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Neurophysiology > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What 4 areas interact to cause a state of arousal?

A

Brainstem, Hypothalamus, Thalamus, Basal Forebrain

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2
Q

Is sleep an active or passive state?

A

Active

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3
Q

What are the 3 areas maintaining wakefulness?

A
  1. Oral Pontine Reticular Formation
  2. Midbrain Central Tegmentum
  3. Posterior Hypothalamus
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4
Q

What are the 3 areas that promote sleep?

A
  1. Midline Brainstem
  2. Dorsolateral Medullary Reticular Formation
  3. Anterior Hypothalamic Preoptic region
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5
Q

T/F: The magnocellular nucleus basalis of Meynert is only involved in arousal.

A

False: both sleep and arousal

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6
Q

Where does the magnocellular nucleus basalis project to?

A

Neocortex and midbrain reticular formation

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7
Q

Does the magnocellular nucleus basalis utilize Ach or Ne?

A

Acetylcholine

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8
Q

What 2 neurotransmitters are involved in wakefulness using locus ceruleus and dorsolateral pontine tegmentum?

A

Dopamine and Norepinephrine

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9
Q

Regarding wakefulness, the caudal mesencephalic is dopaminergic, cholinergic, or noradrenergic?

A

cholinergic

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10
Q

Which structure in the wakefulness process utilizes histamine? Glutamine?

A

Posterior Hypothalamus-histamine

Oral Pontine Reticular Formation- glutamine

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11
Q

What are the four stages of Non-REM sleep?

A

I-light
II-light
III-deep
IV-deep

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12
Q

T/F: The dominant landscape of EEG is REM sleep.

A

False: Non-REM Stages III and IV dominate

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13
Q

What stage does REM sleep resemble on EEG?

A

NREM stage I, (or awake state)

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14
Q

T/F: REM gets progressively longer thru the course of the night.

A

True

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15
Q

Electrical stimulation of ___ ___ ___ produces slow wave sleep.

A

Nucleus Tractus Solitarius

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16
Q

With what system does the nucleus tractus solitaries directly wire with?

A

Limbic System ( ant thalamus, hypothalamus, amygdala)

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17
Q

What neurotransmitter is abundant in the raphe nucleus?

A

Serotonin

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18
Q

A lesion in the raphe nucleus would result in ___.

A

Insomnia

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19
Q

What is paracholophenylalanine?

A

Produces insomnia by blocking serotonin production

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20
Q

T/F: Serotonin is the precursor for tryptophan.

A

False: Tryptophan–>Serotonin–>Melatonin

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21
Q

Where is melatonin released from?

A

Pineal gland

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22
Q

What environmental change suppresses melatonin?

A

Bright light stimulation

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23
Q

T/F: Rapidly crossing 6 time zones traveling west disrupts normal sleep patterns.

A

False: ..traveling EAST..

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24
Q

Where is prostaglandin D2 concentrated and what does it induce?

A

Preoptic Nucleus; induces slow-wave-sleep and REM sleep

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25
Q

How does the anterior hypothalamus promote sleep?

A

By inhibiting the waking area in the posterior hypothalamus

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26
Q

Sedatives and hypnotics act at which receptors to facilitate sleep?

A

GABA receptors

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27
Q

Somnambulism is a fancy word for what?

A

Sleepwalking

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28
Q

Sleepwalking occurs during what sleep level?

A

Slow Wave Sleep (SWS)

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29
Q

REM sleep is associated with ___ ___ ___ spikes.

A

pontine geniculate occipital spikes (PGO)

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30
Q

T/F: You are more likely to remember dreams from REM sleep

A

True

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31
Q

REM sleep can be eliminated if you place lesions where?

A

Ventral to the locus ceruleus

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32
Q

Where are REM-ON cells?

A

Medial pontine reticular formation

Reticular tegmental nucleus

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33
Q

Where are REM-OFF cells?

A

Locus ceruleus

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34
Q

Which 2 neurotransmitters do antidepressants upregulate?

A

NE and Serotonin

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35
Q

What is rheobase?

A

The minimum voltage needed to excite nerves regardless of how long the duration is

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36
Q

What is chronaxie?

A

Duration necessary at twice the voltage of rheobase

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37
Q

What happens to rheobase during REM sleep?

A

30% greater during REM; harder to excite nerves during REM

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38
Q

T/F: REM causes hyperpolarization of motor neurons leading to increase in muscle tone

A

False: REM–>hyperpolarization–>decreased muscle tone

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39
Q

What is REM behavior disorder?

A

persistant muscle tone during REM sleep characterized by excessive limb and body movements

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40
Q

Vasodilation at the onset of sleep leads to reduction in what?

A

body and brain temperature

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41
Q

What serves as an endogenous clock regulating sleep and body temperature?

A

Suprachiasmatic nucleus

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42
Q

How much does brain metabolism decrease by in SWS sleep?

A

20-35%

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43
Q

What role does adenosine play in sleep?

A

Adenosine=somnogenic n’trans

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44
Q

For sleep onset to occur, what 2 things are stimulated and what 2 are inhibited?

A

Stim: GH & Prolactin
Inhib: TSH & cortisol

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45
Q

T/F: Sleep correlates to increased immune function

A

True

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46
Q

T/F: Sleep deprivation can raise cortisol, which promotes fat storage

A

True

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47
Q

Does amount of sleep/night correlate to obesity?

A

Yes: those that sleep longer less likely to be obese

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48
Q

What is ghrelin and where is it released from?

A

Hormone that promotes hunger and weight gain released from GI Tract

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49
Q

What is leptin and where is it released from?

A

Hormone that decreases hunger, promotes energy utilization and promotes weight loss; released from adipose

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50
Q

Sleep deprivation leads to __ leptin and a ___ in ghrelin.

A

Decr leptin, incr ghrelin

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51
Q

What is nicknamed the “electrical storm” of the brain?

A

Seizures

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52
Q

T/F: Epilepsy is the #1 most common neurological disease

A

False: Epilepsy=#2

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53
Q

What is the most common type of seizure?

A

Grand Mal (Tonic-Clonic)

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54
Q

Which type of seizure exhibits no outward signs?

A

Petite Mal or Absent Seizure

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55
Q

What phase do Grand Mal victims usually lose consciousness: Aura, Tonic, Tonic-Clonic, or Post-ictal?

A

Tonic: stiff body and loss of consciousness

56
Q

What nerve can be stimulated to abort seizures?

A

Vagus

57
Q

Destruction of myelin causes conduction velocity to ___ which ____ latencies.

A

Destruction of myelin causes conduction velocity to DECREASE which INCREASES latencies

58
Q

What mental disorder means “shattered mind”?

A

Schizophrenia

59
Q

Does schizophrenia have a/an early or late onset in life?

A

Early, usually late teens

60
Q

Which is more common: schizophrenia or schizotypal personality disorder?

A

Schizotypal Personality Disorder: milder and affects 2-3% of pop. (Schizophrenia is only 1%)

61
Q

Hallucinations and delusions are examples of (+ or -) symptoms?

A

Positive

62
Q

Regarding schizophrenia, excessive mesolimbic activity is associated with __ symptoms whereas excessive mesocortical activity is associated with ___ symptoms.

A 
Mesolimbic= +
Mesocortical = -
63
Q

What is anhedonia?

A

The inability to experience pleasure

64
Q

The inability to function with goal-directed behavior is called?

A

Avolition

65
Q

Blocking which neurotransmitter seems to help control the symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

Dopamine

66
Q

What anatomical abnormality can be seen in patients with schizophrenia?

A

Enlarged ventricles

Prominent sulci

67
Q

T/F: Monozygotic and dizygotic twins are equally at risk for schizophrenia

A

False: Mono=40% Di=10%

68
Q

What are the four basic humors once thought to control mood?

A

Blood, phlegm, yellow bile, black bile

69
Q

What type of depression shows decreased levels of norepinephrine and serotonin?

A

Unipolar depression

70
Q

T/F: Unipolar depression is usually worse in the morning

A

True

71
Q

What is the average age of onset for unipolar depression?

A

30 y.o.

72
Q

What disorder has a euphoria stage?

A

Bipolar or Manic-Depressive

73
Q

Does bipolar disorder have a genetic predisposition?

A

Strong genetic predisposition

74
Q

What is the most effective treatment for depression?

A

Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT) with 90% success rate

75
Q

What do MAO inhibitors do?

A

Decrease breakdown of biogenic amines like NE and serotonin, (70% success rate for treating depression)

76
Q

How do MAO inhibitors and Tricyclic compounds vary?

A

MAO inhibitors decrease breakdown whereas tricyclics prevent the reuptake (also 70% effective for treating depression)

77
Q

How successful are serotonin uptake blockers at treating depression?

A

85% (ex: Prozac)

78
Q

What are lithium salts useful for?

A

Terminating manic episodes

79
Q

T/F: Omega 3 fatty acids seem to dampen manic episodes

A

True

80
Q

T/F: Chronic back pain sufferers are at increased risk for depression and brain shrinkage/brain aging.

A

True

81
Q

What part of the nervous system is upregulated in anxiety disorders?

A

Sympathetic NS

82
Q

What is the average age of onset for panic attacks?

A

late 20’s

83
Q

What are 2 ways of inducing a panic attack?

A
  1. inhale CO2

2. infuse sodium lactate into blood

84
Q

If you have excessive worry lasting longer than 6 months, you could be categorized into…

A

Generalized Anxiety Disorder

85
Q

How do benzodiazepines treat anxiety?

A

enhance GABA receptors by increasing Cl- influx thus hyperpolarizing the cell

86
Q

T/F: Dementia is most common between ages of 45-65

A

False: rare between 45-65

avg onset >65

87
Q

What is the most common form of dementia?

A

Alzheimer’s Disease

88
Q

What 2 anatomical variations are noted with Alzheimer’s patients?

A

Thinning of cortical gyri
Enlarged ventricles
(similar to schizophrenics)

89
Q

Alzheimers is present in almost all people with ____ Syndrome that live past the age of 35.

A

Down’s Syndrome

90
Q

In what areas of the brain do amyloid plaques accumulate in Alzheimer’s patients?

A

Neocortex and Hippocampus

91
Q

What are neurofibrillary tangles?

A

bundles of abnormal filaments in the brain

92
Q

How can nerve growth factor prevent degeneration in the brain?

A

Binds to cholinergic neurons in the basal forebrain

93
Q

T/F: Gray matter and white matter receive about the same amount of blood flow.

A

False: Gray matter 2 times that of white matter

94
Q

Cerebral blood flow represents about __% of resting cardiac output.

A

15%

95
Q

T/F: Incr CO2, decr pH, and decr O2 will all cause vasodilation in attempt to bring more blood to the brain

A

True

96
Q

What is a stroke?

A

Lack of cerebral blood flow

97
Q

Which stroke is more common: occlusive or hemorrhagic?

A

Occlusive for 75% of all strokes

98
Q

The brain uses glucose primarily which gains entrance via what transporter?

A

Glut1

99
Q

Where is the blood brain barrier not present?

A

Posterior Pituitary

Circumventicular organs

100
Q

What specialized ependymal cells found near the ‘leaky’ areas of the brain?

A

Tanycytes

101
Q

What are the 3 systems used to transport amino acids across the blood brain barrier?

A

L System
A System
ACS System

102
Q

Which A.A transport system is energy and sodium independent?

A

L System

103
Q

L System moves __ and ___ and the A System moves ___ and ___

A

L System= leucine and valine

A System= alanine and serine

104
Q

Which A.A’s can the ACS System transmit across the BBB?

A

Alanine, Serine, Cysteine

105
Q

T/F: Activated immune cells can cross the BBB.

A

True

106
Q

What 2 cells can secrete interleukins and TNF-alpha in the brain following immune signal?

A

Microglia

Astrocytes

107
Q

What is lymphocyte activating factor?

A

IL-1

108
Q

T/F: IL-1 can only be secreted by macrophages

A

False: macrophages, glial cells, hippocampal and hypothalamic neurons

109
Q

What can happen upon prolonged IL-1 secretion in the brain?

A

Fever, sleep induction, anorexia, dementia, and neuronal death

110
Q

T/F: IL-1 –> CRF –> ACTH –> Cortisol

A

True

111
Q

What 4 things does cortisol downregulate?

A

IL-1, IL-2, IL-6, CRF

112
Q

What gland does TNF-alpha, secreted by macrophages, suppress?

A

Thyroid

113
Q

What 3 cytokines are said to mediate inflammation?

A

IL-1, IL-6, and TNF-alpha

114
Q

What cytokine can be inhibited by vagal cholinergic stimulation?

A

TNF-alpha

115
Q

B-cells contain ___ and ___ which can be stim by CRF and inhib by glucocorticoids.

A

ACTH and enkephalins

116
Q

What immune cells synthesize GH, TSH, LH, and FSH?

A

T-Cells

117
Q

What immune cell synthesizes prolactin, VIP, and somatostatin?

A

monocytes

118
Q

Gonadotropins have what effect on T cells and NK cells?

A

Decreases their activity

119
Q

T/F: Somatostatin and VIP inhibit the inflammatory cascade

A

True

120
Q

Spinal cord injuries decrease what 3 things?

A
  1. NK cell function
  2. T cell function
  3. Cellular Adhesion Molecules
121
Q

T/F: Chronic stress has been linked to immunosuppression.

A

True

122
Q

Apoptosis is characterized by what 4 features?

A
  1. cell shrinkage
  2. chromatin condensation
  3. cellular fragmentation
  4. phagocytosis of cellular remnants
123
Q

___ can prevent the process of apoptosis.

A

Neurotrophins

124
Q

Axotomy involves the ____ of the axon.

A

Transection

125
Q

Do glial cells degenerate upon axotomy?

A

Yes, Wallerian degeneration

126
Q

Which has more regenerative capacity: CNS or PNS?

A

PNS

127
Q

For regeneration, chemotropic factors are secreted by what cells to attract axons?

A

Schwann cells

128
Q

T/F: Regeneration of PNS only occurs for motor neurons.

A

False: occurs at motor, sensory, and autonomic

129
Q

What is focal hand dystonia?

A

Unable to independently control digits of hand

130
Q

What makes one prone to focal hand dystonia?

A

People who move fingers together at high rate of activity for prolonged periods of time.

131
Q

What happens to the somatosensory representation when two digits function together for prolonged time?

A

Cortical representations of 2 digits become one

132
Q

How do astrocytes communicate among themselves?

A

Via calcium waves

133
Q

T/F: There isn’t one single attention center in the brain.

A

True

134
Q

What organ is responsible for proliferation and differentiation of T cells?

A

Thymus

135
Q

When the thymus is removed there is a degeneration of what structure in the brain?

A

Anterior pituitary gland

136
Q

T/F: The thymic activity is completely absent by age 25.

A

False diminished but never completely gone

Neurophysiology (1 decks)

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