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CA1 > FINAL EXAM > Flashcards

FINAL EXAM Flashcards

1
Q

In planning, conceptualizing the purpose and the aspirations of the organization is essential. What statement gives a false description of a vision?
A. It reflects what the organization wants to be
B. It is written to magnify the various activities and it is projected with a broad time frame
C. It reflects why the organization exist
D. It uses action words in the present tense

A

C. It reflects why the organization exist

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2
Q

It corresponds to moderate care or category 2 in the patient classification system, if:
A. The patient is unstable and acutely ill and has high demands for nursing care
B. The patient is already recovering from a serious illness and requires some assistance.
C. The patient is only requiring diagnostic studies and minimal therapy.
D. The patient needs close monitoring and requires complete care in most activities

A

B. The patient is already recovering from a serious illness and requires some assistance.

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3
Q

What are the tasks that should not be delegated to a non- professional staff?
A. Doing the vital signs
B. Turning the client every two hours
C. Grooming and bathing the client
D. Assessment of neurological deficits

A

D. Assessment of neurological deficits

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4
Q

What kind of staffing is considered the most common pattern and the oldest type?
A. Cyclical staffing
B. Full-time equivalent staffing
C. Conventional staffing
D. Decentralized staffing

A

C. Conventional staffing

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5
Q

What type of conflict refers to when there are two or more opposing incompatible demands that arise and priority differences affect the resolution of the conflict.
A. Interpersonal conflict
B. Organizational conflict
C. Intrapersonal conflict
D. Answers A & B

A

A. Interpersonal conflict

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6
Q

A type of leadership theory wherein the leaders can affect the performance, satisfaction, motivation of the group through rewards to meet the goals and removal of obstacle in work performance.

A

PATH GOAL THEORY

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7
Q

A managerial level that consists of the nursing supervisors. They directs and implement activity.

A

Middle Level Manager

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8
Q

These are environmental factors barriers that prevent or reduce the opportunities for communication.

A

PHYSICAL BARRIER

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9
Q

A type of conflict that occurs when two or more groups attempt the same goal and only one group can attain them.

A

COMPETITIVE CONFLICT

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10
Q

It is a more diplomatic way of suppressing conflict wherein on persuades the opponent to give in to the other side.

A

SMOOTHING BEHAVIOR

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11
Q

BCG Vaccine Nursing Responsibilities BCG prevents;

A

TB MENINGITIS

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12
Q

Rabies Mode of transmission: _____ and _____(rare):

A

ANIMAL BITE AND SCRATCH

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13
Q

Rabies Causative Agent

A

RHABDO VIRUS

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14
Q

Rabies also known as

A

LYSSA

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15
Q

Tetanus DOC

A

METRONIDAZOLE

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16
Q

Tetanus Causative Agent

A

CLOSTRIDIUM TETANI (BACTERIA)

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17
Q

Malaria also known as

A

MARSH FEVER

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18
Q

Malaria primarily affects

A

RBC

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19
Q

Malaria MOT

A

ANOPHELES MOSQUITO

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20
Q

Malaria Prevention

A

ON STREAM SEEDING FISH

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21
Q

A client is diagnosed with viral hepatitis, complaining of “no appetite” and “losing my taste for food.” What instruction should the nurse give the client to provide adequate nutrition?
A. Eat less often, preferably only 3 large meals daily.
B. Select foods high in fat
C. Eat a good supper when anorexia is not as severe
D. Increase intake of fluids, including juices

A

D. Increase intake of fluid, including juices

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22
Q

It is children who do not receive enough sleep can suffer__________ just as adults. After approximately 4 days of poor sleep?
A. Sleep deprivation
B. Anxiety
C. Schizophrenia
D. Stress
E. All of the above

A

A. Sleep Deprivation

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23
Q

The procedure may require injection of an iodine- based contrast medium. If a radioisotope is added, the study is referred to as__________?
A. Computed tomography (CT)
B. Positron Emssion Tomography (PET)
C. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
D. Single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT)
E. B and D only

A

E. B and D only

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24
Q

Most medication errors are made in situations where the number of medications being given is high and speed in administration is crucial?
A. Right Child
B. Right Medicine
C. Right Dosage
D. Right Route and Time
E. Right Information and Documentation

A

B. Right Medicine

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25
Q

.It is a sharp pain. Paper cuts are examples of lacerations that cause _________?
A. Chronic Pain
B. Cutaneous Pain
C. Acute Pain
D. Somatic Pain
E. Visceral Pain

A

C. Acute Pain

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26
Q

It is a technique in which children are taught to stop anxious thoughts by substituting a positive or relaxing thought?
A. Distracting
B. Substitution of meaning
C. All of the above
D. Thought Stopping
E. None

A

D. Thought Stopping

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27
Q

Which of the following best describes dyslexia in children?
A. A condition where individuals have difficulty
recognizing letters and numbers.
B. A specific learning disability that primarily
affects reading and language processing.
C. A sensory perception disorder related to touch
and movement.
D. A motor skills disorder that impacts
handwriting and coordination.
E. None of the above

A

B. A specific learning disability that primarily
affects reading and language processing.

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28
Q

What are common symptoms of dyslexia in children?
A. Difficulty recognizing symbols through touch or
movement.
B. Challenges with handwriting and fine motor
skills.
C. Trouble with reading fluency, decoding words,
and spelling.
D. Sensory perception disorder related to
language processing.
E. None of the above

A

C. Trouble with reading fluency, decoding words,
and spelling.

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29
Q

In cases of child abuse, which factor often contributes to the child’s inability to seek help or disclose the abuse?
A. High self-esteem
B. Open communication within the family
C. Fear of retaliation or further harm
D. Strong social support network
E. All of the above

A

C. Fear of retaliation or further harm

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30
Q

A client with hiatal hernia chronically experiences heartburn following meals. The nurse should plan to teach the client to avoid which action because it is contraindicated with a hiatal hernia?
A. Taking H2-receptor antagonist medication
B. Consuming small, frequent, bland meals
C. Lying recumbent following meals
A. Raising the head of the bed on 6-inch (15 cm) blocks

A

C. Lying recumbent following meals

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31
Q

After a laryngectomy a client is concerned about improving the ability to communicate. What topic should the nurse include in the teaching plan for the client?
A. Computer-generated speech
B. Body language
C. Esophageal speech
A. Sign language

A

C. Esophageal speech

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32
Q

A client has a laryngectomy. The avoidance of which activity identified by the client indicates that the nurse’s teaching about activities is understood?
A. Water sports
B. Sleeping with pillows
C. Strenuous activities
D. High-humidity environment

A

B. Sleeping with pillows

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33
Q

A client had a thoracentesis, for which response is the most important for the nurse to observe the client?
A. Expectoration of blood
B. Signs of infection
C. Decreased respiratory rate
D. Increased breath sounds

A

A. Expectoration of blood

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34
Q

Anterior Interventricular Artery is also called?

A

Left Anterior Descending Artery or LAD

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35
Q

What generate and transmit impulses across the heart and stimulates cardiac monocytes to contract?

A

Nodal and purkinje cells

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36
Q

What are the three major parts of the brain stem?

A

Midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata

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37
Q

Adrenal medulla secreted what hormones?

A

Epinephrine and Norepinephrine

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38
Q

The average functional lifespan of the Red Blood Cell?

A

100-120 days

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39
Q

The Republic Act that refers to the Magna Carta of Public Health Workers:
A.R.A. 2382
B. R.A. 2644
C. R.A. 7305
D. R.A. 6425

A

C. R.A. 7305

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40
Q

Republic Act -7164 knows as the “Nursing Act of 1991” embodies the Regulation of Practice of Nursing in the Philippines. A member of the board of Nursing must be:
A. Citizens of the Philippines
B. RN and holder of Master Degree
C. 10 years of continuous practice of the profession
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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41
Q

A nurse gives a wrong medication to a client. Another nurses employed by the hospitals, as a risk manager will expect to receive which following communications?
A. Incident Report
B. Oral report from the nurse
C. Copy of medication Kardex
D. Jurisprudence Nursing

A

A. Incident Report

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42
Q

Performing a procedure on a client in the absence of informed consent can lead to which of the following charges?
A. Fraud
B. Harassment
C. Assault and battery
D. Breach of confidentiality

A

C. Assault and battery

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43
Q

A nurse is witnessing consent from a client before a cardiac catheterization. Which of the following factors is a component of informed consent?
A. Freedom from coercion
B. Durable power of attorney
C. Private insurance coverage
D. Disclosure of previous answers given by the client

A

A. Freedom from coercion

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44
Q

This is a legal document that specifies the scope of nursing practice within a particular state.

A

Nursing Practice act

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45
Q

What is the primary role of a nurse advocate?

A

To protect the patient’s rights and best interests.

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46
Q

What protects a nurse who helps in an emergency outside of work?

A

Good Samaritan laws.

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47
Q

What is the term for not sharing patient information without consent?

A

Confidentiality.

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48
Q

What ethical principle involves doing good and preventing harm?

A

Beneficence.

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49
Q

In a family crisis situation, which behavior might indicate the presence of learned helplessness?
A. Actively seeking out resources and support
B. Expressing optimism and belief in one’s ability to overcome challenges
C. Withdrawing from social interactions and problem-solving activities
D. Engaging in constructive communication and conflict resolution
E. Both A and C

A

C. Withdrawing from social interactions and problem-solving activities

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50
Q

Which intervention strategy is most appropriate for addressing learned helplessness in a family crisis?
A. Encouraging self-blame and guilt
B. Providing opportunities for empowerment and skill-building
C. Ignoring the problem in hopes it will resolve itself
D. Enforcing strict discipline and punishment
E. Both B and C

A

B. Providing opportunities for empowerment and skill-building

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51
Q

It refers to the infection and inflammation of the palatine tonsils.
A. Tonsilitis
B. Adenitis
C. Pharyngitis
D. Palatinitis
E. Epistaxis

A

A. Tonsilitis

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52
Q

What is the ratio of the ventilation to compressions used for resuscitating an infant? One person rescue
A. 1:2
B. 2:30
C. 1:10
D. 2:15
E. 3:15

A

B. 2:30

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53
Q

Any child can have an anaphylactic reaction to a food or drug. What is the Drug of Choice you would want to have available to treat anaphylactic reactions?
A. Prednisone
B. Lidocaine
C. Epinephrine
D. Penicillin
E. Ibuprofen

A

C. Epinephrine

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54
Q

It is a small. Irregular, bright red spots with a blue-white center point that appear on the buccal membrane.
A. Chickenpox
B. Rose spots
C. Hives
D. Koplik spots
E. Scabies

A

D. Koplik spots

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55
Q

The child received iron chelation therapy in the past, iron chelation therapy is:
A. A procedure to help iron move effectively into hemoglobin
B. A therapy to increase the iron level in bones
C. A therapy to increase the iron level in muscle cells
D. A therapy to convert iron into calcium to increase heart action
E. A procedure to remove excess iron from the child’s body.

A

E. A procedure to remove excess iron from the child’s body.

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56
Q

_______ is congenital condition involving abnormally wide-spaced eyes. Children with wide epicanthal folds by the inner canthus may appear to have wide-spaced eyes, but, when the distance between the pupils is measured and compared with standards for the child’s age, the true condition is revealed.
A. Hypertelorism
B. Ptosis
C. Strabismus
D. Coloboma
E. Myopia

A

A. Hypertelorism

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57
Q

It is the inflammation of the middle ear , the most prevalent disease of childhood after respiratory tract infections. It occurs most often in children 6 to 36 months of age and again at 4 to 6 years.
A. External otitis
B. Otitis media with effusion
C. Acute Otitis media
D. Impacted cerumen
E. Tympanocentesis

A

C. Acute Otitis media

58
Q

It is an acute, nonpurulent inflammation of the synovial membrane of a joint, occurs most commonly in the hip joint in children. The peak age of incidence is between 2 and 10 years old.
A. Apophysitis
B. Osgood-schlatter disease
C. Osteomyelitis
D. Femoral epiphysis
E. Synovitis

A

E. Synovitis

59
Q

It is malignant tumor occurring most often in the bone marrow of the diaphyseal area (midshaft) of long bones. Most children have had pain at the site of the tumor for some time before seeing a physician. At first, the pain is intermittent, and the child attributes it to an injury. Finally, the pain becomes constant and so severe that the child can not sleep at night.
A. Neuroblastoma
B. Rhabdomyosarcoma
C. Osteogenic sarcoma
D. Ewing’s Sarcoma
E. Sarcoma

A

D. Ewing’s Sarcoma

60
Q

It is a malignant tumor of the retina of the eye. A rare tumor, it accounts for only 1% to 3% of childhood malignancies
A. Malignant melanoma
B. Nephroblastoma
C. Retinablastoma
D. Retinoblastoma
E. Blastoma

A

D. Retinoblastoma

61
Q

Which diagnostic finding is present when a child has a primary nephrotic syndrome?
A. Positive ASO titer
B. Hyperalbuminemia
C. Proteinuria
D. Leukocytosis
E. None of the above

A

C. Proteinuria

62
Q

Which factor predispose a child to urinary tract infections?
A. Increase fluid intake
B. Short urethra in young girls
C. Prostatic secretions in males
D. Frequent emptying of the bladder
E. Both A and B

A

B. Short urethra in young girls

63
Q

When assessing a patient for amenorrhwa, the nurse should be aware that this is unlikely to be caused by:
A. Anatomic abnormalities
B. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
C. Lack of exercise
D. Hysterectomy
E. Both B and D

A

C. Lack of exercise

64
Q

Which statement best describes hypopituitarism?
A. Growth is no during the first 3 years of life
B. Weight is usually more retarded than height
C. Skeletal proportions are normal for age.
D. Most of their children have subnormal intelligence.
E. None of the above

A

C. Skeletal proportions are normal for age.

65
Q

A nurse is assessing a 1 year old child for increased intracranial pressure (ICP) . Which sign should the nurse assess for with this age of child?
A. Headache
B. Bulging fontanel
C. Tachypnea
D. Increase in head circumference
E. Both B and C

A

A. Headache

66
Q

It is the condition of being deprived of, or lacking of, adequate sensory, social, physical, or cognitive stimulation?

A

Sensory deprivation

67
Q

It is a painless procedure in which images of internal tissue and organs, such as the appendix, are produced by the use of of sound waves?

A

Ultrasound

68
Q

It is an intermittent infusion devices, still sometimes called _________, are devices that maintain open venous access for medicine administration while allowing children to be free of IV tubing so that they can be out of bed and more active?

A

Heparin Locks

69
Q

They are not willing to bear any additional pain?

A

Pain Tolerance

70
Q

It refers to a state of depressed consciousness usually obtained through IV analgesia therapy?

A

Conscious Sedation

71
Q

What is the term for the grief experienced by family members and caregivers when they anticipate the death of a loved one, such as a child with a long-term or terminal illness?

A

Anticipatory grief

72
Q

What term describes the emotional and psychological distress experienced by children who face adversity, such as a sibling’s illness or death?

A

Vulnerability

73
Q

Which stage of the grief process involves the individual bargaining to avoid the reality of loss, often making promises or seeking ways to reverse the situation?

A

Bargaining

74
Q

When a child has a long-term or terminal illness, which family member(s) might experience anticipatory grief?

A

Both parents and siblings

75
Q

How does anticipatory grief differ from grief experienced after the death of a loved one?

A

Anticipatory grief occurs before the actual loss, while grief after death occurs afterward.

76
Q

What is the most frequent infectious disease in children?

A

Acute Nasopharyngitis (Common Cold)

77
Q

It is called a blue tinge to the skin?

A

Cyanosis

78
Q

Is the state of being insusceptible or resistant to a noxious agent or process, especially a pathogen or infectious disease. Immunity may occur naturally or be produced by prior exposure or immunization

A

Immunity

79
Q

What is the causative agent of Rabies

A

Rhabdovirus

80
Q

It refers to a hemorrhagic rash or small hemorrhages in the superficial layers of skin.

A

Purpura

81
Q

Myopia is also known as_______

A

Nearsightedness

82
Q

In children, the spleen is the most frequently injured organ in abdominal trauma, because it is usually palpable under the lower left ribs.

A

Splenic Rupture

83
Q

Tumors derived from connective tissue, such as bone and cartilage, muscle, blood vessels, or lymphoid tissue, are called ______.

A

Sarcomas

84
Q

Neoplasms can be either ______ or _______.

A

Benign (growth is limited), or Malignant (cancerous)

85
Q

It is a type of poisoning that can occur by accidental ingestion or through skin or respiratory tract contact when children play in an area that has been recently sprayed.

A

Pesticide Poisoning

86
Q

It is caused by a deficiency of all food groups, basically a form of starvation.

A

Nutritional marasmus

87
Q

It is a urethral defect in which the urethral opening is not at the end of the penis but on the ventral (lower) aspect of the penis .

A

Hypospadias

88
Q

. It is failure of one or both testes to descend from the abdominal cavity into the scrotum

A

Cryptorchidism

89
Q

It is oversecretion of thyroid hormones by the thyroid gland.

A

Hyperthyroidism

90
Q

The diagnostic technique of positron emission tomography (PET) involves imaging after injection of positron emitting radiopharmaceuticals into the brain.

A

Positron Emission Tomography.

91
Q

Malaria prevention common in

A

MOUNTAIN AREAS

92
Q

What is the term that means white blood cells moving toward a chemical signal?

A

chemotaxis

93
Q

Rupturing of the cell membranes is referred to as _____.

A

lysis

94
Q

A tropical disease in which the lymphatics become blocked is called?

A

Elephantiasis

95
Q

Large lymphatic capillaries in a lymph node spanned by crisscrossing reticular fibers are known as ______.

A

Lymph sinuses

96
Q

It is the indented region on the concave side of the node leading into the efferent vessels?

A

Hilum

97
Q

When considering the pressure within the interstitium,_____ pressure is responsible for moving tissue fluid into lymphatic capillaries?
a.​Osmotic
b.​Hydrostatic
c.​Plasma
d.​Blood

A

b. Hydrostatic pressure

98
Q

Which immunoglobulin functions this way: Activates complement; response to bacteria, virus and toxins?
a.​IgD
b.​IgA
c.​IgE
d.​IgG

A

d. IgG

99
Q

Small molecules called _____ are unable to stimulate a response on their own. However once they combine with a larger molecule they can trigger an immune response.
a.​Antibodies
b.​Complement proteins
c.​Pyrogens
d.​Haptens

A

d. Haptens

100
Q

In an anatomy class at the nursing school instructor JC is discussing the spleen’s structure and functions. Among the facts he shares, there is one statement that doesn’t hold true about this organ. Which of the following could it be?
a.​It is home to macrophages, The body’s cleaner cell
b.​It is section into two segments
c.​It maintains a minimal amount of blood within the lobules
d.​It is comparable to a sizable lymph node

A

d. It maintains a minimal amount of blood within the lobules.

101
Q

During a professional conference, nurse sheesh attends a session focus on immune system disorders. She learns about a specific condition that is linked to a division in B cells, a vital part of the immune system. Which disorder is she learning about?
a.​Chronic granulomatous disease
b.​Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
c.​Job’s syndrome
d.​Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia

A

d. Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia.

102
Q

Drug of choice for burn therapy to limit infection at the burn sit for children

A

Silver Sulfadiazine

103
Q

Iodine stings as it is applied and stains skin and clothing brown

A

Povidone Iodine

104
Q

Type of grafting: strip of partial-thickness skin that is slit at intervals so that it can be stretched to cover a larger area

A

Mesh Grafts

105
Q

What is the percent of anterior trunk in adult?

A

18%

106
Q

What is the percentage of bilateral anterior arms, forearm, and hand in adults?

A

9%

107
Q

Allows for gross approximation of the percentage of the body affected by a burn
a. Rule of nines
b. Rule of kingdom
c. Burn
d. 3rd degree

A

a. Rule of nines

108
Q

What is degree of genital region in adult?
a. 1 %
b. 2%
c. 19%
d. 36%

A

a. 1 %

109
Q

Rule of nines: what is the percentage of head and neck in adult
a. 9%
b. 19%
c. 8%
d. 18%

A

a. 9%

110
Q

According to the rule of nines, an infant’s head is
a. Half of the anterior trunk
b. Equal to the percentage of both its legs
c. Worth nine percent of the total body surface area
d. Equal to the anterior trunk

A

d. Equal to the anterior trunk

111
Q

A 66 year old female patient has deep partial-thickness burns to both of the legs on the back, front and back of the trunk, both arms on the front and back, and front and back of the head and neck. Using the rule of nines, calculate the total body surface area percentage that is burned?
a. 72%
b. 63%
c. 81%
d. 45%

A

c. 81%

112
Q

Increases heart rate, blood pressure, blood
sugar, and blood flow for quick reaction

A

Epinephrine

113
Q

Triggers kidneys to reabsorb water, aiding
urine retention

A

Antidiuretic Hormone

114
Q

Stress hormone, involved in glucose
production and stress response

A

Cortisol

115
Q

Raises blood sugar by triggering liver to
release sugar into bloodstream

A

Glucagon

116
Q

Triggers ovulation each month, stimulates
testosterone production. and stimulates the
ovaries to produce estrogen and progesterone

A

Luteinizing Hormone

117
Q

A nurse provides instructions to a client regarding the administration of the prednisone and instructs the client that the best time to take the medication is during?
a. Before breakfast
b. After breakfast
c. Evening
d. Before bedtime
e. Every 4 hours

A

B. After breakfast

118
Q

A client with diabetes insipidus is taking antidiuretic hormone. Which of the following symptoms would alert the need to decrease the dosage?
a. Alopecia
b. Jaundice
c. Diarrhea
d. Drowsiness
e. Tachycardia

A

D. Drowsiness

119
Q

Which of the following medications
decreases their action while taking thyroid
hormone?
a. Metformin
b. Warfarin
c. Zoloft
d. Epinephrine

A

A. Metformin

120
Q

A nurse is instructing a client regarding
intranasal vasopressin (Pitressin). The nurse
tells the client which of the following is a side
effect specific to the medication?
a. Rhinitis
b. Headache
c. Flushing
d. Nausea

A

A. Rhinitis

121
Q

A nurse is giving discharge instructions to a patient who is taking Synthroid (levothyroxine). The nurse instructs the client to notify the physician if which of the following occurs?
a. Cold intolerance
b. Tremors
c. Coarse, dry hair
d. Muscle cramps

A

B. Tremors

122
Q

These are the 3 major extensions of dura:
___________________: folds between two hemispheres
________________: folds between the occipital lobe and cerebellum to form a tough, membranous shelf
__________________: located between the right and left side of the cerebellum

A

Falx Cerebri
Tentorium
Falx Cerebilli

123
Q

A clear and colorless fluid that is produced in the choroid plexus of ventricles and circulates around the surface of the brain and spinal cord.

A

Cerebrospinal fluid

124
Q

The composition od CSF is similar to that of the _______________________________.

A

Extracellular Fluids

125
Q

Outpouching of blood vessels due to vessel wall weakness.

A

Aneurysm

126
Q

Where is Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas located in the brain?

A

Frontal lobe
Temporal lobe

127
Q

Which neurotransmitter is responsible for many of the functions of the frontal lobe?
a. Dopamine
b. GABA
c. Histamine
d. Norepinephrine
e. Serotonin

A

A. Dopamine

128
Q

A client arrives at the ER after slipping on a patch of ice and hitting her head. A CT scan of the head shows a collection of blood between the skull and dura mater. Which type of head injury does this finding suggest?
a. Subdural hematoma
b. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
c. Epidural Hemorrhage
d. Contusion
e. Foramen Hematoma

A

C. Epidural Hematoma

129
Q

A 20-year-old client who fell approximately 30’ is unresponsive and breathless. A cervical spine injury is suspected. How should the first-responder open the client’s airway for rescue breathing?
a. By inserting a nasopharyngeal airway
b. By inserting an oropharyngeal airway
c. By performing a jaw thrust maneuver
d. By performing the head-tilt, chin lift maneuver
e. By doing leopold’s maneuver

A

C. By performing a jaw thrust maneuver.

130
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who suffered a spinal cord injury 48 hours ago. The nurse monitors for GI complications by assessing for:
a. Flattened abdomen
b. Hematest positive nasogastric tube drainage
c. Hyperactive bowel sounds
d. History of diarrhea
e. Boggy abdomen

A

B. Hematest positive nasogastric tube drainage

131
Q

The nurse is evaluating neurological signs of the male client in spinal shock following spinal cord injury. Which of the following observations by the nurse indicates that spinal shock persists?
a. Positive reflexes
b. Hyperreflexia
c. Inability to elicit a Babinski’s reflex
d. Reflex emptying of the bladder
e. Hyporreflexia

A

D. Inability to elicit a Babinski’s reflex

132
Q

Faint, low pitched sound produced by rapid ventricular filling in early diastole

A

S3 SOUND

133
Q

The 1st and 2nd heart sounds are best heard with the ____________ of the stethoscope

A

DIAPHRAGM

134
Q

Extra heart sounds are heard best with the ______ of the stethoscope

A

BELL

135
Q

What diagnostic test is most commonly used to confirm the diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction?

A

ECG
(Electrocardiogram)

136
Q

What is the term for the condition characterized by an abnormal enlargement or ballooning of a blood vessel, often resulting from weakness in the vessel wall?

A

ANEURYSM

137
Q

The priority nursing diagnoses for the client with dysthythmias is:
a. Decreased cardiac output
b. Decrease tissue perfusion
c. Alteration in comfort
d. Activity intolerance
e. Both a and c

A

A. Decreased cardiac output

138
Q

The type of artificial cardiac pacemaker which provides electrical firings when the heart rate becomes slow is:
a. Fixed rate
b. Demand rate
c. Temporary
d. Permanent
e. None of the above

A

B. Demand rate

139
Q

Which of the following is NOT a sign of left sided CHF?
a. Orthopnea
b. Clubbing of fingernails
c. Ascites
d. Hemoptysis
e. All of them are signs of left sided CHF

A

C. Ascites

140
Q

The client is evaluated to more likely experiencing hypervolemia if the CVP reading is:
a. 10cm of H2O
b. 8cm of H2O
c. 6cm of H2O
d. 14 cm of H2O
e. 7cm of H2O

A

d. 14 cm of H2O

141
Q

What is the common cause of death in the period in MI?
a. Cardiogenic shock
b. Ventricular dysthythmias
c. Pulmonary embolism
d. Cardiac tamponade
e. None of the above

A

B. Ventricular dysthythmias

CA1 (1 decks)

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