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Synoptic Meteorology > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

To kick the fuck out of this synoptic final

1
Q

What are the components of vorticity?

Choose all that apply.
A) Curvature or rotation vorticity
B) Wind shear or speed shear
C) Moisture
D) Anticyclonic cusps
A

A & B

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2
Q

What are the possible characteristics of a large comma pattern?

Choose the best answer.
A) Associated with a vorticity maximum
B) Associated with strong cyclonic curvature
C) Associated with strong cyclonic wind shear
D) All of the above.

A

D

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3
Q

Where is the vorticity maximum located?

Choose the best answer.
A) At the center of cloud rotation
B) At the point of inflection
C) At the cusp
D) All of the above
A

D

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4
Q

Where are comma moisture patterns most likely?

Choose all that apply.
A) Upper troughs
B) Upper ridges
C) On the left side of the axis of maximum winds looking downstream
D) On the right side of the axis of maximum winds looking downstream

A

A & C

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5
Q

What does it mean when there is no cusp on a comma cloud?

Choose the best answer.
A) Rotational/Curvature vorticity dominates
B) Shear vorticity dominates
C) Poleward shear vorticity dominates
D) Equatorward shear vorticity dominates
E) All of the above
A

A

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6
Q

Where are cyclonic outward cusps most likely to be found?

Choose all that apply.
A) Upper troughs
B) Upper ridges
C) On the left side of the axis of maximum winds looking downstream
D) On the right side of the axis of maximum winds looking downstream
E) Mid latitudes
F) Equatorial regions

A

A, C, & E

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7
Q

What are the possible characteristics of a large anticomma pattern?

Choose the best answer.
A) Associated with a vorticity minimum
B) Associated with strong anticyclonic curvature
C) Associated with strong anticyclonic wind shear
D) All of the above

A

D

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8
Q

Where is the vorticity minimum located?

Choose the best answer.
A) At the center of cloud rotation
B) At the point of inflection
C) At the cusp
D) All of the above.
A

D

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9
Q

Where are anticyclonic inward cusps most likely to be found?

Choose all that apply.
A) Upper troughs
B) Upper ridges
C) On the left side of the axis of maximum winds looking downstream
D) On the right side of the axis of maximum winds looking downstream
E) Mid latitudes
F) Equatorial regions

A

B, D, & E

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10
Q

Where are anticomma moisture patterns most likely?

Choose all that apply.
A) Upper troughs
B) Upper ridges
C) On the left side of the axis of maximum winds looking downstream
D) On the right side of the axis of maximum winds looking downstream

A

B & D

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11
Q

What does it mean when there is no cusp on an anticomma cloud as depicted?

Choose all that apply.
A) Rotational/Curvature vorticity dominates
B) Shear vorticity dominates
C) Poleward shear vorticity dominates
D) Equatorward shear vorticity dominates
A

A

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12
Q

Choose the conditions that are most likely to contribute to flow blocking:

Stability is high or low?
Wind speed is high or low?
Ridgetop elevation is high or low?

A

High, Low, High

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13
Q

If the conditions upwind of a 1000 m high ridge are wind speed (U) = 15 m/s and Brunt-Vaisala Frequency (N) = 0.01, what will happen to the flow? (Hint Fr = U/Nh).

Choose the best answer.
A) Flow will be blocked by topography.
B) Flow will continue over the ridge.

A

B

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14
Q

Flow with a high Froude Number is not deflected toward low pressure as it crosses a mountain ridge.

True or False?

A

False

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15
Q

When a landfalling front is approximately parallel to the coastal mountains, which of the following events should you anticipate?

Choose the best answer.
A) Prefrontal flow blocking and development of a barrier jet
B) Postfrontal windward ridging and development of enhanced, coast-parallel, low-level flow
C) Development of a split front and enhanced convection

A

B

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16
Q

Prefrontal flow blocking and development of a barrier jet occur most frequently when the angle between the landfalling front and the coastal mountain approximately equals what value?

Choose the best answer.
A) Parallel
B) 45°
C) 90° (perpendicular)

A

B

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17
Q

Which of the following enhances stability in the prefrontal environment?

Choose the best answer.
A) Warm advection aloft
B) Warm advection near the surface
C) Frontal passage

A

A

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18
Q

Which of the following best describes the change in the pressure field as fronts make landfall under unblocked flow conditions.

Choose the best answer.
A) Formation of a windward ridge / lee trough
B) Formation of a windward ridge only
C) Formation of a windward trough / lee ridge
D) No change in the pressure field

A

A

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19
Q

Given a landfalling front under conditions conducive to flow blocking, which of following events are likely to occur?

Choose all that apply.
A) The landward motion of the front slows.
B) A barrier jet develops.
C) A windward ridge / lee tough develops.
D) The maximum precipitation is displaced to the lee side of the ridge.

A

A & B

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20
Q

Given a landfalling front under conditions that are not conducive to flow blocking, which of following events is likely to occur?

Choose the best answer.
A) The landward motion of the front slows.
B) A barrier jet develops.
C) A windward ridge /lee trough develops.
D) Maximum precipitation is displaced to the lee side of the ridge.

A

C

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21
Q

Compared to low-resolution models, high-resolution models are likely to produce a better forecast of which of the following?

Choose all that apply.
A) Frontal propagation
B) Barrier jet formation
C) Precipitation location
D) Pressure field
A

A, B, C, & D

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22
Q

Under conditions of flow blocking, in which direction is precipitation likely to be displaced?

Choose the best answer.
A) Windward
B) Leeward

A

A

23
Q

Frontal passage typically leads to what change in low-level atmospheric stability?

Choose the best answer.
A) An increase
B) A decrease

A

B

24
Q

What is/are the advantages of using water vapor satellite imagery to identify blocking patterns?

Choose all that apply.
A) This imagery indirectly shows the vertical motions associated with each air mass.
B) This imagery depicts the synoptic flow patterns better than other satellite imagery.
C) This imagery has higher temporal resolution than typical synoptic-scale forecast models.
D) This imagery sees multiple levels of the atmosphere making it a good proxy for isentropic potential vorticity.

A

B, C, & D

25
Q

The typical weather associated with the persistent high height center within a block is
hot/warm or cold/cool
and
clear/dry or cloudy/moist?

A

hot/warm & clear/dry

26
Q

The typical weather associated with the persistent low height center within a block is
hot/warm or cold/cool
and
clear/dry or cloudy/moist?

A

cold/cool & cloudy/moist

27
Q

Why do blocks translate slowly or not at all, sometimes even retrograding?

A) Because the height centers are so large and strong, the synoptic flow goes around them.
B) The vorticity centers wrap equally around each height center so geopotential height advection never occurs on one side preferentially.
C) The meridional deformation zone west of the block causes zonal flow to be small as it is split into north and south meridional segments.
D) Because of the strong vertical motion at the meridional deformation zone west of the block, the zonal flow is small.

A

C

28
Q

The west coast of equatorial Africa is a typical location for blocks to form.

True or False?

A

False

29
Q

What feature should you focus on for forecasting dissipation of blocking patterns?

A) Mid-level pressure centers
B) Deformation zones
C) Flow recombination region
D) Mid-level vorticity centers

A

B

30
Q

What is the “burst point” of a mid-latitude cyclone comma cloud often associated with?

A

Convection

31
Q

What is the dry slot of a mid-latitude cyclone comma cloud often associated with?

A

Jet stream tropopause folding

32
Q

Warm core cyclones have a high or low aloft?

A

High

33
Q

Cold core cyclones have a high or low aloft?

A

Low

34
Q

How does an “instant” occlusion of a mid-latitude cyclone form?

A

A comma cloud in the polar air joins with the cloud mass along the polar front.

35
Q

What type of cyclone is a combination of both baroclinic and convective processes and may contain an eye-like feature?

A

Type A Cyclone or “bomb” cyclone

36
Q

When strong baroclinic instability coincides with strong thermal instability over an ocean, central pressures in a cyclone may do what?

A

Drop up to 50 mb in 24 hours

37
Q

A Type A cyclone appears under an almost straight polar jet without a significant active region and goes through what type of cyclogenesis?

A

an amplifying frontal wave

38
Q

A Type B cyclone occurs when strong upper-level vorticity advection overtakes a strongly baroclinic region in the lower troposphere and goes through what type of cyclogenesis?

A

A disturbance in the upper troposphere

39
Q

A Type C cyclone goes through what type of cyclogenesis?

A

An orographic disturbance

40
Q

A Colorado cyclone is what type of cyclone?

i.e: A, B, or C.

A

C

41
Q

When does the lee-side trough associated with orographic cyclones normally form?

A

When the upper-level ridge passes east of the obstructing mountain range.

42
Q

For an orographic cyclone, what happens when the upper-level trough approaches the obstructing mountain range?

A

The polar front merges with the lee-side trough

43
Q

What does a low-level jet represent?

A

Strong return flow in the warm sector of a mid-latitude cyclone.

44
Q

How many kilometers wide can a LLJ be? How many kilometers long?

A

Wide - 500-1000

Long - 1000-2000

45
Q

Where above the surface are the maximum winds found in a LLJ?

A

~1 km, 850 mb

46
Q

What type of inversion is a LLJ wind maximum often found in?

A

Trade wind (i.e. subsidence)

47
Q

Why does a LLJ decrease in intensity during the day?

A

Because of convective instability associated with daytime solar heating.

48
Q

Theta-e is the potential temperature of a parcel when its saturation mixing ratio is equal to what?

A

0 g/kg

49
Q

How can the equivalent potential temperature be found on a skew-T?

A

expanded pseudo-adiabatically until all water vapor is condensed, all latent heat is released, and all liquid or solid H2O has fallen out. Air is then compressed dry adiabatically to 1000mb.

50
Q

Which of these are the ingredients required for cyclogenesis to begin?

Choose all that apply.
A) Frontal Band
B) Comma Cloud
C) Emerging Layered Cloud
D) Upstream Perturbation
E) Occluded Front
A

A & D

51
Q

What is the indicator that cyclogenesis has begun in water vapor imagery?

Choose the best answer.
A) Cyclonic Rotation
B) Increased cloud coverage
C) Increased cloud depth
D) Emerging layered cloud
E) Striations in the frontal band perpendicular to the flow
A

D

52
Q

When one ingredient of cyclogenesis is relatively strong, the other ingredient can be ________ and still be cyclogenetic.

A) Stronger and Distant
B) Weaker and Close
C) Weaker and Distant
D) Stronger and Close

A

B

53
Q

Why do we use water vapor imagery to find cyclogenesis?

Choose all that apply.
A) The imagery depicts moisture in a layer near the level of non-divergence
B) The imagery shows cyclonic cloud movements near the surface
C) The advection of water vapor is necessary for cyclogenesis to occur
D) The temporal and spatial resolution are sufficient to find cyclogenesis
E) The precursor ingredients can be seen easily with this imagery

A

A,D, & E

Synoptic Meteorology (1 decks)

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