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Anatomy & Physiology 2 > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What is the structure of hemoglobin?

A

Hemoglobin contains a globin group consisting of four polypeptide chains. Bound to each chain is a heme group. At the center of each heme ring is an Iron ion that can combine with 1 O2 molecule.

Each hemoglobin molecule can bind to 4 O2 molecules.

Globin = protein, heme = nonprotein

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2
Q

What is hemoglobin?

A

Oxygen-carrying protein in red blood cells that gives blood its red color

Hemoglobin is composed of globin and heme.

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3
Q

How many hemoglobin molecules are found in one red blood cell?

A

Around 280 million hemoglobin molecules per RBC.

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4
Q

What are the components of hemoglobin?

A

Globin and heme

Globin is a protein composed of 4 polypeptide chains; heme is a ring-like non-protein pigment bound to each chain.

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5
Q

What is the function of the iron in hemoglobin?

A

It can combine with 1 O2, allowing each hemoglobin molecule to combine with 4 O2 total.

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6
Q

What percentage of carbon dioxide is transported by hemoglobin?

A

23% of CO2.

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7
Q

What are the five types of white blood cells?

A
  • Neutrophil
  • Eosinophil
  • Basophil
  • Lymphocyte
  • Monocyte
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8
Q

What is the appearance and function of neutrophils?

A

Grainy appearance with a lobed nucleus; they are phagocytes

Neutrophils make up 55%-77% of WBCs.

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9
Q

What is the appearance and function of eosinophils?

A

Grainy, orange appearance with two purple lobes; combat toxins

Eosinophils constitute less than 2%-4% of WBCs.

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10
Q

What role do basophils play in the body?

A

Release histamine and heparin to improve blood flow and prevent clots

Basophils have a grainy appearance and constitute less than 1% of WBCs.

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11
Q

What is the function of lymphocytes?

A

Become macrophages

Lymphocytes make up 20%-40% of WBCs.

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12
Q

What is the structure of monocytes?

A

Large cells with an indented nucleus

Monocytes constitute 2%-8% of WBCs and become macrophages.

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13
Q

List the four ABO blood types.

A
  • A
  • B
  • AB
  • O
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14
Q

What antigens and antibodies are present in blood type A?

A

Antigen A; Anti-B antibodies.

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15
Q

What happens during a transfusion reaction?

A

Antibodies agglutinate foreign antigens, leading to hemolysis.

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16
Q

What defines Rh+ and Rh- blood types?

A

Rh+ has the Rh antigen; Rh- does not have the antigen and can produce anti-Rh antibodies.

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17
Q

What is hemolytic disease of the newborn?

A

Occurs when an Rh- mother has an Rh+ baby, leading to anti-Rh antibodies affecting subsequent pregnancies.

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18
Q

Which blood type is the universal donor?

A

O-

Has no antigens therefore antibodies in other blood can’t attack it

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19
Q

Which blood type is the universal recipient?

A

AB+

Have no antibodies to A, B or Rh in their blood therefore it won’t attack those antigens

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20
Q

What is the function of the right atrium?

A

Receives deoxygenated blood from systemic circulation via the superior and inferior vena cava.

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21
Q

What is the function of the right ventricle?

A

Pumps deoxygenated blood into pulmonary trunk that goes to lungs via pulmonary arteries.

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22
Q

What is the function of the left atrium?

A

Receives oxygenated blood from the lungs via the 4 pulmonary veins

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23
Q

What does the left ventricle do?

A

Pumps oxygenated blood into the aorta to go throughout the body.

The left ventricle is the thickest chamber because it requires more force to pump blood into systemic circulation

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24
Q

What are atrioventricular valves?

A

Valves that connect and allow blood flow from atria to ventricles.

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25
Q

What are semilunar valves?

A

Valves located between the ventricles and the great arteries (pulmonary and aorta) with crescent-shaped cusps.

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26
Q

What is the path of an action potential in the heart?

A

SA node > AV node > AV bundle > bundle branches > Purkinje fibers.

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27
Q

What is the definition of stroke volume?

A

The amount of blood pumped out of the heart in a single heartbeat.

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28
Q

Systole

A

the phase of the cardiac cycle during which the heart contracts to pump blood out of the chambers

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29
Q

During ventricular systole, the increased pressure causes the semilunar valves to open or close?

A

Ventricular systole causes the semilunar valves to open, allowing blood to flow out of the heart

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30
Q

Atrial systole

A

Atria contract, pushing blood into the ventricles.
- AV valves open (blood flowing form atria to ventricles)
- SL valves closed (pressure in ventricles is lower than pulmomnary artery and aorta)

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31
Q

Diastole

A

the phase of the cardiac cycle when the heart relaxes after contraction, allowing the chambers to fill with blood

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32
Q

Atrial diastole

A

Atria relax, and begin to refill with blood
- AV valves open
- Sl valves closed

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33
Q

Ventricular systole

A

Ventricles contract, increasing pressure and pushing blood into the pulmonary artery and aorta.
- AV valves closed (pressure in ventricles now higher than in atria), prevents backflow
- SL valves open (pressure in ventricles greater than in pulmonary artery and aorta)

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34
Q

What is the formula for calculating stroke volume?

A

SV = EDV - ESV.

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35
Q

What is the structure and function of arteries?

A

Thick walls, high elasticity, carry blood away from the heart.

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36
Q

What characterizes capillaries?

A

Very thin walls, no smooth muscle, and allow for gas and nutrient exchange.

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37
Q

Define blood pressure.

A

Hydrostatic pressure exerted by blood on the walls of a blood vessel.

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38
Q

What is vascular resistance?

A

Opposition to blood flow due to friction between blood and vessel walls.

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39
Q

What are the three factors that influence vascular resistance?

A
  • Size of lumen
  • Blood viscosity
  • Blood vessel length
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40
Q

What are the three functions of the lymphatic system?

A
  • Draining excess interstitial fluid
  • Transporting lipids
  • Carrying out immune responses
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41
Q

What is lymph?

A

Fluid collected by the lymphatic system, formed from interstitial fluid.

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42
Q

What are the primary lymphatic organs?

A
  • Red bone marrow
  • Thymus
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43
Q

What is the role of neutrophils in innate immunity?

A

Phagocytosis of pathogens.

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44
Q

What is the first line of defense in the immune system?

A

Physical and chemical barriers, including skin and mucous membranes.

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45
Q

True or False: Adaptive immunity has memory cells.

A

True.

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46
Q

What is adaptive immunity?

A

Targets specific antigens and forms memory cells

Adaptive immunity provides long-term immunity and has a delayed response.

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47
Q

What are the components of the first line of defense in the immune system?

A

Physical and chemical barriers including:
* Skin
* Mucous membranes
* Urine & tears
* Microbiome
* Sebum, lysozyme, lactoferrin

These barriers are outside the body and prevent pathogen entry.

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48
Q

What defines the second line of defense in the immune system?

A

Internal defenses including:
* Neutrophils & monocytes/macrophages
* Phagocytosis
* Complement protein system
* NK cells
* Inflammation
* Fever
* Interferons

These mechanisms act when pathogens breach the first line of defense.

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49
Q

What is the role of neutrophils in the immune response?

A

They are white blood cells that ingest and destroy pathogens through phagocytosis.

Neutrophils are a key component of the second line of defense.

50
Q

What are the main types of lymphocytes involved in the third line of defense?

A

B and T cells

This line of defense is adaptive and has memory.

51
Q

What distinguishes humoral immunity from cell-mediated immunity?

A

Humoral immunity involves:
* B lymphocytes (B cells)
* Targets extracellular pathogens
* Produces antibodies

Cell-mediated immunity involves:
* T lymphocytes (T cells)
* Targets intracellular pathogens
* Kills infected cells directly

Both are crucial for a complete immune response.

52
Q

What is the difference between active and passive immunity?

A

Active immunity is:
* An individual’s own adaptive immune defenses (memory cells)

Passive immunity is:
* Transfer of adaptive immune defenses from another individual or animal (no memory cells)

Examples include vaccination for active immunity and breastfeeding for passive immunity.

53
Q

List the organs in the digestive tract in order.

A
  • Mouth
  • Pharynx
  • Esophagus
  • Stomach
  • Small intestine
  • Large intestine
  • Rectum
  • Anus

Accessory organs include teeth, tongue, salivary glands, liver, gallbladder, and pancreas.

54
Q

What are the four main regions of the stomach?

A
  • Cardia
  • Fundus
  • Body
  • Pyloric area

The pyloric area includes the pyloric antrum, pyloric canal, and pylorus.

55
Q

What are the exocrine secretions of the stomach?

A
  • Hydrochloric acid (HCl)
  • Mucus
  • Intrinsic factor
  • Pepsinogen

These secretions aid in digestion and protect the stomach lining.

56
Q

What is the function of the liver?

A

Produces bile, detoxifies, stores glycogen and vitamins, synthesizes proteins, and metabolizes carbohydrates, fats, and proteins

Bile aids in the emulsification and digestion of lipids in the small intestine.

57
Q

Describe the structure and function of the peritoneal cavity.

A

The peritoneum is a serous membrane with:
* Parietal peritoneum - lines the cavity wall
* Visceral peritoneum - covers organs
* Peritoneal cavity - contains lubricating fluid

Retroperitoneal organs are located behind the peritoneum.

58
Q

What is the role of cilia in the respiratory tract?

A

Cilia sweep mucus and trapped particles toward the throat for expulsion or swallowing

They are found lining the trachea, bronchi, and most bronchioles.

59
Q

What happens during inspiration?

A

Diaphragm contracts, thoracic cavity expands, alveolar pressure decreases, and air is pulled into the lungs

The external intercostals assist in expanding the rib cage.

60
Q

How is oxygen exchanged in the lungs?

A

Oxygen diffuses from alveoli to blood due to higher PO2 in alveoli and binds to hemoglobin to form oxyhemoglobin

CO2 moves in the opposite direction, diffusing from blood to alveoli.

61
Q

What are the primary functions of the pancreas?

A

Produces digestive enzymes and secretes hormones like insulin and glucagon

It plays a critical role in digestion and blood sugar regulation.

62
Q

What are digestive enzymes?

A

Enzymes that aid in the breakdown of food substances into smaller molecules.

63
Q

What is pancreatic amylase?

A

An enzyme produced by the pancreas that breaks down carbohydrates into simpler sugars.

64
Q

What is lipase?

A

An enzyme that breaks down lipids (fats) into glycerol and fatty acids.

65
Q

What is trypsin?

A

An enzyme produced by the pancreas that digests proteins in the small intestine.

66
Q

What hormones are secreted by the pancreas?

A
  • Insulin
  • Glucagon
67
Q

What is the primary function of the liver?

A

Produces bile, detoxifies substances, stores glycogen and vitamins, and synthesizes proteins.

68
Q

What is the function of bile?

A

Aids in emulsification and digestion of lipids in the small intestine.

69
Q

What is the gallbladder’s role in digestion?

A

Stores bile and releases it into the small intestine when stimulated by CCK.

70
Q

Name the regions of the large intestine.

A
  • Cecum
  • Ascending colon
  • Transverse colon
  • Descending colon
  • Sigmoid colon
  • Rectum
  • Anus
71
Q

What are the major functions of the large intestine?

A
  • Absorption of water and salts
  • Storage of feces
  • Housing bacteria that produce vitamins B & K
72
Q

What are haustra?

A

Small pouches created by bands of smooth muscle in the large intestine that allow it to expand and contract.

73
Q

What are teniae coli?

A

Three bands of longitudinal smooth muscle that form haustra in the large intestine.

74
Q

What triggers the defecation reflex?

A

Activation of stretch receptors as food moves through the large intestine.

75
Q

Where does carbohydrate digestion begin?

A

In the oral cavity with mechanical and chemical digestion.

76
Q

What is the role of salivary amylase in carbohydrate digestion?

A

Begins the breakdown of carbohydrates into di- and trisaccharides.

77
Q

What happens to carbohydrates in the stomach?

A

They are mixed but not digested further.

78
Q

What enzymes are secreted by the pancreas for carbohydrate digestion?

A
  • Pancreatic amylase
  • Maltase
  • Lactase
  • Sucrase
79
Q

What is the final product of carbohydrate digestion?

A

Monosaccharides, which are sent into the bloodstream.

80
Q

What is the function of bile in lipid digestion?

A

Emulsifies lipids to aid in their digestion.

81
Q

What is the main product of lipid digestion?

A

Glycerol and fatty acids.

82
Q

Where does protein digestion begin?

A

In the stomach.

83
Q

What role does HCl play in protein digestion?

A

Denatures proteins and activates pepsinogen into pepsin.

84
Q

What are the steps of protein digestion in the small intestine?

A
  • Trypsin breaks proteins into shorter peptides
  • Peptidases break peptides into amino acids.
85
Q

What is glycogenesis?

A

The process that converts glucose to glycogen for storage.

86
Q

What is glycogenolysis?

A

The process in which glycogen is broken down to form glucose.

87
Q

What is gluconeogenesis?

A

The formation of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources like amino acids and glycerol.

88
Q

What are the fates of lipids in metabolism?

A
  • Adipose storage
  • Formation of important molecules
  • ATP production
89
Q

What are the types of lipoproteins?

A
  • Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL)
  • Low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
  • High-density lipoproteins (HDL)
90
Q

What is the primary function of insulin?

A

Promotes storage of glucose and decreases blood glucose levels.

91
Q

What is the primary function of glucagon?

A

Increases blood glucose levels by promoting glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.

92
Q

What is the role of cortisol?

A

Stress-response hormone that affects metabolism.

93
Q

What is the urinary system’s main function?

A

To remove waste and regulate water and electrolyte balance.

94
Q

What are the components of the kidney’s structure?

A
  • Renal capsule
  • Adipose capsule
  • Renal fascia
  • Renal cortex
  • Renal medulla
95
Q

What is the functional unit of the kidney?

A

Nephron.

96
Q

What is glomerular filtration?

A

The process of filtering blood to form urine in the glomerulus.

97
Q

What occurs during tubular reabsorption?

A

Substances are returned from the filtrate to the bloodstream.

98
Q

What is the loop of Henle’s function?

A

To concentrate or dilute urine.

99
Q

What are the main sources of water gain?

A
  • Ingested liquids
  • Moist foods
  • Metabolic processes
100
Q

What are the main sources of water loss?

A
  • Urination
  • Sweating
  • Exhalation
  • Defecation
  • Menstruation
101
Q

What regulates the body water gain?

A

Thirst center in the hypothalamus governs the urge to drink.

102
Q

What is the main source of water loss in the body?

A

Urination (1500 mL)

Other sources include sweating (600 mL), exhalation (300 mL), defecation (100 mL), and menstruation.

103
Q

What regulates the urge to drink water?

A

Thirst center in hypothalamus

This center is activated when water loss exceeds water gain, leading to dehydration.

104
Q

What hormone is produced when there is a decrease in blood volume?

A

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

ADH is stimulated by a decrease in blood volume and an increase in osmolarity.

105
Q

What is the role of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system?

A

Maintains blood pressure and fluid & electrolyte balance

Activated by decrease in blood pressure, sodium levels, or blood volume.

106
Q

What stimulates aldosterone release?

A

Angiotensin II

Aldosterone promotes sodium reabsorption in the kidneys, leading to increased water retention.

107
Q

What is the primary buffer system in extracellular fluid?

A

Carbonic acid - bicarbonate system

This system helps maintain pH balance by resisting changes in acidity.

108
Q

What initiates the production of FSH and LH in males?

A

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)

Released by the hypothalamus when testosterone levels are low.

109
Q

What is the function of Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) in males?

A

Stimulates Sertoli cells

FSH promotes spermatogenesis in the seminiferous tubules.

110
Q

What does Luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulate in males?

A

Stimulates Leydig cells to produce testosterone

Testosterone is crucial for spermatogenesis and the development of male secondary sex characteristics.

111
Q

What is the pathway of sperm during ejaculation?

A

Seminiferous tubules → Epididymis → Ductus deferens → Ejaculatory duct → Prostate → Urethra

Seminal vesicles and bulbourethral glands add fluids along this pathway.

112
Q

What are the components of semen?

A
  • Alkaline fluid from seminal vesicles
  • Fluid from prostate
  • Lubricating mucus from bulbourethral glands

Each component serves to nourish and protect sperm.

113
Q

What hormones do the ovaries secrete?

A
  • Estrogen
  • Progesterone

These hormones are vital for female reproductive functions and menstrual cycle regulation.

114
Q

What is the primary function of the corpus luteum?

A

Produces progesterone and estrogen

It supports the endometrium for potential pregnancy after ovulation.

115
Q

What initiates oogenesis?

A

Oogonia divide by mitosis during fetal development

This process pauses until puberty when primary oocytes resume development.

116
Q

What is a key difference between oogenesis and spermatogenesis?

A

Oogenesis produces one ovum per cycle, while spermatogenesis produces four sperm

Oogenesis has unequal cytoplasmic division favoring one large ovum.

117
Q

What are the phases of the menstrual cycle?

A
  • Menstrual phase (Days 1-5)
  • Preovulatory phase (Days 6-13)
  • Ovulation (Day 14)
  • Postovulatory phase (Days 15-28)

Each phase is regulated by hormonal changes, including FSH and LH.

118
Q

What happens during ovulation?

A

Graafian follicle ruptures, releasing secondary oocyte

This process is triggered by a surge in estrogen levels.

119
Q

What happens if the secondary oocyte is not fertilized?

A

Corpus luteum degenerates into corpus albicans

This results in decreased hormone production, leading to the start of a new cycle.

120
Q

What is the role of ADH in maintaining ECF osmolarity?

A

Increases water reabsorption in kidneys

This helps dilute solute concentration and return levels to normal.

121
Q
A

Anatomy & Physiology 2 (1 decks)

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