Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Unregulated cell division leads to what?

A

Cancer

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2
Q

Abnormal cell growth is controlled by what genes?

A

Protooncogenes and tumor suppressor genes

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3
Q

Proteins form these genes control cell growth and differntiation. If mutated they become known as oncogenes.

A

Protooncogenes

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4
Q

These genes control unregulated progression through the cell cycle. Loss of function of these genes predisposes cells to cancer.

A

Tumor suppressor genes

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5
Q

What are the two theories of cancer?

A

Clonal evolution model and the stem cell theory

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6
Q

This theory of cancer believes that a tumor develops from a single mutated cell and that every mutated cell has the potential to develop another tumor.

A

Clonal evolution model

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7
Q

What is the stepwise process of cancer development?

A

Initiation, Promotion, Progression, and Metastasis

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8
Q

Self sufficient growth signals, ignoring of anti-growth signals, evasion of apoptosis, limitless replication potential, angiogenesis, reprogramming of energy metabolism, evasion of immune destruction, and metastasis are all considered to be what?

A

The Hallmarks of Cancer

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9
Q

This process is due to injury or disease. Cells increase in size and lyse. Intracellular contents are inflammatory.

A

Necrosis

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10
Q

During this process cells shrink in size, plasma membrane buds off (blebs), phosphatidylserine moves from the inner to outer leaflet, mitochondria release cytochrome c, chromatin in the nucleus condenses and cells are finally engulfed by the macrophages. Another name for this is programmed cell death

A

Apoptosis

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11
Q

This is a specialized white blood cell that engulfs foreign invaders and cells that are no longer needed.

A

Macrophages

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12
Q

Macrophages bind to ____ on the apoptotic cell, internalizing and degrading the cell, preventing ____

A

Phosphatidylserine, Inflammation

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13
Q

This state occurs when the number of cells is relatively constant due to cell replication and cell death.

A

Homeostasis

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14
Q

Apoptosis is internally initiated by the insertion of what protein into the mitochondrial membrane?

A

Bax

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15
Q

After binding of Bax to the mitochondrial membrane within the cell this molecule triggers apoptosome complex in the cytoplasm, which leads to a caspase cascade to destroy protein and DNA.

A

Cytochrome C

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16
Q

Apoptosis is externally initiated by what?

A

Death receptors

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17
Q

In the initiation of apoptosis by an external signal, ____ ligand binds to its respective death receptor, thereby recruiting ____. The recruiting of these domains activate procaspase ___ to caspase ___.

A

Fas, Fas-associated death domain (FADD), 8, 8.

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18
Q

These three components make up the death inducing signaling complex when apoptosis is initiated by an external signal?

A

Fas receptor, FADD, and caspase 8.

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19
Q

These are proteases that mainly function during apoptosis.

A

Caspases

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20
Q

Which caspases are initiator caspases?

A

Caspases 2, 8, 9, and 10

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21
Q

Which caspases are effector caspases?

A

Caspases 3, 6, and 7

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22
Q

What proteins compose the prosurvival (antiapoptotic) proteins?

A

Members of Bcl-2 family (the BAD proteins)

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23
Q

What proteins compose the prodeath (apoptotic) proteins?

A

Bak and Bax proteins

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24
Q

What are some neurodegenerative diseases in which apoptosis is no longer working?

A
  • Schizophrenia (altered neuronal apoptosis)

- Dementia and Alzheimer’s (localized apoptosis)

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25
Q

What are some hallmarks of aging?

A

Genomic instability, telomere attrition, epigenetic alterations, loss of protein homeostasis, deregulated nutrient sensing, mitochondrial dysfunction, cellular senescence, stem cell exhaustion, and altered intracellular communication

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26
Q

This is a hallmark of aging and is characterized by an accumulation of DNA damage throughout life, loss of DNA repair mechanisms, and damage to the nuclear lamina.

A

Genomic instability

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27
Q

This is a hallmark of aging and is characterized by a lack of telomerase and special shelterin proteins hide telomere damage from repair mechanisms.

A

Telomere attrition

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28
Q

This is a hallmark of aging and is characterized by histone modifications (methylation), DNA modifications, Chromatin remodeling, and transcriptional alterations.

A

Epigenetic alterations

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29
Q

This is a hallmark of aging and is characterized by a decreased synthesis of chaperone proteins in aging and protein degradation.

A

Loss of protein homeostasis

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30
Q

This is a hallmark of aging and is characterized by anabolic pathways, slower replication, and sirtuins signal nutrient scarcity and promote cell survival and catabolism.

A

Deregulated nutrient sensing

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31
Q

This is a hallmark of aging and is characterized by the production of reactive oxygen species (ROS), a lower efficiency in ATP generation, and mitohormesis, which is the activation of defense mechanisms by toxins attacking mitochondria.

A

Mitochondrial dysfunction

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32
Q

This is a hallmark of aging and is characterized by a decrease in hematopoiesis and a decrease in the cell cycle due to more DNA damage and overexpression of INK4A (cyclin inhibitor)

A

Stem cell exhaustion

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33
Q

This is a hallmark of aging and is characterized by an increase in inflammation. Enhanced activation of NF-kB, senescent cells produce more inflammatory cytokines, less SIRT1.

A

Altered intracellular communication

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34
Q

This is a cell state characterized by a lack of replication. These cells do not re-enter the growth cycle, but are still metabolically active.

A

Senescence

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35
Q

Where is senescence beneficial? Detrimental?

A

It is beneficial for tumor suppression, but detrimental during aging

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36
Q

What are some causes of cellular senescence?

A

Telomere shortening, reactive oxygen species (ROS), and oncogene/tumor suppressor genes

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37
Q

What are some traits of cells in senescence?

A

Growth arrest, apoptotic resistance, change in gene expression, chromatin modifications, and senescence-associated beta-galactosidase

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38
Q

A decreased expression of cyclins and transcription factors and active cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitors p21 and p16 result in what type of cell cycle for senescent cells?

A

A irreversible cell cycle

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39
Q

Chromatin modifications in senescent cells result in more of this type of chromatin?

A

Heterochromatin

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40
Q

Sirtuins can both induce and inhibit what process?

A

Senescence

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41
Q

This is mainly produced in mitochondria from oxidative phosphorylation, can damage DNA in mitochondria, and the most common one is superoxide.

A

Reactive oxygen species

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42
Q

Senescent cells produce high levels of what two things?

A

Inflammatory cytokines and matrix metalloproteinases (MMPs)

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43
Q

This ion creates conditions of electropositivity outside of the cell and electronegativity inside the cell. It is primarily concentrated inside of nerves.

A

Potassium

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44
Q

This ion is concentrated outside of the nerve. Diffusion of it inside of the cell creates a membrane potential of +61mV.

A

Sodium

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45
Q

The membrane of a nerve is 100 times more permeable to what ion?

A

Potassium

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46
Q

A nerve in the resting state is known as what?

A

Polarized

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47
Q

This process is characterized by a nerve’s membrane becoming permeable to Na+. There is a large influx of Na into the cell.

A

Depolarization

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48
Q

This process is characterized by a nerve’s sodium channels closing and potassium channels opening. There is an efflux of K+.

A

Repolarization

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49
Q

The nerve action potential utilizes what type of channels?

A

Voltage-gated sodium and potassium channels.

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50
Q

Voltage-gated channels have three components what are they?

A
  • Activation gate: opens when the membrane potential changes
  • Selectivity filter: selects for a particular ion
  • Inactivation gate: found on sodium channels (located on the interior of the cell)
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51
Q

When do the sodium channels open?

A

When the membrane potential of a nerve is less negative (-70 to -50mV)

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52
Q

When do the sodium channels close?

A

Close due to the membrane potential becoming less negative

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53
Q

When do the potassium channels open?

A

They open as the membrane becomes less negative and when the sodium channels close

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54
Q

When do the potassium channels close?

A

When resting membrane potential is reached

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55
Q

What type of channels are calcium channels in terms of an action potential?

A

They are slow channels that provide a sustained depolarization

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56
Q

What type of channels are sodium channels in terms of an action potential?

A

They are fast channels that initiate an action potential

57
Q

What is the process of an action potential?

A
  • An event causes the membrane of a nerve to depolarize
  • Na influx
  • Positive feedback to further increase the membrane potential and sodium influx
  • Sodium channels begin to close and potassium channels begin to open
  • Repolarization
  • Hyperpolarization (Refractory period)
  • Return to resting potential
58
Q

What are some factors that can cause excitation?

A

Anything that causes Na+ to diffuse inside the cell in high enough concentrations due to:

  • Mechanical
  • Chemical
  • Electrical
59
Q

What are some inhibitors of excitation?

A
  • High extracellular fluid of Ca2+ concentration

- Local anesthetics inhibit Na channels from opening.

60
Q

Action potential are what type of response?

A

All or nothing

61
Q

What is the all or nothing principle?

A
  • Depolarization down the nerve only occurs if the conditions are right
  • If some point on the membrane is not able to generate enough voltage, the spread of depolarization stops
62
Q

What is necessary for reestablishing ionic concentration gradients?

A

Na+/K+ pumps (3 Na out 2 K in)

63
Q

What is the Na+/K+ pump dependent on to function?

A

ATPase and a sodium concentration

64
Q

In some action potentials, particularly the heart, there can be a plateau. What is this caused by?

A

A delay in repolarization

65
Q

Where can repetitive self-induced discharge of action potentials occur in the body?

A

Heart, smooth muscle, and neurons of the CNS

66
Q

What is repetitive discharge of action potentials required for?

A
  • Rhythmic heart beat
  • Peristalsis of intestines
  • Rhythmic control of breathing
67
Q

How does repetitive discharge of action potentials occur?

A

It occurs due to membranes becoming more permeable to K+

68
Q

What are the two types of synapses?

A

Chemical and electrical

69
Q

These synapses transmit a signal in one direction from the presynaptic neuron to the postsynaptic neuron

A

Chemical synapses

70
Q

What are the two types of neurotransmitters that can be released from the presynaptic terminal?

A

Excitatory and inhibitory

71
Q

What are the two types of receptors that can be found on the postsynaptic membranes?

A

Excitatory and inhibitory

72
Q

What are the two types of domains that the postsynaptic membrane contains?

A

Binding domain and the ionophore

73
Q

What are the two types of ionophores?

A

Ion channel and the second messenger activator

74
Q

What cations are involved in ion channels?

A

Mostly sodium, but some potassium and calcium. They are excitatory

75
Q

What anions are involved in ion channels?

A

Chloride. It is inhibitory

76
Q

Are ion channels fast or slow?

A

Fast

77
Q

Second messenger signaling in neurons uses what type of proteins? What does the neurotransmitter bind to?

A

Heterotrimeric G proteins. The neurotransmitter binds to Galpha

78
Q

What are the four classes of small molecule, fast-acting neurotransmiters?

A
  • Class I (Ach)
  • Class II (amines: NE, epinephrine, dopamine, serotonin, histamine)
  • Class III (amino acids: GABA, glycine, glutamate, aspartate)
  • Class IV (nitric oxide)
79
Q

How are small molecules, fast acting neurotransmitters absorbed?

A

Active transport into vesicles

80
Q

This small molecule neurotransmitter is secreted from the motor cortex, basal ganglia, motor neurons that innervate skeletal muscle, and postganglionic neurons in the sympathetic nervous system. It is mostly excitatory.

A

Acetylcholine

81
Q

This small molecule neurotransmitter is secreted by terminals of neurons in the brain, hypothalamus, and postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system. It is mostly excitatory.

A

Norepinephrine

82
Q

This small molecule neurotransmitter is secreted by neurons in the substantia nigra and are inhibitory.

A

Dopamine

83
Q

This small molecule neurotransmitter is secreted in the spinal cord and is inhibitory.

A

Glycine

84
Q

This small molecule neurotransmitter is secreted in the spinal cord, cerebellum, basal ganglia, and cortex. It is inhibitory.

A

GABA

85
Q

This small molecule neurotransmitter is secreted in sensory pathways and the cerebral cortex. It is excitatroy.

A

Glutamate

86
Q

This small molecule neurotransmitter is secreted in the brain stem and spinal cord. It is an inhibitor of pain.

A

Serotonin

87
Q

This small molecule neurotransmitter is secreted in areas of the brain responsible for long term memory and behavior. It is not stored in vesicles, modifies metabolic functions in postsynaptic neurons, and is excitatory.

A

Nitric oxide

88
Q

What are the types of neuropeptides, slow acting transmitters or growth factors?

A

Hypothalamic-releasing hormones, pituitary peptides, peptides that act on the gut and brain

89
Q

Where are neuropeptides, slow acting transmitters, or growth factors synthesized?

A

Ribosomes

90
Q

Where do post-translational modifications of neuropeptides occur?

A

Golgi complex

91
Q

What is the membrane potential of a resting neuron? Excitatory? Inhibitory?

A
  • Resting: -65mV in spinal motor neurons -80mV in peripheral nerves
  • Excitatory: -45mV
  • Inhibitory: -70mV
92
Q

What is summation?

A

40-80 presynaptic terminals discharging at the same time to generate and action potential.

93
Q

What neurotransmitter is primarily involved with presynaptic inhibition?

A

GABA, which causes the opening of anion channels (Cl-)

94
Q

What amount of voltage is required to reach threshold for the firing of an action potential?

A

10-20mV

95
Q

What is temporal summation?

A

Rapidly successive discharges of 1 presynaptic terminal

96
Q

Neurons are often excited, but not to the extent that threshold is reached. This is known as what?

A

Facilitated

97
Q

This is a special characteristic of dendrites that is characterized by a decrease in membrane potential as it moves from dendrite to soma.

A

Decremental conduction

98
Q

This is a special characteristic of synaptic transmission, which is when overexcited neurons lose their excitability after a while. It is protective against excess neuronal activity and occurs mainly due to exhaustion of stores of transmitters.

A

Fatigue

99
Q

Does alkalosis increase or decrease the excitability of a neuron?

A

Increase

100
Q

Does acidosis increase or decrease the excitability of a neuron?

A

Decrease

101
Q

Lack of oxygen or this condition for a few seconds causes inexcitability of some neurons?

A

Hypoxia

102
Q

What do excitatory drugs, such as caffeine do to the neurons?

A

They reduce threshold for excitation

103
Q

What do inhibitory drugs, such as anesthetics do to the neurons?

A

They increase threshold for excitation.

104
Q

What is the minimum amount of time for synaptic delay?

A

0.5 milliseconds

105
Q

Where do motor neurons originate from?

A

Anterior horns of the spinal cord

106
Q

This is a highly branched nerve fiber outside of the muscle fiber plasma membrane.

A

Motor end plate

107
Q

How is Ach secreted?

A
  • Nerve impulse reaches neuromuscular junction
  • Ca channels open and flux into the presynaptic terminal
  • Ca attracts Ach vesicles to the membrane next to dense bars
  • Vesicles fuse with the membrane and Ach is released
108
Q

The end plate potential can be weakened and therefore not reach threshold due to medications and toxins. What is the end result in muscle?

A

Paralysis

109
Q

Each impulse at a neuromuscular junction is 3x stronger than the end plate potential necessary to stimulate contraction. This is known as what?

A

Safety factor

110
Q

Repetitive discharge in muscles can lead to what?

A

Fatigue

111
Q

This enzyme is found within the synaptic space and degrades Ach to acetyl-CoA and choline.

A

Acetylcholinesterase

112
Q

This is an autoimmune disease where antibodies attack Ach receptors at the neuromuscular junction. Results in paralysis and death if severe enough.

A

Myasthenia gravis

113
Q

Which action potential is faster, a muscle or a nerve?

A

Nerve (~50-60m/sec) while a muscle is (3-5m/sec)

114
Q

Do muscle action potentials penetrate the muscle fiber?

A

No, it is transmitted along the T-tubules

115
Q

These structures run from the cell membrane all the way through the muscle fiber. They branch, interlace myofibrils, and have one end open to extracellular fluid.

A

Transverse (T) tubules

116
Q

During this event, the T-tubules are stimulated and the release of Ca occurs. The Ca concentration increases 500x and this event lasts ~1/20 second.

A

Calcium ‘pulse’

117
Q

Compare eukaryotes and prokaryotes.

A
  • Eukaryotes: have a nucleus, linear DNA, and internal membrane bound organelles
  • Prokaryotes: lack a nucleus, have circular DNA, and lack internal membrane bound organelles
118
Q

What are the two types of glycocalyx in prokaryotes? What are their functions?

A
  • Capsule: firmly attached to the cell surface and may prevent bacteria from being recognized by the host
  • Slime layer: loosely attached to cell surface and allows prokaryotes to attach to surfaces
119
Q

This external structure of bacteria is responsible for movement, are composed of three parts (filament, hook, and basal body), and are not present in all bacteria.

A

Flagella

120
Q

This is a sticky bristle-like projection used by bacteria to adhere to one another, to hosts, and to substances in the environment. They are shorter than flagella and play an important role in biofilms.

A

Fimbrae

121
Q

These are tubules composed of pilin. They are longer than fimbrae, but shorter than flagella. They mediate the transfer of DNA from one cell to another (conjugation)

A

Pili

122
Q

This bacterial structure provides structure and shape to the cell as well as protecting it from osmotic forces. They are composed of peptidoglycan.

A

Cell walls

123
Q

What are the two basic types of bacterial cell walls?

A

Gram (+) and Gram (-)

124
Q

This bacterial cell wall has a relatively thick layer of peptidoglycan, contains teichoic acids, and appears purple following the Gram staining procedure.

A

Gram (+) bacterial cell walls

125
Q

This bacterial cell wall has a thin layer of peptidoglycan. Has a bilayer membrane outside the peptidoglycan composed of phospholipids, proteins, and lipopolysaccharides. They appear red following the Gram staining procedure.

A

Gram (-) bacterial cell walls

126
Q

This is a potent endotoxin that dead cells release. This release may trigger fever, vasodilation, inflammation, shock, and blood clotting.

A

Lipid A

127
Q

Bacterial cytoplasmic membranes maintain what?

A

Concentration and electrical gradients

128
Q

The ribosomes of prokaryotes have their sized in Svedbergs (S). How big are they?

A

70S. They are composed of 2 subunits (30S and 50S)

129
Q

These are unique structures produced by some bacteria that are used as a defensive strategy of unfavorable conditions.

A

Endospores

130
Q

These are miniscule, acellular, infectious agents that have either DNA or RNA.

A

Viruses

131
Q

What is the extracellular state of a virus called?

A

Virion

132
Q

What are the components of the majority of viruses?

A

Nucleic acid and a capsid

133
Q

Viral replication is dependent on what?

A

The host’s organelles and enzymes to produce new virions

134
Q

What type of replication do viruses typically undergo?

A

Lytic replication: the cell most often dies

135
Q

Term refers to cells being replaced at the same rate as they are lost

A

Homeostasis

136
Q

What process occurs between your fingers and toes to “sculpt your digits

A

Apoptosis

137
Q

What is the resting potential of a nerve?

A

-70 to -80mV

138
Q

Where does plateauing of an action potential typically occur?

A

In heart tissue

139
Q

This is a type of active transport in which the contents are modified before entering the prokaryote.

A

Group translocation