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ANS 309 > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Which side of the heart will an adult heartworm live in?

A

Right

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2
Q

True/False: In ferrets, surgical removal of adult heartworms is an option in some cases.

A

True

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3
Q

What are some possible consequences of skipping heartworm prevention in dogs?

A. Risk of Infection
B. Heavy Costs
C. Lack of Welfare
D. All of the Above

A

All of the above

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4
Q

Which is a symptom of heartworm in cats?

A

Vomiting

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5
Q

What is the most common Clinical Sign of Intervertebral Disk Disease?

A

Cervical Spinal Pain

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6
Q

What is NOT a way to reduce the risk of IVDD?

A

Glucosamine Supplement

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7
Q

What is the goal of IVDD surgery?

A

The goal is to relieve pressure of the
affected vertebrae

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8
Q

Why is IVDD research still important to animal health?

a. There are new studies that still need to be tested with further trials
b. Cost effective treatments need to be made available to the general public
c. Symptom management can be
improved for all body systems
d. All of the above

A

All of the above

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9
Q

All of the following can lead to foot rot, except:
- Wet, muddy conditions
- Slippery, uneven surfaces
- Stress from overcrowding or poor nutrition
- Genetic predisposition

A

Slippery, uneven surfaces

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10
Q

True or False: Foot rot is a highly contagious virus that affects
the area between the toes of cattle?

A

False (bacterial infection)

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11
Q

What impact can foot rot have on a dairy cow?

A

Reduced Milk Yield

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12
Q

True or False: Farms that utilize footbaths twice a week have
35% less cases of foot rot in their cattle than farms that do
not.

A

True

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13
Q

True/False: Naked mole rats are resistant to cancer partially due to the presence of a sugar matrix called hyaluronic acid (HA), which also contributes to their longevity and wrinkled skin.

A

True

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14
Q

What adaptation allows naked mole rats to survive in low-oxygen environments?

A

Shifting to fructose metabolism for energy conservation

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15
Q

True/False: Naked mole rats show no decline in glucose handling, insulin sensitivity, or basal metabolic rate (BMR) even after 24 years of age.

A

True

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16
Q

Which of the following is not a feature contributing to naked mole rats’ longevity?

A. Stable gene expression over time
B. High vascular elasticity and cardiac reserve
C. Increased plasma phosphate levels for bone health
D. Cytoprotective pathways evolved from living in a stressful environment

A

Increased plasma phosphate levels for bone health

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17
Q

(T/F) MRSA can be generally ignored as very few strains can be fatal.

A

False

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18
Q

What are the main visible symptoms of MRSA?

A

Rash and Erythema

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19
Q

(T/F) Seborrhea in cats have a single root cause.

A

False

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20
Q

(T/F) Diamond Disease in pigs cannot be treated and there is no vaccine.

A

False

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21
Q

What causes the basal insulin measurements to increase?

A

Feeding Concentrates

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22
Q

True/ False: Equine Metabolic syndrome is a bacterial, transmittable disease

A

False

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23
Q

Diet management for the prevention of laminitis is can include

A

Using a grazing muzzle, decreasing grain and pasture

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24
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common risk factor for EMS?

A) Obesity
B) Insulin resistance
C) Older horses
D) High levels of physical activity

A

High levels of physical activity

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25
Q

Why manage pain?

A

Animal welfare, speeds recovery, economic considerations,

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26
Q

Which type of pain is a symptom of disease?

A

Acute Pain

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27
Q

Which type of pain is sudden onset, and can be severe?

A

Acute Pain

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28
Q

Acute Pain

A

Serves as a biological function- a warning

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29
Q

Which type of pain lasts weeks to months, persists beyond expected healing time?

A

Chronic Pain

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30
Q

Which type of pain is due to tumor growth, metastatic disease,
effects of chemotherapy and radiation?

A

Cancer-related pain

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31
Q

Which type of pain is due to damage to central or peripheral
nervous system (trauma, vascular injury, infection)

A

Neuropathic

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32
Q

Anesthetics

A

drugs which cause a temporary loss
of sensation in a limited area (local) or a temporary loss of consciousness (general)

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33
Q

Analgesic

A

drugs which relieve pain

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34
Q

Multimodal Analgesia

A

Use of analgesics from more than 1 class to relieve pain

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35
Q

When is pain management
needed?

A

Management procedures (castration, dehorning)
Medical conditions (lameness, dystocia, colic)

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36
Q

Difficulties Associated With
Pain Management

A
  • Assessing presence of pain
  • Approved drug availability/extra label use
  • Withdrawal times in food-producing species
  • Cost
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37
Q

Air conducting portion of respiratory system

A

Passageways that air
moves through from outside the body to the lungs

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38
Q

Gas exchange portion of respiratory system

A

Alveoli within the lungs -
oxygen moves into the blood and carbon dioxide moves out of blood

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39
Q

Bovine Respiratory Disease (BRD)

A

Pneumonia or shipping fever

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40
Q

What causes Bovine Respiratory Disease (BRD)

A

Stress
Viral infection
Invasion of lungs by pathogenic bacteria

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41
Q

Nasal turbinates

A

create turbulent airflow
and largest particles adhere to nasal mucosa

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42
Q

Mucociliary escalator

A

covers all air conducting surfaces, particles land in mucus layer, mucus and particles are moved toward
pharynx by cilia and are swallowed

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43
Q

Pulmonary alveolar macrophages (PAMs)

A

use phagocytosis to destroy pathogens

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44
Q

2nd line of defense in lungs

A

Neutrophils

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45
Q

Causes of Pulmonary Defense Impairment

A
  • Impairment predisposes to bacterial
    pneumonia
  • Viral infection
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46
Q

Rhinitis

A

inflammation of nasal cavity

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47
Q

Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis (IBR)

A

Acute, contagious disease of cattle
Caused by bovine herpesvirus-1 (BHV-1)

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48
Q

Pneumonia

A

inflammation of the lungs

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49
Q

Prevention of BRD

A

Build Immunity (colostrum, vaccination, reduce stress),
Mitigate Risk (biosecurity/biocontainment,
avoid overcrowding, minimize stress,
adequate ventilation)

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50
Q

Intranasal Vaccines

A

Stimulate an increase in IgA (antibody) levels in nasal
mucosal cells to fight pathogens

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51
Q

Which type of vaccine has a quicker immune response?

A

Intranasal

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52
Q

Which type of vaccine has a longer duration of protection?

A

Injectable

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53
Q

Treatment of BRD

A

Supportive care, if bacterial-antibiotics may be necessary

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54
Q

Preconditioning

A

Health management program for reducing sickness and death rate and improving weight
gains

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55
Q

Influenza A Virus in Swine (IAV-S)

A

Many different subtypes of influenza A viruses

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56
Q

Clinical Signs of IAV-S

A

High fever (104-106
* Serous nasal discharge
* Dyspnea
* Sneezing
* Anorexia
* Lethargy
* Followed by development of barking cough

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57
Q

Prevention/Control of IAV-S

A
  • Biosecurity practices!
  • Good ventilation systems
  • Vaccinate
  • Workers get seasonal flu vaccine
  • Workers with flu symptoms stay away from
    pigs
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58
Q

Function of ventilation

A
  • Maintain a comfortable animal environment
  • Remove excess moisture, heat, disease
    organisms, and gases (ammonia, hydrogen
    sulfide, methane) without causing drafts
  • Replenish oxygen supply by bringing in drier,
    cooler outside air
  • Move air past the animals to remove excess
    heat (eliminate areas of still air)
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59
Q

T/F: To manage HYPP in horses, feeds with
high potassium should be avoided.

A

True

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60
Q

T/F: Clinical signs in horses with HYPP are
always symptomatic

A

False

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61
Q

What treatment should be used when treating severe cases of HYPP in horses?

A

Calcium Gluconate

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62
Q

T/F: HYPP in horses is caused by a genetic mutation

A

True

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63
Q

African Swine Fever is classified as having what type of
disease occurrence?

A

Endemic

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64
Q

Main vector in Africa for African Swine Fever transmission?

A

Ticks

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65
Q

Clinical Signs of African Swine Fever

A

Sudden Death
Respiratory Distress
Fever

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66
Q

What are the biggest reasons ASF is
important to animal health & disease management as a whole?

A

Animal health & welfare
Human health & welfare
Swine production & commercial
operations

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67
Q

T/F. The three ways to diagnose Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis are PCR testing, complete blood count, and serum biochemistry.

A

True

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68
Q

Name 3 symptoms of Feline Viral
Rhinotracheitis

A

Sneezing
Fever
Redness of eyes

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69
Q

How can you prevent Feline Viral
Rhinotracheitis?

A

Keeping new cats separated until tested and vaccinated.
Keep shared spaces clean.
Avoid letting cats interact with strays or new animals of unknown
medical origin

70
Q

T/F. Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis can be transmitted by sharing litter boxes.

71
Q

Common clinical signs of altered digestive function

A

Excessive salivation
Vomiting
Abdominal pain
Abdominal distention
Diarrhea

72
Q

Increase in the frequency, fluidity, or volume of bowel movements

73
Q

Causes of Diarrhea

A
  • Bacteria
  • Viruses
  • Parasites
  • Abrupt change in diet
  • Medications
  • Toxins
74
Q

Decreased or damaged absorptive
surface area (villus atrophy/microvilli damage)

A

Malabsorption

75
Q

increased numbers of
osmotically active particles (sugars) within intestinal lumen

A

Osmotic Overload

76
Q

enterotoxins cause increased secretion of electrolytes (sodium/chloride) into intestinal lumen and water follows

77
Q

A carrier which transfers an infective agent from one host to another (rodents, birds, flies)

78
Q

Enteric Colibacillosis

A

Diarrhea caused by E. coli

79
Q

Route of Infection by E. coli

A

Fecal – oral route from contaminated teats during nursing or from environment

80
Q

E. coli prevention

A
  • vaccinate pregnant sows
  • all in/all out movement
  • avoid chilling piglets
81
Q

E. coli treatment

A
  • Antibiotics
  • Oral electrolytes (help prevent dehydration)
  • warm, dry environment
82
Q

Rotaviral enteritis

A

Diarrhea caused by Rotavirus

83
Q

Rotavirus route of infection

A

Fecal – oral route from contaminated teats during nursing or from environment. Carrier sows shed
virus in feces

84
Q

Rotavirus prevention

A
  • vaccinate pregnant sows
  • all in/all out movement
  • avoid chilling piglets
85
Q

Rotavirus treatment

A
  • Antibiotics
  • Oral electrolytes (help prevent dehydration)
  • warm, dry environment
86
Q

E. coli symptom

A

Watery diarrhea, possible vomiting, hypothermia
* Minimal intestinal lesions (mild villous atrophy)

87
Q

Rotavirus symptom

A

Diarrhea (usually white to yellow color) occasional vomiting, usually non-fatal

88
Q

What is Johne’s disease?

A

Fatal, contagious gastrointestinal disease

89
Q

Is Johne’s disease more common in beef or dairy herds

90
Q

paratuberculosis

A

Johne’s disease

91
Q

How does infection of Johne’s disease occur?

A

Infection occurs by ingestion of bacteria in first few months of life, but symptoms may not show up until years later (subclinical phase 2-10 years)

92
Q

How is Johne’s disease transmitted?

A

Primarily fecal-oral route from manure- contaminated milk, water, feed, or swallowing manure

93
Q

Johne’s disease Symptoms

A
  • rapid weight loss
  • diarrhea
  • MAP infects cells of the ileum
94
Q

Johne’s disease prevention

A
  • purchase from Johne’s free herds
  • purchase test-negative animals
  • Herd certification programs

auctions=risky

95
Q

Johne’s disease testing

A
  • fecal sample
  • blood/milk test
  • PCR
  • test soil, water
  • at least 18 months old
96
Q

Johne’s disease control

A
  • test and cull cows
  • cull offspring of positive cows
  • herd/environmental control
97
Q

Johne’s disease treatment

A

None are feasible

98
Q

Which part of the nervous system contains the brain and spinal
cord?

A

Central nervous system (CNS)

99
Q

Which part of the nervous system contains the nerves that link
the brain to the rest of the body?

A

Peripheral nervous system (PNS)

100
Q

Equine Herpes Virus (EHV) transmission

A
  • Aerosol
  • Ingestion
  • Infectious materials – nasal and ocular secretions, saliva, abortive fluids
  • Fomites – clothing, tack, feeding supplies etc
101
Q

Equine Herpes Virus (EHV) clinical signs (respiratory form)

A
  • Affects mostly young horses
  • Fever up to 105⁰ F
  • Nasal discharge – watery (serous) then becomes cloudy
  • Decreased appetite
  • Depression
  • +/- cough
102
Q

Equine Herpes Virus (EHV) prevention

A

Biosecurity!!

103
Q

Equine Herpes Virus (EHV) differential diagnosis

A
  • Rabies
  • EEE, WEE, VEE
  • WNV – West Nile virus
  • EPM – equine protozoal myeloencephalitis
  • Trauma
  • Tetanus
104
Q

Equine Herpes Virus (EHV) treatment (respiratory form)

A
  • Supportive – time off to recover
  • Anti-inflammatory medication – Bute, Banamine
  • Antibiotics may be needed for secondary bacterial
    infection (do not kill virus)
105
Q

Equine Herpes Virus 1 (EHV1)

A

causes respiratory, abortion, neurological problems

106
Q

Equine Herpes Virus 2 (EHV2)

A

causes eye problems

107
Q

Equine Herpes Virus 4 (EHV4)

A

causes respiratory and abortion problems

108
Q

Equine Herpes Virus (EHV) clinical signs (Neurological form)

A
  • Clinical respiratory disease may or may not be present
  • Individual or multiple horses affected
  • Rapid onset of clinical signs
  • Fever +/-
  • Spinal cord signs – weakness, toe dragging, incoordination, hind limbs usually affected more than front limbs, inability to urinate or defecate, recumbency
109
Q

Equine Herpes Virus (EHV) treatment (neurological form)

A
  • Supportive – minimize stress, quiet, safe environment
  • Anti-inflammatory medications – Bute, Banamine, corticosteroids
  • Nutrition – elevate feed and water, stomach tube, IV fluids
  • Bladder catheter, evacuate rectum
  • Sling if recumbent
110
Q

Equine Encephalitis transmission

A

Mosquitoes

111
Q

Equine Encephalitis clinical signs

A
  • Fever, depression, anorexia
  • Behavioral changes
  • Neurological signs – head pressing, circling, blindness, seizures, coma
  • Recumbency and death
112
Q

Equine Encephalitis diagnosis

A
  • Clinical signs and time of year
  • Serology – antibodies to virus
  • Necropsy – histological findings, viral isolation
113
Q

Equine Encephalitis differential diagnosis

A
  • Rabies
  • EPM – equine protozoal myeloencephalitis
  • Trauma
  • Bacterial meningitis
114
Q

Equine Encephalitis treatment

A
  • Supportive only – maintain hydration, nutrition
  • Anti-inflammatories – Bute, Banamine
  • Control seizures if present

*full recovery is rare

115
Q

Equine encephalitis prevention

A
  • Vaccine – initially 2 injection series, then annual booster (every 6 mths. in some areas) prior to mosquito season
  • Control mosquito population – eliminate standing water
116
Q

Strangles is caused by which of the
following?

  • Protozoal
  • Virus
  • Bacterial
117
Q

What are the disadvantages of
using Penicillin to treat strangles?

A
  • Can increase the duration of clinical signs
  • Prevents full immune response
118
Q

What are some prevention strategies of Strangles?

A
  • Biosecurity
  • Serology Testing
119
Q

What is most likely the cause of death
and drop in egg productions?

A

Contamination to wetland or exposure
to infected wild birds

120
Q

Which management practice can be used
to diagnose the disease on the farm?

A

Conducting laboratory tests on
affected birds

121
Q

Which of the following diseases is often
associated with wetland exposure for poultry?

A

Avian Influenza

122
Q

True or False: Free-range practices can increase
the risk of poultry being exposed to pathogens
from wild birds.

123
Q

Acute, progressive viral encephalomyelitis

124
Q

Rabies transmission

A

Bite of a rabid animal- virus is in saliva

125
Q

Rabies Clinical Signs

A
  • Acute behavioral changes
  • Ataxia
  • Unexplained progressive paralysis
126
Q

Rabies Diagnosis

A

Fluorescent antibody test on brain tissue

127
Q

Rabies Prevention

128
Q

Rabies Cause

A

Lyssavirus

129
Q

Tetanus Cause

A

bacteria called Clostridium tetani (C.
tetani)

130
Q

Tetanus Clinical Signs

A
  • Sudden movements or noises lead to generalized
    muscle spasms
  • Spasms of muscles of head make eating difficult
    (lockjaw)
  • Difficulty walking and turning
  • Erect ears, tail stiff and extended, nostrils dilated
  • Prolapse of 3rd eyelid
  • “Sawhorse stance”
  • Sweating, increased heart and respiratory rate
131
Q

Tetanus Diagnosis

A
  • Clinical signs and previous trauma
  • tetanus toxin in serum, finding bacteria
    on gram-stained smears, or anaerobic culture of
    bacteria
132
Q

Tetanus Treatment

A

In early stages of disease – tetanus antitoxin IV, draining and cleaning wounds, antibiotics

133
Q

Tetanus prevention

A

tetanus toxoid vaccine

134
Q

Stable Animal Population

A

population not changing much

135
Q

Transient Animal Population

A

animals moving in and out of population
regularly

136
Q

Combination Animal Population

A

stable and transient populations in
contact

137
Q

Stable Animal Population Management

A
  • Identify sick animals/carriers
  • Identify pathogens
  • Disease screening
  • Vaccinations
  • Use of quarantine/isolation
138
Q

Transient Animal Population Management

A
  • Prevent and control disease
  • Challenges – environmental stress, crowding,
    changing population, disease screening, air quality,
    cleaning and disinfection, use of quarantine/isolation,
    training employees or volunteers
139
Q

Combination Animal Population Management

A
  • Population control in transient population
  • Challenges – catching members of transient
    population, disease screening, nutritional status,
    parasites, who pays for transient population costs
140
Q

Methods of pregnancy diagnosis (small animal)

A
  • Abdominal palpation of uterus
  • Radiographs
  • Ultrasounds
  • Blood relaxin levels
141
Q

can detect swellings in uterus of developing puppies (~25-35 days optimum time)

A

Abdominal palpation of uterus

142
Q

useful during last 3 weeks of gestation
when skeletons of puppies are visible, can determine
number of puppies in litter

A

Radiographs

143
Q

Can detect developing embryos as early as 3
weeks after breeding

A

Ultrasounds

144
Q

hormone produced by developing
placenta after implantation of embryo. Can be detected as early as 22-27 days after breeding

A

Blood relaxin levels

145
Q

Methods of pregnancy diagnosis (large animal)

A
  • Rectal palpation – uterus and ovaries
  • Transrectal ultrasound
  • Blood and milk tests
146
Q

Dystocia causes

A
  • birth canal too small
  • large fetus,
    abnormal position of fetus in uterus,
  • breed of dog (Bulldog, Pug) or cat (Persian, Himalayan)
147
Q

Why spay/neuter?

A
  • Health benefits
  • Prevent unwanted births
  • Behavior benefits
  • Live longer
148
Q

Signs of digestive tract disease in chickens

A
  • Diarrhea
  • Poor growth
  • Weight loss
  • Drop in egg production
149
Q

Signs of respiratory disease in chickens

A
  • Sneezing, coughing
  • Nasal and ocular discharge
  • Swollen eyes, sinuses, comb, wattles
  • Gasping for breath
  • Dirty shoulders
  • Noisy breathing
  • Drop in egg production
150
Q

Fowl pox on skin- Virus is found in crusts and scabs

A

Dry (cutaneous) form

151
Q

Fowl pox on mucous membranes of
mouth, eye

A

Wet (diphtheritic) form

152
Q

Fowl pox transmission

A
  • Contact through abrasions in skin
  • Biting insects - mosquitoes
  • Needles
153
Q

Fowl pox diagnosis

A
  • Suspect based on necropsy findings – confirm with
    histopathology
  • Isolation of virus
154
Q

Fowl Pox treatment

A

none
- can vaccinate during outbreak

155
Q

Fowl Pox prevention

A
  • Vaccine
  • Chickens vaccinated with fowl and pigeon pox
  • Turkeys vaccinated with either turkey or fowl pox
156
Q

Mycoplasmosis (chickens) transmission

A
  • Transovarian – hen laying the egg has an ovarian
    infection and the contents of the egg are
    contaminated with the pathogen before the
    eggshell is formed
  • Bird to bird – aerosols
  • Fomites
157
Q

Mycoplasmosis (chickens) clinical signs

A
  • Swollen sinuses
  • Noisy breathing
  • Nasal discharge
  • Coughing
  • Decreased feed consumption
  • Weight loss
158
Q

Mycoplasmosis diagnosis

A

Bacterial culture

159
Q

Mycoplasmosis treatment

A

antibiotics reduce clinical signs and
transmission through eggs, but do not eliminate
infections

160
Q

Mycoplasmosis prevention

A
  • eliminate infected breeding stock,
  • biosecurity,
  • cleaning/disinfecting,
  • replace litter,
  • purchase from NPIP flocks
161
Q

Blackhead

A

Histomoniasis

162
Q

Histomoniasis transmission

A

Ingestion of protozoal cysts, earthworms containing
cysts, “cloacal drinking”

163
Q

Histomoniasis clinical signs

A
  • Bright yellow manure
  • Listlessness
  • Ruffled feathers
  • Drooping wings
  • +/- Cyanotic (blue) head
  • +/- Weight loss
164
Q

Histomoniasis treatment

165
Q

Histomoniasis prevention

A

Do not keep chickens with turkeys or
other susceptible birds

166
Q

Histomoniasis diagnosis

A

histopathology of liver, ceca

167
Q

Plague cause

A

Yersinia pestis

168
Q

Plague hosts

A

mice, rats, chipmunks, fleas, prairie dogs, rabbits, squirrels

169
Q

Plague treatment

A

Antibiotic

170
Q

Plague transmission

A
  • hosts
  • handling tissue or blood from infected animal
  • inhalation of infected droplets
171
Q

Plague clinical signs

A

Vomiting,
nausea,
fever

ANS 309 (1 decks)

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