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CapStone > Final exam > Flashcards

Final exam Flashcards

1
Q

The 2003 FDA revision on RF absorption limits the absorption to ______________ for the head

A

C. 3.0W/kg for 10 minutes

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2
Q

Acquiring a bit more than half the phase k-space samples, then interpolating the data with zeroes for the remaining half is a technique known as:

A. Half Fourier
B. Fast spin echo
C. Zero Fill
D. Spoiled Gradient Echo

A

G. A and/or C only

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3
Q

Active shielding can be defined as:

A

D. Superconducting windings within the MR scanner, reducing the fringe magnetic field

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4
Q

An adverse reaction or complication caused by treatment from a healthcare professional is called:

A

C. Iatrogenic

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5
Q

All of the following are examples of INTRINSIC contrast parameters in tissues EXCEPT:

A

E. TR

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6
Q

All of the following artifacts except ________ occur along the phase encoding axis

A

D. Chemical shift

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7
Q

All of the following comprise the biliary tree EXCEPT:

A

D. Splenic duct

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8
Q

All of the following would aid in reducing scan time EXCEPT:

A

B. Reduction in ETL

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9
Q

All of the following yield a higher signal-to-noise ratio EXCEPT:

A

E. Increase in TE

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10
Q

Another term used for “fever” is:

A

D. Febrile

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11
Q

As the number of phase encodings is increased from 256 to 512, SNR (signal to noise ratio):

A

B. Decreases

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12
Q

As the TE is increased

A

B. The available number of slices is decreased

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13
Q

Calculate the available imaging time for a patient with a heart rate of 90 beats/min, trigger window 15% and trigger delay of 80ms.

A

A. 487 ms

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14
Q

Calculate the dose of contrast (0.1mmol/kg) that should be administered to a patient weighing 176 lbs with normal kidney function in a routine MR examination.

A

D. 16mL

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15
Q

As the TR is increased,
I. SNR is increased
II. Available number of slices is increased
III. T2 information is maximized

A

C. I and II only

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16
Q

Calculate the effective TR for a patient with a heart rate of 70 beats / min.

A

B. 857 ms

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17
Q

Calculate the pixel area for the following sequence: TR 4000, TE 120, FOV 36cm, 408 x 512 matrix, 2 NEX, ETL 12.

A

A. 0.62 mm2

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18
Q

Chemical or spectral fat suppression techniques suppress fat signal based on the:

A

D. Precessional frequency of fat

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19
Q

Choose the correct slice thickness to create an isotropic voxel for the following: TR 2000, TE 90, Matrix 272 x 272, FOV 24cm.

A

B. 0.88mm

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20
Q

Collecting the low frequency (high amplitude signal) data points in k- space at the start of the scan (in a spiral fashion) is known as:

A

D. Elliptic centric

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21
Q

Contrast in Diffusion Weighted Imaging (DWI) depends on:

I. The degree to which molecular mobility is impaired (water restriction)
II. The sensitivity of the sequence to Brownian motion
III. T1 relaxation time
IV. The direction of water diffusion V. T2 relaxation time

A

C. I, II and IV

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22
Q

The common carotid artery bifurcates into the internal and external carotid artery at the level of the:

A

B. C3-4 disc space

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23
Q

___________ could be used to line the walls and/or floors of the MR magnet room to reduce the fringe field, and is defined as __________ shielding

A

D. Steel; passive

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24
Q

Creating additional images in various planes from a 3D data set is accomplished by a technique known as:

A

D. Multi-Planar reconstruction (MPR)

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25
Q

CSF suppression is performed with which type of technique?

A

A. FLAIR

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26
Q

The difference in chemical shift is approximately ______ parts-per-million.

A

C. 3.5

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27
Q

A disadvantage of TOF MRA is high signal in some background tissues. To minimize signal from background tissues, TE should be selected that enable the signals from fat and water to be:

A

D. Out of phase

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28
Q

Diseases, such as malaria, in which microorganisms are transferred via an insect, come under the classification of __________ infections.

A

B. Vector borne

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29
Q

Droplet contamination frequently occurs via:

A

D. Coughing

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30
Q

During dynamic enhanced imaging for vasculature or visceral structures, contrast is administered and k-space is filled with __________ to ensure that the contrast enhancement is well visualized.

A

A. Centric

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31
Q

During movement or transfer of patients, a urinary collection bag should be placed:

A

D. Below the level of the urinary bladder

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32
Q

Dynamic enhanced MRA sequences of the mesenteric arteries are performed using:

A

D. Incoherent gradient echo

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33
Q

The energy used to form MRI images is ____________ the patient’s tissues

A

A. Emitted from

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34
Q

The Ernst angle can be defined as the optimal ___________ that yields the ____________ signal for a particular spin in the least amount of time.

A

C. Flip angle; maximum

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35
Q

The extent to which a material or tissue becomes magnetized in an external magnetic field is called:

A

B. Magnetic susceptibility

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36
Q

Fat has a _______ T1 relaxation time and a ________ T2 relaxation time.

A

B. Short; short

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37
Q

The final result in a perfusion study is:

A

D. A set of calculated images which indicate various flow characteristics

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38
Q

The final result in a spectroscopy study is:

A

A. A spectrum of specific detected metabolites

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39
Q

The first major branch of the abdominal aorta is the _______.

A

D. Celiac artery

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40
Q

Force on an object in an magnetic environment depends on:
I. Mass of the object
II. Strength of the magnetic field
III. Strength of the RF field
IV. Ferromagnetic properties of the object

A

E. I, II and IV

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41
Q

A gradient echo sequence in which all the remaining residual transverse magnetization is removed prior to the next excitation pulse is known as:

A

A. Incoherent or spoiled

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42
Q

Gradient echo sequences can yield either T1 or T2* characteristics, with influences caused by all of the following EXCEPT:

A

D. Inversion time

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43
Q

Gradient echo sequences requiring high signal from fluid are known as all of the following EXCEPT:

A

C. Coherent gradient echo

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44
Q

The gradient rise time is defined as the:

A

D. Time it takes for the gradient to reach its full amplitude

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45
Q

The gradient slew rate is the:

A

D. Rate of speed of ascent or descent of a gradient from zero to its maximum amplitude

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46
Q

Healthcare workers generally practice ___________, which states the “goal is to do no harm.”

A

B. Beneficence

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47
Q

The HEIGHT of a peak on an MR spectrum correlates to the _________ of a substance that was detected.

A

D. Amount

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48
Q

Hemangiomas in the liver are typically benign lesions, and are best visualized with:

A

D. Delayed images

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49
Q

If the desire is to null the signal from a specific tissue using an inversion recovery sequence, the inversion time (TI) selected should be ______ of the T1 relaxation time of that tissue.

A

D. 69%

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50
Q

If the flip angle is doubled, RF deposition increases by a factor of:

A

D. 4

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51
Q

If the third ventricle is dilated, but the fourth ventricle is not, there would then be pathology associated with:

A

A. Aqueduct of Sylvius

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52
Q

If the TR in a gradient echo sequence is less than the T2 (or T2*), the resulting condition is known as:

A

B. Steady state

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53
Q

The _____________ imaging plane would be the most optimal slice orientation for evaluation of Arnold Chiari Malformation and its inferior cerebellar tonsillar herniation.

A

D. Sagittal

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54
Q

The imaging technique that employs a very rapid pulse sequence while the patient is at rest or performing a task is:

A

B. Functional MRI

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55
Q

Immediately following the application of the 90° RF pulse, the precessing protons:

A. Begin to precess in phase
B. All move into a high energy state C. Tip into the transverse plane
D. All the above
E. A and C only

A

E. A and C only

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56
Q

In a contrast enhanced MR angiography of the abdominal arteries, the IV gadolinium would enhance in which order?

A

D. Celiac, superior mesenteric, renal, inferior mesenteric

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57
Q

If 192 phase resolution is required, the TR must then be repeated ____ times for 1 NEX.

A

A. 192

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58
Q

In a cross-sectional view of the MR magnet design, which coils are closest to the patient?

A

D. Radiofrequency coils

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59
Q

In a dual contrast spin echo sequence with echo times of 25ms and 90ms, the second echo image has __________ than the first echo image

A

A. more T2 contrast

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60
Q

In a Fast Spin Echo (FSE) sequence, acquired with a long TE, yielding T2 weighted images, scan time can be reduced by:

A

D. Using longer ETL

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61
Q

In a Fast Spin Echo (FSE) sequence, acquired with a short echo time (TE), yielding T1 or PD weighted images, blurring can be reduced by:

A

C. Using shorter ETL

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62
Q

In a Fast Spin Echo sequence, the number of shots is calculated by:

A

C. #Phase encodings / ETL

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63
Q

In a fast spin echo sequence with a 25 cm FOV, 224 x 320 matrix, TR 2500, 100 TE, 3mm slice thickness, 12 ETL and 4 NEX, the scan time

A

B. 3 minutes 7 seconds

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64
Q

In a medical malpractice lawsuit, the ______ must be able to prove medical malpractice.

A

A. Patient plaintiff

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65
Q

Patient nodding their head or by them showing up at the agreed upon time for surgery.

A

B. Implied consent

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66
Q

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996. Privacy, security, establishment of standards and requirements for the electronic transmission of certain health information.

A

A. HIPAA

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67
Q

In an MRA sequence, the removal of signal from vessels is accomplished by:

A

A. Spectral presaturation

68
Q

In a superconducting magnet, the magnetic field strength is increased by increasing the:

A

D. Turns of wire

69
Q

Increasing the flip angle:

A

C. Increases SNR up to the Ernst angle

70
Q

In order to acquire an intracranial arterial blood flow sequence, a presaturation pulse would be applied in which location?

A

D. Superior to slice group

71
Q

In order to generate thin slices, a ___________ is used.

A

A. Steep slice selection gradient

72
Q

In the TMJ’s, the articular disc lies between what two anatomical structures?

A

D. Mandibular fossa and mandibular condyle

73
Q

In what orientation would a tear of the collateral ligaments of the knee be best visualized?

A

D. Coronal

74
Q

The _________ is defined as the resonant frequency, and is equal to the product of the magnetic field and the gyromagnetic ratio.

A

D. Precessional frequency

75
Q

_______ is when only half the views of k-space are filled in the frequency axis.

A

D. Partial or fractional echo

76
Q

The ligamentum flavum can be found in which part of the body?

A

B. Spine

77
Q

Magnetic field inhomogeneity is expressed in:

A

C. Parts per million

78
Q

Magnetic susceptibility artifacts are more prominent with _____________ sequences.

A

C. Gradient echo

79
Q

A magnetic vector possesses attributes of both __________ and _____________.

A

D. Magnitude; direction

80
Q

A major advantage of a 2D time of flight over a 3D time of flight sequence is the ability to:

A

D. Image larger areas without saturation of flowing blood

81
Q

The medial and lateral rectus muscles are in the:

A

D. Eyes

82
Q

The MRI system component that produces the magnetization of proton spins (alignment) is known as the:

A

B. Main magnet

83
Q

The MRI system component that provides the ability to perform spatial encoding is the:

A

C. Gradient system

84
Q

A narrow receiver bandwidth:

A

D. Increases susceptibility artifact

85
Q

On a T2 weighted image, edema appears bright because it has a _________ relaxation time.

A

D. Long T2

86
Q

On T1 weighted images of the spine, the CSF (cerebrospinal fluid) appears:

A

B. Hypointense to the spinal cord

87
Q

The optimal imaging plane for visualization of a TFCC tear is:

A

B. Coronal

88
Q

Permanent magnets with a vertical magnetic field use surface coils that are:

A

D. Solenoids

89
Q

Phase contrast MRA techniques produce images in which the signal intensity within the vessel is dependent upon the:

A

B. Velocity of the flowing blood

90
Q

The phase encoding step is performed:

A

C. Prior to frequency encoding

91
Q

The pixel size of the images which result from a 3D acquisition using a 260mm FOV, a 320 x 320 matrix, 32 slices and a volume of 64 mm is:

A

B. 0.88 x 0.88 mm

92
Q

The process that digitizes the MR signals is known as:

A

B. Fourier transform

93
Q

The purpose of shimming the magnet is to:

A

B. Make the B0 field as homogenous as possible

94
Q

The readout gradient is usually turned on during the sampling or readout of the peak echo and also during which other process?

A

D. Frequency encoding

95
Q

The receiver bandwidth (rBW) affects:

A. Signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) B. Slice thickness
C. Chemical shift
D. Spatial resolution
A and C

A

A and C

96
Q

Reducing the flip angle yields images with what change in image contrast?

A

D. Less T1 information

97
Q

Reducing the FOV by a factor of 2 will reduce the voxel volume by a factor of:

A

E. 4

98
Q

Reducing the FOV (field of view) only will result in:

A. Decreased spatial resolution
B. Increased signal-to-noise
C. Decreased signal-to-noise
D. Increased T1 contrast
E. More slices per TR
F. A and C

A

F. A and C

99
Q

Reducing the number of lines filled in k-space will produce an image:

A. With a decrease in spatial resolution B. With an increase in spatial resolution
C. With a decrease in overall SNR
D. With an increase in overall SNR
E. With a reduced overall scan time

A

G. A, D and E only

100
Q

Reducing the TE yields images with what change in image contrast?

A

D. Decreased T2 information

101
Q

Referencing the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), what type of isolation precautions should be used for HIV-positive patients in the MRI suite?

A

C. Standard (universal)

102
Q

Referencing the White Paper on MRI safety, individuals identified as “Level 1” personnel include:

A

B. Those with limited MRI safety training

103
Q

Referencing the White Paper on MRI safety, individuals identified as “Level 2” personnel include:

A

C. Those with extensive MRI safety training, including the magnetic, gradient and RF fields

104
Q

A remedy for a Gibbs truncation artifact would be:

A

C. Increase the number of phase encodings

105
Q

RF energy used in MRI is classified as:

A

A. Low energy, nonionizing radiation

106
Q

The __________________ runs the length of the falx cerebri.

A

B. Superior sagittal sinus

107
Q

________ sequences use T1 gradient echoes with TR and FA selections to suppress signal from stationary tissues, visualizing flowing blood by flow-related enhancement, whereas __________ sequences use T2 gradient echoes with parameter selections that suppress stationary tissue and rely on velocity-induced phase shifts for vascular signal.

A

D. TOF MRA; PC MRA

108
Q

Shimming in MRI can be performed by all the following EXCEPT:

A

A. Turning the shim coil off and on rapidly

109
Q

Short TAU inversion recovery (STIR) sequences are typically used for the evaluation of all the following EXCEPT:

A

C. Fluid (CSF)

110
Q

Single order gradient moment nulling does not compensate for:

A

D. B and C

111
Q

The smallest object that can be resolved in an image acquired with a 24cm FOV and a 272 x 272 matrix is _________ mm.

A

B. 0.88 mm

112
Q

The source of infection where pathogens thrive in numbers sufficient to cause a threat is known as a:

A

D. Reservoir

113
Q

A STIR sequence with a TI time of 160 ms will null signal from fat at what field strength?

A

D. 1.5 T

114
Q

The structures that comprise the rotator cuff in the shoulder are:
I. Deltoid muscle
II. Subscapularis muscle and tendon III. Infraspinatus muscle and tendon IV. Teres minor muscle and tendon
V. Supraspinatus muscle and tendon VI. Trapezius muscle and tendon

A

C. I, III, IV and V

115
Q

T2 weighted FLAIR (fluid attenuated inversion recovery) sequences are typically used for evaluation of:

A

E. White matter disease

116
Q

A technique utilized to reduce the MRI scan time which requires the use of an array coil is:

A

B. Parallel imaging

117
Q

A technologist may be permitted to administer oxygen in an emergency situation. The most common rate used is:

A

A. 2 L/min

118
Q

To increase the voxel volume, which parameters would be adjusted?

A

B. FOV, slice thickness and matrix

119
Q

To produce a high quality reformatted image, the:

A

B. Acquisition voxel should be isotropic

120
Q

To produce an image based on differences in T1, the time interval between 90° excitation pulses should be:

A

B. Short

121
Q

The transmit bandwidth of the RF pulse affects:

A. Spatial resolution
B. SNR
C. Image contrast
D. Slice thickness

A

A, B and D only

122
Q

The unit of measurement of the magnetic field surrounding the periphery of the MR scanner is expressed as:

A

D. Gauss

123
Q

The ___________ valve lies between the left atrium (LA) and the left ventricle (LV).

A

D. Mitral

124
Q

Water has a __________ T1 relaxation time and a ________ T2 relaxation time.

A

A. Long; long

125
Q

What effect would using a steep slice select slope and/or narrow bandwidth have on slice thickness?

A

B. Slices will be thin

126
Q

What element in the body is the principal nucleus utilized in clinical MR imaging?

A

B. Hydrogen

127
Q

What is the percentage of patients reported to have allergic reactions to gadolinium contrast agents?

A

A. 1%

128
Q

What protocol would be selected to rule out islet cell tumor?

A

D. Pancreas

129
Q

What would the scan time be in a 3D volume acquisition as follows: TR 24 ms, TE 7 ms, Flip Angle 15°, FOV 20cm, 2mm slice thickness, 76 slices, 176 x 256 matrix, 1 NEX?

A

D. 5 min 21 sec

130
Q

When a gradient echo sequence is selected for fast, breath hold dynamic contrast-enhanced imaging of the abdomen, _____________ is utilized.

A

D. Spoiling

131
Q

When imaging a geriatric patient, while performing a PCA MRA sequence, what imaging parameter might the operator adjust?

A

D. VENC

132
Q

When imaging a hemorrhagic infarct in the brain, which pulse sequence would demonstrate the magnetic susceptibility effects better?

A

D. Gradient echo

133
Q

When imaging the female pelvis, the most optimal view for evaluation of the ovaries is the:

A

B. Coronal

134
Q

When imaging the female pelvis, the most optimal view for evaluation of the uterus is the:

A

C. Sagittal

135
Q

When imaging the spine, to rule out metastatic lesions of the spinal cord, contrast enhancement is used with T1 weighted images because:

A

C. Metastatic lesions (in the cord) enhance and normal cord does not

136
Q

When parallel imaging techniques are utilized, a low resolution __________ is acquired prior to the acquisition.

A

B. Calibration scan

137
Q

When performing MRI to rule out brain tumors, the weighted images acquired to evaluate the extent of lesion involvement, after injection of gadolinium, are:

A

D. T1 weighted

138
Q

Which fissure divides the frontal and parietal lobes from the temporal lobes?

A

D. Sylvian fissure

139
Q

Which of the following best describes a FSE sequence?

A

D. A train of spin echoes

140
Q

Which of the following best describes an EPI sequence?

A

C. A train of gradient echoes

141
Q

Which of the following best describes an IR sequence?

A

A. A 180° pulse followed by a 90°/180° combination

142
Q

Which of the following combinations of flip angle (FA) and TR would produce a T2 weighted gradient echo?

A

C. 450 TR; 30o flip angle

143
Q

Which of the following field strengths would require the shortest TI time to suppress the signal from fat when performing a STIR sequence in an MRI of the ankle?

A

A. 0.5 T

144
Q

Which of the following has been documented to cause muscle contractions, cardiac arrhythmias, mild cutaneous sensations and visual light flashes?

A

B. Time varying magnetic fields (TVMF – gradient)

145
Q

Which of the following, in an MRA sequence, aids in minimizing the loss of signal due to dephasing within a voxel:

A. Long TE
B. Short TR
C. Smaller voxel size
D. Short TE
E. C and D

A

E. C and D

146
Q

Which of the following is NOT affected by changing the slice thickness?

A

D. The T2 contrast

147
Q

Which of the following is NOT a type of fomite found in an MRI environment?

A

A. Injection syringe

148
Q

Which of the following is NOT a type of fomite found in an MRI environment?

A

A. Injection syringe

149
Q

Which of the following parameter adjustments help to improve SNR in an MR image?
I. Increase TR
II.Reduce Phase Matrix
III. Reduce Pixel Size
IV. Increase FOV
V. Reduce rBW
VI. Increase rBW
VII. Increase NSA
VIII. Decrease NSA
IX. Increase ETL
X. Decrease ETL

A

A. I, II, IV, V, VII and X

150
Q

Which of the following parameter adjustments reduce the overall SNR in an MR image?
I. Decrease TR
II.Reduce Phase Matrix
III. Reduce Pixel Size
IV. Decrease FOV
V. Reduce rBW
VI. Increase rBW
VII. Increase NEX
VIII. Decrease NEX
IX. Increase ETL
X. Decrease ETL

A

B. I, III, IV, VIII and IX

151
Q

Which of the following parameter adjustments will LENGTHEN scan time in an MR pulse sequence?
I. Decrease TR
II. Increase TR
III. Increase ETL
IV. Decrease ETL
V. Decrease NEX
VI. Increase NEX
VII. Enable Half-fourier
VIII. Increase parallel imaging factor

A

C. II, IV, VI and IX

152
Q

Which of the following parameter adjustments will SHORTEN scan time in an MR pulse sequence?

I. Decrease TR
II. Increase TR
III. Increase ETL
IV. Decrease ETL
V. Decrease NEX
VI. Increase NEX
VII. Enable Half-fourier
VIII. Increase parallel imaging factor
IX. Decrease parallel imaging factor
X. Enable anti-aliasing

A

D. I, III, V, VII and VIII

153
Q

Which of the following sequences is the most insensitive to magnetic field inhomogeneity?

A

B. Spin echo

154
Q

Which parameter combination will yield the best spatial resolution?

A

C. 3 mm slice thickness, 256 x 256 matrix

155
Q

Which type of blood cell is responsible for phagocytosis?

A

A. Leukocyte

156
Q

The image below is a ___ weighted image acquired in the ___ scan plane?

A

T1 Axial

157
Q

What muscle the arrow show?

A

A. Pectineus

158
Q

Which arrow points to the Posterior Labrum?

A

D

159
Q

Which arrow points to the base of 2nd middle phalanx?

A

K

160
Q

Which component of the ventricular system is indicated?

A

A. Frontal horn of the lateral ventricles

161
Q

Which component of the ventricular system is indicated?

A

A. Cerebral aqueduct

162
Q

Arrow 2 is pointing at

A

The liver

163
Q

Arrow 5 is pointing at the

A

Transverse Colon

164
Q

Arrow 5 is also pointing

A

Right kidney

165
Q

The N is labeled :

A

Facet for head of rib

166
Q

The J is labeled

A

In the vertebral body

CapStone (1 decks)

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