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N201 > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Two patient teachings for external radiation?

A

-use mild soap
-avoid lotion containing alcohol

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2
Q

Client care for inpatient brachytherapy includes?

A

-flush the toilet 2-3 times
-limit visitors to 30 minutes, 6 feet apart.

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3
Q

Client receiving chemotherapy is at risk for _______________ due to myelosuppression.

A

-bleeding
-infection

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4
Q

What type of cancer causes the most deaths in the USA?

A

lung cancer

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5
Q

If a tumor suppressor gene tests positive…

A

The patient is at a higher risk of developing cancer.

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6
Q

A patient has lung cancer stage IV, this indicates

A

metastasis

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7
Q

What are 3 signs of cancer?

A

-hoarseness
-sore throat that does not heal
-unusual discharge
(not mood swings)

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8
Q

How can the RN assist with pain management in the patient with cancer?

A

proper assessment and relaxation therapy

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9
Q

What are negative aspects of biological aging?

A

-stress and obesity

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10
Q

Name 2 chronic illness?

A

COPD & HF

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11
Q

What are risk factors for cancer?

A

-smoking
-genetics
-radiation

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12
Q

Patient with microemboli and thrombocytopenia due to deficiency of ADAMTS13

A

-Thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura (TTP)

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13
Q

Three symptoms of R. sided HF

A

peripheral edema, ascites, and JVD

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14
Q

Name three medications indicated for a myocardial infarction

A

-aspirin
-morphine
-nitroglycerin
(only-not furosemide)

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15
Q

What is radiofrequency catheter ablation?

A

-ablation of the area of conduction in the heart

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16
Q

Which patient is at risk for heparin induced thrombocytopenia?

A

patient receiving heparin for prophylactic treatment

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17
Q

What is your concern with patient with premature atrial contractions?

A

monitor cardiac rhythm

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18
Q

What causes immune thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP)

A

-a bacterial or viral infection

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19
Q

List common S/S of corticosteroids

A

-weight gain
-hypertension
-hyperglycemia

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20
Q

What should be include in teaching related to nitroglycerin?

A

-may cause severe headache

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21
Q

Patient teaching for thrombocytopenia?

A

do not blow your nose, gently dab

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22
Q

What causes orthopnea in a client with left sided heart failure?

A

-pulmonary edema

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23
Q

What are patient’s at risk for with atrial fibrillation?

A

-stroke patient

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24
Q

What is a risk factor for asthma?

A

-environmental allergies

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25
Q

A clinical manifestation of declining respiratory status?

A

-retraction of sternal muscles

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26
Q

First line treatment for bronchoconstriction in asthma is

A

beta-2 agonist (SABAs)

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27
Q

When teaching about PO prednisone side effects, what would the nurse include?

A

-decrease in immune system

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28
Q

In teaching your patient with COPD about MDI albuterol use include:

A

-breath in slowly & deeply for 5 seconds

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29
Q

Nursing interventions for patient who is short of breath

A

-raise the head of the bed
-oxygen

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30
Q

Test that measures lung function, specifically the amount and/or speed of air that can be inhaled and exhaled.

A

-spirometry

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31
Q

Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency can contribute to the development of COPD due to

A

-lack of protection to lung tissue during inflammation

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32
Q

A client with COPD develops peripheral edema and JVD. What complication of COPD may have developed?

A

-cor pulmonale

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33
Q

The RN hears continuous high-pitched squeaking sound due to bronchoconstriction. What is this called?

A

-wheezes

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34
Q

Side effects of bronchodilator (Albuterol)?

A

-tremors

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35
Q

A nurse is caring for a client receiving high flow oxygen

A

-it delivers a precise oxygen concentration

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36
Q

Client starts using fluticasone (RespiClick). Which of the following instructions should the nurse include

A

-“Rinse your mouth after each use.”

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37
Q

RN hears wheezing and dyspnea. The nurse interprets that these symptoms are related to what?

A

-narrowing of the airway

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38
Q

The number one cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

A

-Smoking

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39
Q

Why does a barrel chest occur in people with COPD

A

-lungs are chronically over-inflated with air

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40
Q

The primary purpose of pursed lip breathing is to:

A

-promote carbon dioxide elimination

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41
Q

What causes an autoimmune disease causing inflammation & destruction by entering the DNA of the cell?

A

-systemic lupus erythematosus

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42
Q

What are risk factors for Cholelithiasis?

A

-female
-oral contraceptives
-obesity

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43
Q

Which of the following are clinical manifestations of hypovolemic shock?

A

-tachycardia

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44
Q

What causes dark amber urine in the patient with cholelithiasis?

A

-excretion of bilirubin through the urinary tract

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45
Q

Which of the following are risk factors for osteoarthritis?

A

-obesity and ligament injury

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46
Q

How is rheumatoid arthritis diagnosed?

A

-Anti-CCP
-rheumatoid factor

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47
Q

Which type of medication would inhibit tumor necrosis factor in rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Etanercept (Enbrel)

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48
Q

Older patients with RA may face difficulty due to

A

drug interactions & toxicity are a concern

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49
Q

What is the pathophysiology behind systemic lupus erythematosus?

A

-Autoantibodies against nucleic acids attacking DNA

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50
Q

Which medication would a patient with a GI bleed be treated with?

A

IV esomeprazole (Nexium)

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51
Q

A patient presents with right upper quadrant pain and right shoulder pain. Which of the following may be occurring?

A

cholelithiasis

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52
Q

Osteoarthritis is caused by?

A

-injury
-wear and tear

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53
Q

Patient teaching for lupus includes which of the following?

A

-staying out of the sun

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54
Q

What indicates a sudden GI bleed?

A

hematemesis

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55
Q

Immune thrombocytopenia is caused by

A

recent infection

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56
Q

What causes Bell’s Palsy?

A

-virus

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57
Q

Clinical manifestations of multiple sclerosis

A

-urinary complications
-vision changes
-numbness and tingling

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58
Q

Stable angina characteristics

A

-occurs with emotional upset
-is relieved by nitroglycerin and rest

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59
Q

Atrial flutter ECG reading

A

Sawtooth P waves

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60
Q

Patient with COPD uses albuterol to relax smooth muscle around the bronchioles to open up the airway. Side effects

A

tremors

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61
Q

Radiofrequency catheter ablation

A

destroys areas of conduction.

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62
Q

What should be done for an ST elevated MI?

A

needs percutaneous coronary intervention within 90 minutes

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63
Q

Which compensatory mechanism causes retention of sodium and water in heart failure?

A

renin angiotensin aldosterone activation

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64
Q

Side effects of prednisone use

A

-truncal obesity
-thin skin
-hyperglycemia

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65
Q

Diagnostic tests for heart failure

A

-Echocardiogram
-BNP

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66
Q

Clinical manifestations of digoxin toxicity

A

-blurred vision
-lack of appetite

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67
Q

What causes the signs and symptoms in Parkinson?

A

decreased dopamine

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68
Q

What medication would be started on a patient with Bell’s Palsy?

A

Corticosteroid

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69
Q

Patient’s with myasthenia gravis have

A

antibodies on the acetylcholine receptors

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70
Q

Chronic illness characteristics

A

-periods of stability and instability
-progressive
-permanent changes to physiology, results in irreversible changes

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71
Q

A client with Guillain Barre has paralysis that has ascended to abdomen, what is your greatest concern?

A

assessing patient work of breathing.

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72
Q

What does TRAP stand for in Parkinson’s disease?

A

tremor, rigidity, akinesia, postural instability

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73
Q

What are initial symptoms of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?

A

dropping objects

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74
Q

Which of the following would be most concerning to the nurse when assessing a client with asthma?

A

accessory muscle use

75
Q

A thyroidectomy is an intervention that is used to treat

A

hyperthyroidism

76
Q

What clinical manifestation is seen in hyperthyroidism?

A

irritability

77
Q

What clinical manifestation is common in hypothyroidism?

A

intolerance to cold

78
Q

Which conditions can some patients have a goiter?

A

hyperthyroid (Graves’ disease and Hashimoto’s)

79
Q

What autoimmune disease is associated with hyperthyroidism?

A

Graves Disease

80
Q

Cushing’s syndrome is excess exposure to ….

A

corticosteroids (exposure to high levels of cortisol)

81
Q

Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of Addison’s disease?

A

salt craving

82
Q

What is a characteristic of myxedema?

A

-mask like effect
-prominent tongue
-facial and preorbital edema

83
Q

Lab findings for Grave’s disease would include

A

-Decreased TSH
-Elevated T4

84
Q

Beta blockers are given to a patient with hyperthyroidism to….

A

block effects of sympathetic nervous system

85
Q

What lab results would the RN expect to see in Cushing’s?

A

-hypernatremia
-hypokalemia

86
Q

Gradually discontinue corticosteroid therapy to prevent

A

adrenal insufficiency

87
Q

Iatrogenic causes of Addison’s disease include

A

-chemotherapy
-anticoagulation therapy

88
Q

The lab values the RN would expect in Addison’s include

A

-hyponatremia
-hyperkalemia

89
Q

What is the most serious electrolyte disorder associated with kidney disease?

A

hyperkalemia

90
Q

Why would a client with CKD be administered calcium gluconate?

A

to protect myocardium of heart

91
Q

Which client would be at most risk for developing kidney disease?

A

Diabetic on long term Vancomycin

92
Q

Which of the following would be important to monitor in a client taking furosemide?

A

-daily weight
-Blood pressure
-potassium level

93
Q

What is a major difference in polycystic kidney disease and chronic kidney disease?

A

PKD involves cysts on liver, heart, vessels

94
Q

Which of the following would be clinical manifestations of glomerulonephritis?

A

-proteinuria
-periorbital edema

95
Q

Which of the following lab values would be consistent in the diuretic phase of AKI?

A

-hypernatremia
-hypokalemia

96
Q

The stage of CKD is based on what?

A

Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

97
Q

What can affect renal function?

A

hypertension

98
Q

What medication removes potassium from the body?

A

Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)

99
Q

The RN recognizes the patient will have a decrease in urine output in the _____ phase of AKI.

A

oliguric

100
Q

A patient may not be a candidate for kidney transplant if

A

they abuse alcohol

101
Q

The RN recognizes the patient has a _________________ cause of AKI due to long term use of vancomycin.

A

intra renal

102
Q

After TURP surgery, why do we do continuous bladder irrigation?

A

to prevent clotting

103
Q

What factors influences the development of cataracts?

A

-long-term corticosteroid use or diuretic use

104
Q

What are clinical manifestations of cataracts?

A

-decreased or blurred vision

105
Q

What is the surgical therapy for cataracts?

A

Phacoemulsification

106
Q

What is phacoemulsification?

A

Ultrasonic vibrations/ sound waves dissolve lens into fragments that are suctioned out and replaced with a new intraocular lens

107
Q

Nursing management implementation consideration for involving significant visual impairment.

A

Patients are at risk for polypharmacy

108
Q

What is the main diagnostic study for glaucoma?

A

IOP measurement (tonometry)

109
Q

Drug therapy for chronic open-angle glaucoma (glaucoma) to keep IOP low is

A

Beta Blocker eyedrops (Timolol)

110
Q

What are a side-effect of the beta blocker eyedrops timolol?

A

May cause burning and discomfort but must continue use for retention of vision

111
Q

Acute angle-closure glaucoma is a medical emergency that requires what medication to low IOP immediately?

A

Miotics (pilocarpine)

112
Q

What is the action of miotics (Pilocarpine)?

A

Decrease IOP by increasing drainage-> enhancing outflow

113
Q

What surgery creates a new opening for drainage during acute angle-closure glaucoma?

A

Lasor iridotomy

114
Q

Retinopathy is most common in what patients?

A

Patients with HTN or DM

115
Q

What are risk factors for retinal detachment?

A

-age
-hypertension
-diabetic retinopathy

116
Q

What is the surgical therapy used for retinal detachment?

A

Laser photocoagulation (small burns-> scar)

117
Q

Aged-related macular degeneration (AMD) more severe type and characteristic

A

Wet (exudative), abnormal blood vessels develop

118
Q

AMD clinical manifestations

A

dark spots in the central visual field (scotomas/blind spots)

119
Q

What is the diagnostic study used to confirm AMD (age-related macular degeneration)

A

Amsler grid test

120
Q

Hearing loss and deafness causes

A

-increase/impacted dry cerumen
-calcification of ossicles
-thick coarse hair in ear canal

121
Q

What is the most preventable cause of hearing loss?

A

-noise (blasting loud music)

122
Q

What is a nursing intervention used as verbal aids to communicate with a hearing-impaired person?

A

Speak normally and slowly

123
Q

Elderly mistreatment (EM) defined

A

Intentional acts of omission or commission by a caregiver or “trusted other” resulting in harm/serious harm

124
Q

EM occurrence and underreoprting

A

-in home, assisted-living, and institutions
-underreported by victims/ HCP

125
Q

EM risk factors

A

-Physical or cognitive limitations
-Psychiatric disorders
-Alcohol misuse / drug abuse
-Lack of social support
-Living with many others
-Inadequate income

126
Q

Elderly mistreatment types

A

-abandonment
-financial abuse
-neglect
-physical abuse
-psychologic abuse
-sexual abuse
-violation of personal rights

127
Q

The most common side -effect of chemotherapy

A

myelosuppression (bone marrow suppression)

128
Q

What is myelosuppression

A

-Born marrow activity is decreased, resulting in fewer RBCs, WBCs (neutropenia), and platelets (thrombocytopenia)

129
Q

What risk factors increase with myelosuppression?

A

infection, hemorrhage, overwhelming fatigue, anemia

130
Q

chemotherapy side-effects

A

-fatigue
-Nausea, vomiting, mucositis, stomatitis, esophagitis, constipation, diarrhea, anorexia (cachexia), hepatotoxicity
-hyperuricemia
-cardiotoxicity, pericarditis, myocarditis
-reproductive problems, nephrotoxicity,
-myelosuppression
-“Chemo” brain

131
Q

Radiation/ chemotherapy Skin reactions

A

-redness, hyperpigmentation, dry desquamation, wet desquamation, alopecia

132
Q

radiation induced thrombocytopenia S/S

A

-petechiae
-bruising
-signs for bleeding (gums, nose, mouth, rectum, cuts-unstopped)
-spontaneous bleeding (Platelets < 20,000)
blood in bodily fluids
-any signs associated with stroke

133
Q

Thrombotic Thrombocytopenia Purpura (TTP) S/S

A

-petechiae, then purpura, then ecchymosis
-stroke symptoms
-neurologic abnormalities
-fever (in the absence of infection)
-renal abnormalities (kidney injury)
-bleeding/ clotting simultaneously (med-emerg.)

134
Q

Stable angina (duration of pain-few minutes, subside with precipitating factor, ECG-St segment depression/ T wave inversion)

A

-Intermittent chest pain that occurs over a long period with similar pattern of onset, duration, and intensity of symptoms
-Onset: physical exertion, stress, or emotional upset
-May deny pain; have pressure, heaviness, or discomfort in chest dyspnea or fatigue
-Demand ischemia, no infarct- normal ECG, no alterations in troponin

135
Q

MI testing

A

Probable heart attack: Troponin I or T above 0.40 ng/mL (elevates troponins)

136
Q

Primary risk factor for HF

A

hypertension

137
Q

HF precipitating causes

A

Dysrhythmias, infections, pulmonary embolism

138
Q

Left-sided HF

A

Most common form of HF
Results from inability of left ventricle to:
Empty adequately during systole
Fill adequately during diastole

139
Q

COPD S/S

A

Chest breathing
Use of accessory and intercostal muscles
Inefficient breathing
May experience wheezing and chest tightness
Diminished breath sounds
O2 Sat 88-92% at baseline

140
Q

Clinical Manifestations-COPD

A

-underweight (anorexia)
-barrel chest
-chronic fatigue
-paroxysmal coughing (rib fx.)
-Compensation (pursed-lip breathing, tripoding)

141
Q

COPD Diagnostics connfirmation

A

Spirometry and FEV1/ FVC ratio (<70% or less than 0.70)

142
Q

How to perform pursed lip breathing

A

1) relax neck/ shoulders
2) breath in through nose for 2 seconds, mouth closed
3) breath out for 4 seconds through pursed lips, if too long, breath out 2x as long as breathed in

143
Q

Why does a person perform pursed lip breathing?

A

-prolongs exhalation
-prevents bronchiolar collapse and air trapping

144
Q

GERD/ Asthma Treatment

A

-When taking medications for asthma- is can exacerbate GERD, so treat with medications for GERD…GERD may trigger bronchoconstriction and aspiration
-Reflux may trigger bronchoconstriction as well as cause aspiration

145
Q

FEV1-asthma

A

(breathing out in 1 minute-is going to be the maximum speed of exhalation in 1 second)

146
Q

Asthma Treatments

A

-SABA (Albuterol) use for symptoms are used to treat asthma
-Treat allergies with Cetirizine (Zyrtec), inflammation of the mucus membranes- prophylactic Tx

147
Q

Asthma exacerbations S/S, life-threatening S/S

A

S/S exacerbations-hypoxia, hypercapnia, and acute respiratory failure (Status Asthmaticus)

148
Q

Guillain-Barre S/S

A

-Acute, ascending, rapidly progressive, symmetric weakness of the limbs
-muscle flaccidity (muscle atrophy)
-paresthesia (tingling)
-diplopia
-facial weakness
-dysarthria
-dysphagia
-signs for resp. compromise

149
Q

Guillain-Barre Tx.

A

-have intubation kit ready
-Plasmapheresis
-Psychosocial support

150
Q

Guillain-Barre precipitating factors

A

-bacterial or viral infection
-surgery
-vaccinations

151
Q

Myasthenia Gravis S/S

A

-Progressive, fluctuating weakness of skeletal muscles
-Especially muscles involved in repetitive movements (facial expressions, blinking, chewing, swallowing, breathing)
-Bilateral ptosis & diplopia
-Difficulty with speech, chewing and swallowing
-Facial immobility
-In worst cases, can affect respiratory muscles
No sensory loss (can still feel)

152
Q

MG-Testing

A

Tensilon (endrophonium) Test, if reversed for 5 minutes confirms MG

153
Q

Mg Tx, teaching

A

-aspiration precautions, b/c muscles -weak and moves upward.
What if it worsens?> Prepare for intubation and ventilation
If there is a crisis?> Encourage resting frequently throughout the day
-Anticholinesterase Agents,
-Corticosteroids

154
Q

MS Tx/ Education

A

-Position in semi-fowlers
- for urinary tract (incontinence)-toilet schedule
-due to sensitivity (take walks in morning in evening)
-Self-catheterization if necessary
-High-fiber diet to relieve constipation
-Emotional adjustments
-Lifestyle changes
-Safety (fall risk, aspiration)
-Corticosteroids, Immunomodulators , IV Monoclonal antibodies

155
Q

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) Patho

A

-Motor neurons in brainstem and spinal cord gradually degenerate
-Electrical and chemical messages from the brain do not reach muscle to activate them

156
Q

ALS teachings

A

Facilitate communication (voice banking)
Reduce risk of aspiration
Assess respiratory status
Pain control due to muscle weakness
Provide support
Code Status? Hospice Referral?
Patient remains cognitively intact while wasting away.
Assist patient and family in management of disease and grieving

157
Q

Parkinson Tx/why

A

-primary treatment, Levodopa with carbidopa (Sinemet), levodopa is a precursor to dopamine and can cross the blood-brain barrier, carbidopa inhibits an enzyme that breaks down levodopa before it reaches the brain

158
Q

Systemic Lupus Erythematous (SLE)- medications

A

NSAIDs:

Used for pain and inflammation (e.g., ibuprofen, naproxen).
Antimalarials:

Hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil): Helps manage fatigue, skin rashes, and joint pain.
Corticosteroids:

Prednisone: Reduces inflammation and suppresses the immune response; used for flares.
DMARDs (Disease-Modifying Antirheumatic Drugs):

Methotrexate: For severe cases, helps control the immune system.
Biologics:

Belimumab (Benlysta): Targets specific immune system components to reduce disease activity.
Immunosuppressants:

Azathioprine, Mycophenolate mofetil: Used for severe manifestations or organ involvement.

159
Q

SLE Patient Edu

A

Triggers for Flares: Sun exposure, emotional stress, infection, certain medications, and surgery.
Drug Side Effects: Be aware of side effects and early signs of flare-ups.
Organ Health: Monitor for signs of kidney failure and damage to vital organs.
Pregnancy Complications: Increased risk of stillbirth and spontaneous abortion; methotrexate should be discontinued at least 3 months before pregnancy. Hydroxychloroquine is safe during pregnancy.
Support: Include supportive therapy, counseling, and family involvement.

160
Q

R.A. causes

A

Autoimmune Disorder: Immune system attacks joint tissues.
Genetic Factors: Family history can increase risk.
Environmental Triggers: Smoking, infections, and certain exposures.

161
Q

RA teachings

A

Symptoms: Joint pain, stiffness, swelling, fatigue.
Lifestyle Modifications: Balanced diet, regular exercise, weight management.
Importance of Adherence: Consistent medication use and follow-up appointments.

162
Q

RA treatment

A

Medications:
NSAIDs: For pain relief (e.g., ibuprofen).
DMARDs: Slows disease progression (e.g., methotrexate).
Biologics: Target specific parts of the immune system (e.g., TNF inhibitors).
Corticosteroids: Reduce inflammation.

163
Q

Graves Disease Interventions

A

Medications:

Antithyroid Drugs:
Methimazole or Propylthiouracil (PTU): Reduce thyroid hormone production.
Beta-Blockers:
Manage symptoms like rapid heart rate and anxiety.
Radioactive Iodine Therapy:

Destroys overactive thyroid tissue to reduce hormone production.
Surgery:

Thyroidectomy: Partial or complete removal of the thyroid gland for severe cases.
Regular Monitoring:

Frequent thyroid function tests to adjust treatment as needed.

164
Q

Graves Disease teachings

A

Signs and Symptoms:

Educate on symptoms of hyperthyroidism (e.g., weight loss, anxiety, heat intolerance).
Medication Adherence:

Importance of taking medications as prescribed and understanding potential side effects.
Follow-Up Care:

Stress the need for regular follow-ups for monitoring thyroid levels and adjusting treatment.
Lifestyle Modifications:

Balanced diet, regular exercise, and stress management techniques.
Eye Care:

If experiencing eye problems (Graves’ ophthalmopathy), advise on protective measures and follow-up with an eye specialist.

165
Q

(DMARD) Methotrexate Complications

A

bone marrow suppression and hepatotoxicity use ALT/ AST to monitor before and during treatment, infection, teratogenic

166
Q

osteoarthritis diagnostic and types of nodes

A

*Heberden’s nodes are DISTAL
*Bouchard’s nodes are PROXIMAL
*Synovial fluid analysis helps distinguish between OA and other types of inflammatory arthritis
*X-rays
Detect joint space narrowing, bony sclerosis, osteophyte formation

167
Q

Cholestasis Tx

A
168
Q

GI bleed testing

A

Endoscopy (source), angioscopy (if endo cannot be done), labs (BUN increase due to blood absorption), typing/ cross matching, occult blood

169
Q

S/S of hypothyroidism

A

cold intolerance, weight gain, fatigue, dry skin, thin hair, slowed body processes, impaired memory, puffy face, pallor, sweat decrease, low initiative

170
Q

Hyperthyroidism S/S

A

increased metabolism, increased tissue sensitivity by SNS, goiter, exophthalmos, ophthalmopathy, diplopia

171
Q

Addisonian Crisis Lab Diagnostics, S/S

A

-Hyponatremia, hypoglycemia, hyperkalemia

172
Q

Addisonian Crisis S/S

A

-tachycardia, hypotension, hypovolemia, dehydration, fever, weakness, confusion, vomiting, diarrhea, pain, shock

173
Q

Primary Lab for Cushing Disease

A

-potassium, hypokalemia

174
Q

Cushing Disease S/S

A

-truncal obesity, buffalo hump, hirsutism, thin hair, bruised/thing skin, acne, petechia/ purpura, purple striae, HTN, hyperpigmentation, thin extremities, muscle wasting, gynecomastia

175
Q

Glomerulonephritis cause/ treatment

A

an infection of tonsils, pharynx, or skin by nephrotoxic strains of group A beta-hemolytic streptococci; form antibodies to streptococcal antigen
-restrict Na and fluid intake, diuretics

176
Q

CKD Complications

A

↑ Nitrogenous waste products
Electrolyte imbalances (Hyperkalemia)
Metabolic acidosis
Atrophy and demyelination of nerve fibers
infection
Uremia
Fluid retention
anemia
CVD
bone disorders

177
Q

Hemodialysis complications

A

hypotension, hypovolemia, chest pain, seizures, nausea, vision changes, muscle cramps

178
Q

Cholelithiasis Tx

A

cholecystectomy

179
Q

Comorbidities/ Causes Associated with Renal impairment

A

-DM, HTN, CVD, COPD, Obesity, Anemia, Bone Disease
-Glomerulonephritis, AKI, PKI, Obstructive Uropathy, Medication/toxins, systemic disease

180
Q

BPH S/S

A

-nocturia, dribbling (skin breakdown), frequency

181
Q

Complications of TURP for BPH

A

excessive bleeding, hemorrhage

182
Q

Common nephrotoxic drugs

A

NSAIDS
Antibiotics
Antiviral
Diuretics (furosemide)
chemo
lithium
Digoxin
PPI
opioids

183
Q

Fistula Education

A

avoid sleeping on access site, applying pressure, or lifting heavy objects w/ side w/ AV fistula
Takes 2-3, 3 months to develop or mature for long term use

N201 (1 decks)

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