Final Exam Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

attraction-selection-attrition (ASA) model

A

model that proposes that organizations and individuals undergo a process of jointly assessing probable fit based primarily on personality characteristics. Through a process of attraction selection and attrition, the goal is to make the workforce homogeneous with respect to personality characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

realistic job preview (RJP)

A

technique for providing practical information about a job to prospective employee; includes information about the task and context of the work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

socialization

A

process by which a new employee becomes aware of the values and procedure of an organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

culture

A

a system in which individuals share meanings and common ways of viewing events and objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

democratic climate

A

organizational climate described by Lewin as less structured with greater opportunity for individual responsibility and risk taking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

autocratic climate

A

organizational climate described as highly structured with little opportunity for individual responsibility or risk taking at the lowest level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

climate

A

a shared perception among employees regarding their work entity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

contingency theories of organization

A

theories proposing that the best way to structure an organization depends on the circumstances of the organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Theory Y

A

theory that describes managers who believe subordinates are motivated to meet goals in the absence of organizational control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Theory X

A

theory that describes managers who believe subordinates must be controlled to meet organizational ends –Utilize external motivators to maintain control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

human relations theory

A

theory that adds a personal or human element to the study of organizations; considers the interrelationship between an organizations requirements and the characteristics of its members

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

classic organizational theory

A

theory that assumes there is one best configuration for an organization, regardless of its circumstances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

organizational chart

A

diagram of an organizations structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

span of control

A

a concept that describes the number of positions or people reporting to an individual in an organization –The width

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

structure

A

the formal way that an organization is designed in terms of division of labor, delegation of authority and span of control; represented by the number of levels in an organization –Height

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

delegation of authority

A

a concept that describes which lower-level employees report to employees above them in an organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

division of labor

A

the division of tasks performed in an organization, into specialized jobs and departmental functions –Method of decreasing an organization, consisting of multiple dimensions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

bureaucracy

A

the ideal form of organization: included a formal hierarchy, division of labor and a clear set of operating procedures –Proposed by sociologist Max Weber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

organization

A

a group of people who have a common goal and who follow a set of operating procedure to develop products and services

Organizing is crucial for organizations

The way an organization goes about organizing will vary across the fields, industries and institutions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

time horizon

A

cultural dimensions that affects whether managers and employees focus on short term or long term goals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

team coordination training

A

training that involves teaching team members about sharing information, managing conflict, solving problems, clarifying roles and making decisions; used to help team members learn to employ the resources of the entire team effectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

guided team self-correction training

A

A
team training intervention
in which team members
learn to diagnose the
team’s problems and
develop effective solutions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

team leader training

A

Training of the team’s
leader in conflict
resolution and team
coordination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

cross-training

A

Training
that involves rotating team
members through different positions on the team
so that they can acquire
an understanding of the
duties of their teammates
and an overview of the
team’s task.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

team-role theory

A

Theory
proposed by Belbin that
effective teams contain a
combination of individuals
capable of working in nine
team roles; used by organizations and management
consultants in Europe and
Australia to assess and
develop teams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

risky-shift phenomenon

A

Tendency
for groups to make more
risky decisions than
individuals; related to the
more general phenomenon of group polarization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

group polarization

A

Tendency for groups to make
more extreme decisions
than those made by
individuals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

groupthink

A

Mode of
thinking that group members engage in when they
are deeply involved in a
cohesive group and when
their desire for agreement
overrides their motivation to appraise alternative courses of action
realistically.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

cohesion

A

cohesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

social loafing

A

Reduced
motivation and performance in groups that
occurs when there is a
reduced feeling of individual accountability or a
reduced opportunity for
evaluation of individual
performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

coordination loss

A

Reduced group
performance that occurs
when team members
expend their energies in
different directions or fail
to synchronize or coordinate their work.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

norms

A

Informal and
sometimes unspoken rules
that teams adopt to regulate members’ behavior.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

psychological diversity

A

Differences in
underlying attributes such
as skills, abilities, personality characteristics, attitudes, beliefs, and values;
may also include functional, occupational, and
educational backgrounds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

demographic diversity

A

Differences in
observable attributes or
demographic characteristics such as age, gender,
and ethnicity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

shared mental model

A

Organized way for
team members to think
about how the team will
work; helps team members
understand and predict
the behavior of their
teammates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

team composition

A

The
attributes of team members, including skills,
abilities, experiences, and
personality characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

input-process-output model of team effectiveness

A

A model
that provides links among
team inputs, processes,
and outputs, thereby
enabling an understanding of how teams perform
and how to maximize their
performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

virtual-communication skills

A

Skills used in virtual
team interactions, including rephrasing unclear
sentences or expressions
so that all team members
understand what is being
said, acknowledging the
receipt of messages, and
responding within one
business day.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

virtual-socialization skills

A

Skills used in
virtual team interactions,
including soliciting team
members’ feedback on
the work process used to
accomplish team goals,
expressing appreciation
for ideas and completed
tasks, and apologizing
for mistakes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

virtual-collaboration behaviors

A

Behaviors that
characterize virtual team
interactions, including
exchanging ideas without
criticism, agreeing on
responsibilities, and meeting deadlines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

virtual team

A

Team that
has widely dispersed members working together
toward a common goal
and linked through
computers and other
technology.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

autonomous work group

A

Specific kind of
production team that
has control over a variety
of functions, including
planning shift operations,
allocating work, determining work priorities,
performing a variety of
work tasks, and recommending new hires as
work group members.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

production team

A

Team
that consists of frontline
employees who produce
tangible output.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

project team

A

Team
that is created to solve
a particular problem or
set of problems and is disbanded after the project is
completed or the problem is solved; also called
an ad hoc committee,
a task force, or a crossfunctional team.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

quality circle

A

Work group
arrangement that typically
involves 6 to 12 employees
who meet regularly to
identify work-related problems and generate ideas
to increase productivity or
product quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Team

A

Interdependent
collection of individuals
who work together toward
a common goal and who
share responsibility for
specific outcomes for their
organizations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

charismatic leadership theory

A

Approach to
leadership theory with
many different versions of
the notion that charisma
is related to leadership; in
one version, in a crisis situation, followers perceive
charismatic characteristics in an individual and
accept that person as a
leader; in another version,
certain leader behaviors (use of innovative
strategies) contribute to a
charismatic aura.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

charismatic leader

A

Followers are emotionally
attached to this leader,
never question the leader’s beliefs or actions, and
see themselves as integral
to the accomplishment of
the leader’s goals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

charisma

A

A personal
attribute of a leader that
hypnotizes followers and
compels them to identify
with and attempt to emulate the leader.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

laissez-faire leadership

A

Leaders
provide little guidance
to their followers; lowest level of leadership
identified by Bass (1997),
who contrasted it with
transactional leadership
and transformational
leadership

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

individualized consideration

A

Leaders
deal with others as individuals; consider individual needs, abilities, and
aspirations; listen attentively; and advise, coach,
and teach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

intellectual stimulation

A

Leaders question old
assumptions, values, and
beliefs; stimulate new
ways of doing things; and
encourage expression of
ideas and reasons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

inspirational motivation

A

Leaders articulate an
appealing vision of the
future, challenge followers
with high standards, talk
optimistically with enthusiasm, and provide encouragement and meaning for
what needs to be done.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

idealized influence

A

Leaders display conviction,
emphasize trust, take
stands on difficult issues,
emphasize the importance
of commitment and purpose, and are aware of the
ethical consequences of
their decisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

transactional leadership

A

Leaders show followers
how they can meet their
personal goals by adopting a particular behavior pattern; the leader
develops social contracts
with followers in which
certain behaviors will
be rewarded.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

transformational
leadership

A

Leadership
theory that describes the
behavior of inspirational
political leaders who
transform their followers
by appealing to nobler
motives such as justice,
morality, and peace.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

out-group members

A

People
who have low-quality relationships with their leader
and little latitude for negotiating their work roles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

in-group members

A

People
who have high-quality relationships with their leader
and high latitude for negotiating their work roles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

leader–member exchange
(LMX) theory

A

Leadership
theory proposing that
leaders adopt different
behaviors with individual
subordinates; the particular behavior pattern of the
leader develops over time
and depends to a large
extent on the quality of
the leader–subordinate
relationship.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

psychological maturity

A

The self-confidence
and self-respect of the
subordinate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

job maturity

A

A subordinate’s job-related ability,
skills, and knowledge.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

contingency approach

A

Leadership theory proposed to take into account
the role of the situation in
the exercise of leadership

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

participative behavior

A

Type of behavior identified in the Michigan
studies; allows subordinates more participation
in decision making and
encourages more two-way
communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

relations-oriented
behavior

A

Type of behavior
identified by University
of Michigan researchers
as an important part of a
leader’s activities; similar
to consideration in the
Ohio State model

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

task-oriented behavior

A

Type of behavior identified by University of
Michigan researchers as
an important part of a
leader’s activities; similar
to initiating structure from
the Ohio State studies

66
Q

initiating structure

A

Type
of behavior identified
in the Ohio State studies; included behavior
in which the supervisor
organizes and defines
group activities and his or
her relation to the group

67
Q

consideration

A

Type of
behavior identified in
the Ohio State studies;
included behavior indicating mutual trust, respect,
and a certain warmth
and rapport between the
supervisor and group.

68
Q

behavioral approach

A

Begun by researchers at
Ohio State University,
leadership theory that
focused on the kinds of
behavior engaged in by
people in leadership roles
and identified two major
types: consideration and
initiating structure.

69
Q

power approach

A

Leadership theory that examines
the types of power wielded
by leaders.

70
Q

trait approach

A

Leadership theory that attempted
to show that leaders
possessed certain characteristics that non-leaders did not.

71
Q

“great man” theories

A

Leadership theories
developed by historians
who examined the life of a
respected leader for clues
leading to that person’s
greatness; often focused
on a galvanizing experience or an admirable trait
(persistence, optimism, or
intelligence) that a leader
possesses to a singular degree.

72
Q

interpersonal competence

A

Type of competence that
includes social awareness
and social skills, such as
the ability to resolve conflict and foster a spirit of
cooperation.

73
Q

leadership development

A

A process that concentrates on the leader–
follower relationship and
on developing an environment in which the leader
can build relationships
that enhance cooperation
and resource exchange.

74
Q

leader development

A

A process that concentrates on developing,
maintaining, or enhancing
individual leader attributes such as knowledge,
skills, and abilities.

75
Q

effective leadership

A

A situation that occurs
when a leader changes a
follower’s behavior, resulting in both leader and
follower feeling satisfied
and effective.

76
Q

successful leadership

A

A situation that occurs
when a follower changes
his or her behavior as
a function of the leader’s effort.

77
Q

attempted leadership

A

A situation that occurs
when a leader accepts the
goal of changing a follower and can be observed
attempting to do so.

78
Q

leader

A

The individual
in a group given the task
of directing task-relevant
group activities or, in the
absence of a designated
leader, carrying the
primary responsibility for
performing these functions in the group.

79
Q

leadership effectiveness

A

Study of which behaviors
on the part of a designated leader (regardless
of how that position was
achieved) led to an outcome valued by the work
group or organization

80
Q

leader emergence

A

Study
of the characteristics of
individuals who become
leaders, examining the
basis on which they were
elected, appointed, or
simply accepted

81
Q

inclusion

A

The degree to
which individuals feel safe,
valued, and able to be
authentic at work both as
individuals and as members of various groups

82
Q

value model

A

Model for
addressing diversity in
which each element of an
organization is valued for
what it uniquely brings to
the organization

83
Q

protection model

A

Model
for addressing diversity
that identifies disadvantaged and underrepresented groups and
provides special protections for them.

84
Q

assimilation model

A

Model
for addressing diversity
that recruits, selects,
trains, and motivates
employees so that they
share the same values
and culture

85
Q

relational demography

A

The relative makeup of
various demographic characteristics in particular
work groups.

86
Q

diversity

A

Differences in
demographic characteristics; also includes differences in values, abilities,
interests, and experiences

87
Q

affirmative action

A

Program that acknowledges that particular
demographic groups may
be underrepresented in
the work environment and
provides specific mechanisms for reducing this
underrepresentation

88
Q

interactional justice

A

Type
of justice concerned with
the sensitivity with which
employees are treated
and linked to the extent
that an employee feels
respected by the employer.

89
Q

voice

A

Having the possibility of challenging,
influencing, or expressing
an objection to a process
or outcome.

90
Q

procedural justice

A

Type
of justice in which the
process (or procedure) by
which ratings are assigned
or rewards are distributed
is perceived as fair.

91
Q

equality norm

A

Definition
of fairness based on the
view that people should
receive approximately
equal rewards; most
common foundation
for defining fairness in
Scandinavian and Asian
countries

92
Q

need norm

A

Definition of
fairness based on the view
that people should receive
rewards in proportion to
their needs.

93
Q

merit or equity norm

A

Definition of fairness
based on the view that
those who work hardest or
produce the most should
get the greatest rewards;
most common foundation
for defining fairness in the
United States

94
Q

distributive justice

A

Type
of justice in which the
allocation of outcomes
or rewards to organizational members is perceived as fair.

95
Q

organizational justice

A

Type of justice that is
composed of organizational procedures, outcomes, and interpersonal
interactions

96
Q

trust

A

Belief in how a person or an organization will
act on some future occasion based upon previous
interactions with that
person or organization

97
Q

cyberbullying

A

Bullying
that takes place through
electronic technology

98
Q

bullying

A

Harassing,
offending, socially excluding, or assigning humiliating tasks to a person
of subordinate status
repeatedly and over a long
period of time

99
Q

justice hypothesis of
workplace violence

A

Hypothesis that some
violent acts can be understood as reactions by an
employee to perceived
injustice.

100
Q

Employee assistance
programs (EAPs)

A

Counseling provided by an
organization to deal with
workplace stress, alcohol
or drug difficulties, and
problems stemming from
outside the job

101
Q

tertiary prevention
strategies

A

Stress prevention strategy focused
on healing the negative
effects of stressors.

102
Q

buffer or moderator
hypothesis

A

Hypothesis
that social support moderates or reduces health
problems by protecting
individuals from the
negative effects of work
stressors

103
Q

social support

A

The
comfort, assistance, or
information an individual
receives through formal
or informal contacts with
individuals or groups.

104
Q

biofeedback

A

Stress
management technique
that teaches individuals
to control certain body
functions, such as heart
rate, blood pressure, and
even skin temperature,
by responding to feedback from an electronic
instrument.

105
Q

progressive muscle
relaxation

A

Stress management technique to relax
the muscles, thereby helping to progressively relax
the entire body

106
Q

stress inoculation

A

Common type of stress
management training that
usually combines primary
prevention and secondary
prevention strategies.

107
Q

stress management
training

A

A program useful
for helping employees
deal with workplace
stressors that are difficult
to remove or change

108
Q

secondary prevention
strategies

A

Stress prevention strategy that involves
modifying responses to
inevitable demands or
stressors.

109
Q

cognitive restructuring

A

Type of stress intervention
that focuses on changing
perceptions and thought
processes that lead to
stress; reduces stress by
changing the individual’s
perception of, or capacity
to meet the demands of,
the work environment.

110
Q

primary prevention
strategy

A

Stress prevention
strategy concerned with
modifying or eliminating stressors in the work
environment

111
Q

occupational health
psychology

A

Area of psychology that involves the
application of psychology
to improving the quality of
work life and to protecting
and promoting the safety,
health, and well-being
of workers

112
Q

time urgency

A

Subcomponent of the Type A behavior pattern that refers to
the feeling of being pressured by inadequate time

113
Q

impatience/irritability
(II)

A

Subcomponent of the
Type A behavior pattern
that reflects intolerance
and frustration resulting
from being slowed down

114
Q

achievement striving
(AS)

A

Subcomponent
of the Type A behavior
pattern that involves the
tendency to be active and
to work hard in achieving
one’s goals.

115
Q

hostility

A

Type A behavior
pattern subcomponent
associated with increased
secretion of stress hormones and increased risk
of coronary heart disease
and other long-term,
harmful health outcomes.

116
Q

coronary-prone
personality

A

Alternative
name given to Type A
behavior pattern (TABP)
because of its links to
coronary heart disease
and heart attacks

117
Q

Type A behavior pattern
(TABP)

A

Set of characteristics exhibited by individuals who are engaged in a
chronic struggle to obtain
an unlimited number of
poorly defined things from
their environment in the
shortest period of time;
subcomponents include
hostility, achievement strivings, impatience/irritability, and time urgency

118
Q

self-esteem

A

A sense of
positive self-worth that
is considered to be an
important resource
for coping

119
Q

hardiness

A

A set of personality characteristics
that provide resistance to
stress; hardy individuals
feel in control of their
lives, have a sense of
commitment to their
family and their work
goals and values, and see
unexpected change as a
challenge.

120
Q

locus of control
(LOC)

A

Construct that
refers to the belief of individuals that what happens
to them is under their
control (internal LOC)
or beyond their control
(external LOC).

121
Q

person–organization
(P–O) fit

A

Extent to which
the values of an employee
are consistent with the
values held by most others
in the organization.

122
Q

person–job (P–J) fit

A

Extent to which the skills,
abilities, and interests
of an individual are
compatible with the
demands of the job

123
Q

job control

A

Component
of demand–control model
that refers to a combination of autonomy in the
job and discretion for
using different skills

124
Q

job demands

A

Component
of demand–control model
that refers to the workload
or intellectual requirements of the job.

125
Q

demand–control model

A

A
model suggesting that
two factors are prominent
in producing job stress:
job demands and individual control; developed
by Karasek.

126
Q

low personal
accomplishment

A

Burnout
in which individuals feel
they cannot deal with
problems effectively and
understand or identify
with others’ problems

127
Q

depersonalization

A

Burnout that occurs when individuals become hardened
by their job and tend to
treat clients or patients
like objects.

128
Q

emotional exhaustion

A

Burnout that occurs when
individuals feel emotionally drained by work

129
Q

burnout

A

Extreme state of
psychological strain resulting from a prolonged
response to chronic job
stressors that exceed an
individual’s resources to
cope with them.

130
Q

surface acting

A

Emotional
labor that consists of
managing or faking one’s
expressions or emotions.

131
Q

deep acting

A

Emotional
labor that consists of
managing one’s feelings, including emotions
required by the job.

132
Q

emotional labor

A

Regulation of one’s emotions to
meet job or organizational
demands; can be achieved
through surface acting
and deep acting.

133
Q

role overload

A

Stressor
that occurs when an
individual is expected to
fulfill too many roles at
the same time.

134
Q

role conflict

A

Stressor that
occurs when demands
from different sources are
incompatible.

135
Q

role ambiguity

A

Stressor
that occurs when employees lack clear knowledge
of what behavior is
expected in their job.

136
Q

role stressors

A

Collective
term for stressors resulting from the multiple task
requirements or roles of
employees.

137
Q

role

A

The expectations
regarding the responsibilities and requirements of a
particular job

138
Q

interpersonal conflict

A

Negative interactions with
coworkers, supervisors, or
clients, which can range
from heated arguments
to subtle incidents of
unfriendly behavior.

139
Q

autonomy

A

Extent to which
employees can control
how and when they perform the tasks of their job.

140
Q

emotion-focused coping

A

Type of coping directed
at reducing the emotional
response to a problem by
avoiding, minimizing, or
distancing oneself from
the problem

141
Q

problem-focused coping

A

Type of coping directed
at managing or altering a problem causing
the stress

142
Q

General Adaptation
Syndrome (GAS)

A

A
nearly identical response
sequence to almost any disease or trauma (poisoning,
injury, psychological stress);
identified by Hans Selye.

143
Q

job crafting

A

Self-initiated
changes that employees
actively make to their jobs
to help them increase
interesting job characteristics and decrease unpleasant job demands.

144
Q

job embeddedness

A

Individuals’ attachment to
their job that involves
(1)links to people and
groups in the organization, (2) perceptions
of their fit with the job
or organization, and
(3)what workers say they
would sacrifice if they left
their jobs.

145
Q

psychological contracts

A

Beliefs that people hold
regarding terms of an
exchange agreement
between themselves and
the organization

146
Q

job withdrawal

A

Action
that represents an individual’s willingness to
sever ties to an organization and the work role;
includes intentions to quit
or retire

147
Q

work withdrawal

A

Action
that represents an
attempt by the individual
to withdraw from work
but maintain ties to the
organization and the work
role; includes lateness and
absenteeism.

148
Q

withdrawal behaviors

A

Absenteeism, turnover,
tardiness, and retirement
may be different manifestations of a larger construct called withdrawal.

149
Q

core self-evaluations

A

Assessments that individuals make of their circumstances; elements of core
evaluations include self-esteem, self-efficacy, locus
of control, and the absence
of neuroticism

150
Q

positive affectivity (PA)

A

Disposition in which
individuals are prone to
describe themselves as
cheerful, enthusiastic,
confident, active, and
energetic.

151
Q

negative affectivity (NA)

A

Disposition wherein
individuals are prone to
experience a diverse array
of negative mood states
(e.g., anxiety, depression,
hostility, and guilt).

152
Q

emotions

A

An effect or
feeling, often experienced
and displayed in reaction
to an event or thought
and accompanied by physiological changes in various systems of the bod

153
Q

moods

A

Generalized state
of feeling not identified
with a particular stimulus and not sufficiently
intense to interrupt ongoing thought processes.

154
Q

employee engagement

A

A positive work-related
state of mind that includes
high levels of energy,
enthusiasm, and identification with one’s work

155
Q

organizational
identification (OID)

A

The
process whereby
individuals derive a feeling
of pride and esteem from
their association with an
organization. Individuals may also take pains to
distance themselves from
the organization for which
they work—this would
be called organizational
disidentification.

156
Q

occupational commitment

A

Commitment to a particular occupational field;
includes affective, continuance, and normative
commitment

157
Q

normative commitment

A

An obligation to remain in
an organization

158
Q

continuance commitment

A

Perceived cost of leaving
an organization.

159
Q

affective commitment

A

An emotional attachment
to an organization.

160
Q

commitment

A

Psychological and emotional
attachment an individual
feels to a relationship, an
organization, a goal, or an
occupation.

161
Q

Minnesota Satisfaction
Questionnaire (MSQ)

A

A
commonly used job satisfaction instrument that
assesses particular aspects
of work (e.g., achievement, ability utilization) as
well as scores for extrinsic
satisfaction and intrinsic
satisfaction.