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Embryology > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

When does the skeletal system of the embryo begin to form?

A

At the end of the 4th week of development

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2
Q

Somites divide into what two parts?

A

Dermomyotome (dermatome and myotome) and Slcerotome

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3
Q

The skeletal system begins development with what part of the somites?

A

The ventral medial somite.

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4
Q

Somites develop specifically from what embryonic layer?

A

Paraxial mesoderm

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5
Q

In general, what embryonic layer gives rise to the skeletal system?

A

Mesoderm

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6
Q

The dividing somite is made up of mesodermal cells, which give rise to what?

A

Mesenchyme

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7
Q

This structure is a meshwork of loosely organized embryonic connective tissue. Bone and cartilage develop from it.

A

Mesenchyme

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8
Q

What are the two types of cartilage bone development?

A

Intercartilagenous and endochondral ossification

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9
Q

The cartilage stage in bones can grow rapidly to match what?

A

The growth of the fetus

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10
Q

When does cartilage begin to form?

A

The middle of the 5th week

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11
Q

These are mesenchymal cells that proliferate, enlarge, and become round. They also produce collagenous fibers and matrix.

A

Chondroblasts

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12
Q

Chondroblasts form what type of centers?

A

Chondrification centers

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13
Q

What does internal growth of cartilage result from?

A

Division of cartilage cells and from the production of matrix

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14
Q

The growth of cartilage follows the growth of what other type of tissue?

A

Bone tissue

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15
Q

During what week of development do mesenchyme cells condense to form chondrification centers?

A

8th week

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16
Q

What type of cells lay down new bone tissue?

A

Osteoblasts

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17
Q

When osteoblasts become trapped within bone tissue what type of cells do they develop into?

A

Osteocytes

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18
Q

Condensation of mesenchyme will give rise to what?

A

The formation of bone models

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19
Q

Describe intramembranous ossification?

A
  • Mesenchyme condenses and vascularizes
  • Cells differentiate into-osteoblasts, which deposit osteoid tissue to form ossification centers
  • Bone matrix is deposited to form lamellae, which develop around blood vessels to form osteons
  • The lamellae then grows and thickens to become trabeculae
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20
Q

What are the two types of development for the skull?

A

Neurocranium and splanchinocranium

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21
Q

Where does the neurocranium develop from?

A

The mesenchyme surrounding the brain

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22
Q

What are the two types of neurocranium development?

A

Neurochondrocranium and neuromembranocranium

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23
Q

This type of neurocranium development involves the cartilaginous base of the neurocranium and the skull and is followed by endochondral ossification, which begins around 8 weeks.

A

Neurochondrocranium

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24
Q

This type of neurocranium development involves the sides and the roof of the neurocranium and is formed by intramembranous ossification.

A

Neuromembranocranium

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25
Q

During fetal life, bones are separated by connective tissue membranes known as what?

A

Sutures

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26
Q

At the angle of bones within the skull of the developing fetus, large fibrous areas are formed. The membranes covering these spaces are known as what?

A

Fontanelles

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27
Q

What are the names of the fontanelles of a developing child?

A

Anterior, posterior, anterolateral, and posterolateral fontanelles

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28
Q

When does the anterior fontanelle close?

A

It closes by the end of the second year.

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29
Q

What is the largest fontanelle in a developing child?

A

Anterior fontanelle

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30
Q

When does the anterolateral fontanelle close?

A

At two to three months

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31
Q

When does the posterolateral fontanelle close?

A

At the end of the first year

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32
Q

Due to the softness, fontanelles and sutures of the fetal skull what can undergo changes during the birth process?

A

Calvaria or skull cap

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33
Q

This type of splanchnocranium undergoes endochondral ossification and is composed of replacing bone.

A

Splanchnochondrocranium

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34
Q

The cartilaginous skeleton develops from what?

A

Visceral, pharyngeal, or branchial arches

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35
Q

How many visceral, pharyngeal, or branchial arches do humans have?

A

We start with 6 but the 5th disappears in 1.5 days.

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36
Q

What does the first visceral arch form?

A

Palate, maxilla, meckel’s cartilage, incus, and malleus. Muscles of mastication

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37
Q

What does the second visceral arch form?

A

Stapes, cranial half of the hyoid, and lesser horn. Facial muscles

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38
Q

What does the third visceral arch form?

A

The caudal half of the hyoid and the greater horn. Stylo-pharyngeal muscle

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39
Q

What do the 4th and 6th visceral arches form?

A

Cartilages of the larynx. No ossification occurs here. Laryngeal muscles, pharyngeal muscles, palate muscles, part of the SCM, and part of the trapezius

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40
Q

The vertebral column develops from what?

A

Somite mesenchyme sclerotome

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41
Q

When does chondrification of the vertebrae occur?

A

7th week in the cranial vertebrae and follows to lower levels

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42
Q

Vertebral arches do not unite to form spinous processes until what time?

A

The 3rd month after birth

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43
Q

When does ossification of the vertebrae occur?

A

Begins at 9 weeks

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44
Q

How many ossification centers are there in the vertebrae? Where are they located?

A

There are three. One in the centrum and one in each half of the vertebral arch

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45
Q

How many ossification centers are present on the vertebrae during puberty? Where are they located?

A

There are 5. One at the tip of the spinous process, one at each tip of the transverse process, and two on the rim of the epiphyseal center

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46
Q

Where do the ribs develop from?

A

The mesenchyme and cartilage of the costal processes

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47
Q

How many ossification centers does each rib have? When does ossification occur?

A

One. Occurs in the 9th week

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48
Q

This bone begins as intramembranous bone, develops growth cartilages at both ends, and ossifies before any other bone.

A

Clavicle

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49
Q

This condition is more commonly known as dwarfism, autosomal dominant, and is characterized by slow growth of cartilage and bone ossification resulting in a small stature, megalocephaly (large face, head), and skeletal issues.

A

Achondroplasia syndrome

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50
Q

This is a mild form of achondroplasia characterized by small stature and short bowed limbs/lumbar lordosis.

A

Hypochondroplasia syndrome

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51
Q

This condition is characterized by the storage of lipids in the nervous system and an accumulation of mucopolysaccharides in the mesenchyme.

A

Mucopolysaccaridosis (Hurlers and Hunters)

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52
Q

This condition is characterized by clavicle agenesis, skull disorders, and jaw disorders.

A

Cleidocranial dysostosis

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53
Q

This type of spina bifida is limited to the skeletal components.

A

Occulta

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54
Q

This type of spina bifida occurs in the meninges (meningocoele) and the meninges and spinal cord (meningomyelocoele).

A

Cystica

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55
Q

This condition is characterized by abnormal curvature of the spine (numerical variations, morphological variations, or both)

A

Congenital scoliosis

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56
Q

This condition is characterized by the lack of ossification of the skull at the time of birth.

A

Cranial dysostosis

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57
Q

This is characterized by a premature closure of the sutures of the skull.

A

Craniostenosis

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58
Q

This condition is characterized by all of the sutures closing prematurely and symmetrically.

A

Oxycephaly

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59
Q

This condition is characterized by all of the sutures closing asymmetrically.

A

Plagiocephaly

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60
Q

This condition is characterized by the sagittal sutures closing prematurely.

A

Scaphocephaly

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61
Q

This condition is characterized by the coronal suture closing prematurely.

A

Acrocephaly (brachycephaly)

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62
Q

This condition is characterized by acrocephaly (premature closure of the coronal sutures) and syndactyly (fusion of the digits).

A

Aperts

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63
Q

This condition characterized by scaphocephaly (premature closure of the sagittal sutures) and no syndactyly (fusion of the digits)

A

Crouson’s

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64
Q

This condition is characterized by a complete absence of limbs and is most often caused by environmental factors

A

Amelia

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65
Q

This condition is characterized by an absence or reduction of the proximal part of the limbs and is most often caused by environmental factors.

A

Phocomelia

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66
Q

This condition is characterized by an absence or reduction of the distal part of the limbs and is most often caused by environmental factors.

A

Meromelia

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67
Q

This condition is characterized by hypoplasia and fusion of the lower limbs and occurs spontaneously.

A

Sympodia (monopodia)

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68
Q

This condition is characterized by a duplication of the distal parts of the limbs and is autosomal dominant.

A

Dichiria

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69
Q

This condition is characterized by the presence of extra digits and is autosomal dominant.

A

Polydactyly

70
Q

This condition is characterized by the fusion of digits and is autosomal dominant.

A

Syndactyly

71
Q

What embryonic layer does the muscular system develop from?

72
Q

What are the divisions of skeletal muscle?

A

Epimere/epiaxial (small dorsal division) and hypomere/hypaxial (large ventral division

73
Q

These form the extensor muscles of the vertebral column and the dorsal primay rami.

74
Q

These give rise to the muscles of the limbs and body wall, as well as the ventral primary rami.

75
Q

What is the normal direction that muscles develop in?

A

Craniocaudal direction

76
Q

What are some examples of changes in muscle direction?

A
  • Migration of a muscle (latissimus dorsi)
  • Fusion of successive myotomes (rectus abdominus)
  • Longitudinal splitting of the myotome (sternohyoid)
  • Tangential splitting of the myotomes (oblique and transverse muscles of the abdomen)
  • Degeneration of myotomes- forms ligaments (tensor fascia lata)
77
Q

What is the innervation of the 1st visceral arch?

A

Trigeminal nerve (V)

78
Q

What is the innervation of the 2nd visceral arch?

A

Facial nerve (VII)

79
Q

What is the innervation of the 3rd visceral arch?

A

Glossopharyngeal (IX)

80
Q

What is the innervation of the 4th and 6th visceral arches?

A

Vagus (X) and hypoglossal (XII)

81
Q

What are limb buds made from?

A

Muscular mesenchyme

82
Q

Where is cardiac muscle derived from?

A

Splanchnic mesoderm

83
Q

Do most muscle defects affect one or both sides?

A

Most muscle defects are unilateral

84
Q

What is the most common muscle defect?

A

Pectoralis

85
Q

What muscle defect is always bilateral?

A

Abdominal muscles

86
Q

This condition is characterized by a distended abdomen from aplasia of the abdominal musculature.

A

Prune belly

87
Q

Below umbilicus what is the abdominal muscle that is most frequently and bilaterally absent?

A

Transverse abominus is the most frequent followed by rectus abdominus

88
Q

Above umbilicus what is the abdominal muscle that is most frequently and bilaterally absent?

A

Internal oblique is the most frequent followed by external oblique and rectus abdominus

89
Q

This is a condition resulting from damage to the sternocleidomastoid (SCM) during development (position in the uterus or muscle development). It affects both sides, is autosomal dominant, and in the congenital form the SCM becomes fibrous.

A

Torticollis

90
Q

What body system does the urinary system develop from?

A

Reproductive system

91
Q

The urinary and genital system both develop from what specific embryonic layer?

A

Intermediate mesoderm

92
Q

During development of the urogenital system a longitudinal ridge develops from the intermediate mass along the 7th to 28th somite level and extends along the dorsal body wall of the embryo. The longitudinal elevation of the mesoderm is known as what?

A

Urogenital ridge

93
Q

During development of the urogenital system, along the 7th to 14th level of somites there are groups of segments sitting beside them. These segments are known as what?

A

Nephrotomes

94
Q

What are the three distinct types of kidneys?

A

Pronephroi (1st), mesonephroi (2nd), and metanephroi (3rd)

95
Q

When does development of the kidneys begin?

96
Q

Out of the three kidneys, which becomes the permanent set?

A

The third set or metanephroi

97
Q

This is the first set of kidneys, are rudimentary, and have very little function. It develops from the 7th to 10th somite level and is referred to as the head of the kidney and degenerates around the 4th week.

A

Pronephroi

98
Q

This is the second set of kidneys, are well developed, and function briefly. They are located at the 10-26th somite level, have 38 pairs of tubules, and have closed tubules.

A

Mesonephroi

99
Q

Some of the mesonephric tubules and duct remain in the male to form what? What happens in females?

A

Genital duct system. In females none of these tubules are retained

100
Q

This is the third set of kidneys and eventually become our permanent kidneys. They develop in the 5th week, located lateral to the mesonephric duct (26-28th somite), and has a duct system.

A

Metanephroi

101
Q

What is the flat end of the bud of the metanephroi called?

A

Renal pelvis

102
Q

What develops from the renal pelvis?

A

Major or minor calyces. Branching of the minor calyces produce the collecting duct system of the kidneys

103
Q

Each kidney has approximately how many nephrons?

104
Q

Are the kidneys in the fetus lobulated or smooth?

A

Lobulated, but smooth later on in development

105
Q

Where are developing kidneys initially located? Where do they migrate to as a result of growth?

A

They are initially located in the pelvic area and then migrate to the abdomen as a result of body growth

106
Q

When does the urinary bladder develop?

A

7th week of development

107
Q

What structure is continuous with the bladder?

A

Allantosis

108
Q

What is the allantosis known as in the fetus? In an adult?

A

In the fetus it is known as the urachus, but in the adult it becomes vestigial and is known as the median umbilical ligament.

109
Q

This congenital malformation of the kidneys can be both bilateral or unilateral. It is characterized by the absence of a kidney.

A

Renal Agenesis. Potter Syndrome is another name for the bilateral condition

110
Q

This congenital malformation of the kidneys is characterized by an incomplete development of the kidneys. Can be both unilateral or bilateral.

A

Renal hypoplasia

111
Q

This type of condition is characterized by symmetrically enlarged kidneys.

A

Congenital cystic kidneys

112
Q

How many types of congential cystic kidney are there?

113
Q

This type of congenital cystic kidney is found in infants.

114
Q

This type of congenital cystic kidney is unilateral, the kidneys are variable in size and shape, and the cysts grow larger with age.

115
Q

This type of congenital cystic kidney contains normal and abnormal tissue. Both kidneys are involved and it is often found in trisomy individuals.

116
Q

This type of congenital cystic kidney can result in urethral obstruction due to the accumulation of cysts in the collecting tubules. Requires mild surgery to repair.

117
Q

This type of congenital cystic kidney manifests itself in adults and can cause low back pain and kidney infections. Can result in death in the 50s if not treated.

118
Q

Horseshoe and donut kidneys are common in individuals with what conditions?

A

Trisomies or turner’s

119
Q

This condition is characterized by renal tumors in children that originate from the mesoderm. Symptoms include abnormal facial features and vision/urinary/ambulatory problems.

A

Wilm’s tumor

120
Q

The reproductive system develops at what time?

A

5th-6th week (indifferent stage: sex cannot be determined)

121
Q

When can sex identification occur?

122
Q

What types of tissue do the gonads develop from?

A

Coelomic epithelium, inner mesenchyme tissue, and primordial germ cells

123
Q

This is the precursor to the gonads.

A

Genital ridge

124
Q

What is the genital ridge covered by?

A

Coelom epithelium

125
Q

These structures are created from cells within the genital ridge and grow into the underlying mesenchyme.

A

Primary sex cords

126
Q

The indifferent gonad has what two components?

A

Cortex (outer layer) and medulla (inner layer)

127
Q

In the indifferent gonad, what happens to the cortex in males and females?

A

Males: cortex regresses
Females: cortex develops

128
Q

In the indifferent gonad, what happens to the medulla in males and females?

A

Males: medulla regresses
Female: medulla develops

129
Q

What develops from the testes cords?

A

Seminiferous tubules, tubuli recti, and rete testis

130
Q

What does each follicle contain?

A

Ooblasts (derives from primordial germ cells and follicular cells (derived from the cortical cords)

131
Q

The epididymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, cranial part-efferent ducts are formed from what?

A

Genital ducts

132
Q

The genitalia pass through what type of stage?

A

An indifferent stage

133
Q

What accessory glands are found in the male? Female?

A

Male: seminal vesicles, prostrate, bulbourethral glands
Female: there are none

134
Q

This congenital malformation is characterized by ovaries that are small in size, poor breast development, and a small uterus. it can be unilateral or bilateral.

A

Ovarian hypoplasia (turner’s syndrome)

135
Q

This congenital malformation is a result of the germ cells not migrating from the yolk sac.

A

Pure gonadal dysgenesis

136
Q

This condition is characterized by an individual appearing as a female despite the presence of testes. Genetically they are male, but raised as female.

A

Androgen Insensitivity or testicular feminization syndrome.

137
Q

A female would test positive in a chromatin test due to the presence of what?

A

Barr bodies

138
Q

A male would test negative in a chromatin test due to the absence of what?

A

Barr bodies

139
Q

This is a condition characterized by excessive androgen production from the adrenals. Occurs in genetic females and masculinization results.

A

Adrenogenital syndrome

140
Q

When does the cardiovascular system develop?

141
Q

Angioblasts develop from what?

A

Splanchnic mesoderm, mesenchyme of the yolk sac, mesenchyme of the umbilical cord, and mesoderm of the chorion

142
Q

What composes the primitive vascular system?

A

Vitelline veins, umbilical veins, and cardinal veins

143
Q

These veins are part of the primitive vascular system and return blood from the yolk sac.

A

Vitelline veins

144
Q

These veins are part of the primitive vascular system and bring blood from the chorion (placenta).

A

Umbilical veins

145
Q

These veins are part of the primitive vascular system and return blood from the body.

A

Cardinal veins

146
Q

How does the heart develop?

A

-Two thin walled endothelial tubes (endocardial heart tubes), which are the continuation of the first aortic arches form a single tube

147
Q

This is the sickle shaped crest acting as the roof of the atrium.

A

Septum Primum (1st wall)

148
Q

This is the opening between the septum primum and endocardial cushion.

A

Ostium Primum (1st opening)

149
Q

This is the opening in the septum primum

A

Ostium secundum (2nd opening)

150
Q

This septum is formed when the right atrium incorporates part of the sinus.

A

Septum secundum (2nd wall)

151
Q

This is the opening in the septum secundum

A

Oval foramen

152
Q

This is the opening in the wall separating the right and left heart atria. it is necessary for communication between right and left atria.

A

Foramen ovale

153
Q

Before birth, blood enters the right atrium from inferior vena cava to the left atrium via what?

A

Interatrial shunt

154
Q

During development, the interatrial shunt allows the blood of the fetus to bypass what organ?

155
Q

When does the septum primum, and septum secundum fuse and the oval foramen close?

A

After birth

156
Q

This developmental defect of the heart is characterized by the septum primum and septum secundum failing to fuse.

A

Probe patency of the oval foramen

157
Q

Simple ebb and flow type of circulation begins on what day of development?

158
Q

By what days does the heart have unidirectional blood flow and contractions of the heart tube.

A

28-30 days

159
Q

Oxygenated blood enters the fetus from the placenta via what?

160
Q

Deoxygenated blood leaves the fetal body via what?

161
Q

This structure is a shunt in the fetal pulmonary truck that diverts blood back to the aorta.

A

Ductus Arteriosus

162
Q

This structure is a shunt in the fetal heart that causes oxygenated blood to bypass the fetus’ developing liver to reach the vena cava.

A

Ductus Venosus

163
Q

During the 5th week ridges form in the walls of the truncus and bulbus. Their course is spiraled and eventually fuse to form the what structure?

A

Spiral septum or aorticopulmonary septum

164
Q

This congenital malformation is characterized by the absence of a heart.

165
Q

This congenital malformation is characterized by a heart that is located outside of the body through the sternal fissure either through the neck or a diaphragmatic heniation.

A

Ectopic cordis

166
Q

This congenital malformation is characterized by a heart that is located in the right hemithorax. It can occur alone, but is usually associated with other anomalies, such as situs inversus.

A

Dextra cardia

167
Q

This congenital malformation is characterized by a small patent foramen ovale or a complete absence of the interatrial septum. Individuals have a loud systolic murmur and exhibit cyanosis (bluing)

A

Atrial septal defect (ASD)

168
Q

This congenital malformation is similar to atrial septal defect. Individuals have a harsh systolic murmur (Erb’s point) and no cyanosis.

A

Ventricular septal defect (VSD)

169
Q

This congenital malformation is characterized by pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy. Symptoms include cyanosis (bluing) and paroxysmal dyspnea with exertion

A

Tetraology of Fallot

170
Q

What is the life expectancy of an individul with fallot without surgery?

A

Approximately 12 years

171
Q

What is the trilogy of fallot?

A
  • Pulmonary stenosis
  • Atrial septal defect
  • Right ventricular hypertrophy
172
Q

This is used to describe an individual whose organs are the mirror image of what they should be.

A

Situs inversus

Embryology (2 decks)

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