous or sclerotogenous pain?

A

Sclerotogenous, b/c tendon insertions, ligaments, and discs also fall under “bony pain”

108
Q

What is the difference between a list and a lean?

A

List is overall favoring

Lean is a regional favoring

109
Q

For head tilt, what landmarks do you reference?

A

Glabella, nose, and chin

110
Q

For which postural analysis subcategory do you reference the AC joints and the parallel grid line?

A

Thoracic tilt

111
Q

What landmarks do you reference when judging head carriage?

A

EAM, AC joint, and parallel grid line

112
Q

What’s the technical term for “rounded back appearance”?

A

Thoracic kyphosis

113
Q

What’s the technical term for “swayback”?

A

Lumbar lordosis

114
Q

What postural analysis subcategory uses the EOP, VP and a parallel line grid to assess?

A

Head translation

115
Q

What is the most common type of scoliosis in adolescents?

A

Idiopathic scoliosis

116
Q

You have a patient with muscular dystrophy; which type of scoliosis are they likely to have?

A

Neuromuscular scoliosis

117
Q

___ scoliosis is due to vertebral malformation or fused ribs during development.

A

Congenital scoliosis

118
Q

Scoliometer readings of __degrees or more have a high likelihood of Cobb angle greater than __degrees on X-ray.

A

5; 10

119
Q

What are the 3 things you should address when doing posture analysis on someone?

A
  1. Remove shirt/Gown up
  2. Remove shoes
  3. “Going to be working in your personal space”
120
Q

T/F: You shouldn’t use a nervoscope on moist/sweaty skin, but it’s ok to use a TyTron C3000 on moist skin.

A

False: moist skin creates scatter on TyTron; allow for acclimation

121
Q

TyTron C3000 is insightful about what part of the VSC?

A

Neuropathology (maybe histopathology but not as significant)

122
Q

T/F: The TyTron C3000 is insightful regarding Tissue/Tonal changes for the PART system.

A

True

123
Q

T/F: Only the rollers of the TyTron should touch the skin; scanner barrels should never touch the skin.

A

True

124
Q

What is the glide speed for running the TyTron C3000?

A

1s/segment, smooth and continuous

125
Q

Why is a fossa reading necessary when doing a TyTron reading?

A

Hair traps heat and makes data unusable in upper cervicals

126
Q

What is the gold standard for taking thermal readings with the TyTron C 3000?

A

3 scans over 24 hours (0hr, 12hr, 24hr)

127
Q

What are the 3 general scan outcomes for the doctor to consider?

A
  1. Pattern (not adapting)
  2. Adaptive
  3. Stress (choppy; allow 15 min for patient to settle)
128
Q

What are 4 things that can cause a stress scan?

A

Emotional stress
Physical stress/Pain
Drugs
Caffeine

129
Q

You palpate and find bony prominence at T6. The patient reports pain upon tissue prominency examination at C4 and T6. You run the nervoscope and find heat swings at C4 and L5. What components of the VSC are present at what levels?

A

C4- Neuropathology from sclerotogenous pain
T6- Kinesiopathology from bony prominence
Neuropathology from sclerotogenous pain
Heat swings (not breaks) normal so no findings from that.

130
Q

A patient comes in complaining of LBP; you palpate and find edema present at L4. You do feel some surface tonicity changes but can’t even make it through the deep tissue prominency portion b/c of the pain it elicits. There’s a break found at L4. What parts of the VSC are present?

A 
Histopathology (edema)
Myopathology (surface tonicity)
Neuropathology from myotogenous pain
Neuropathology from the break
(Break reflects lower 25% of segment)

Sublux (1 decks)

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