Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

The Portion of visual field where light falls upon both retinas is termed what?

A

Binocular zone

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2
Q

List the visual pathway:

A
  1. Visual Field
  2. Retina
  3. Optic nerve
  4. Optic chiasm
  5. Optic tract
  6. Lateral Geniculate Body of the thalamus
  7. Optic Radiations
  8. Primary visual cortex in occipital lobe (Brodmann’s area 17)
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3
Q

How would a lesion of the optic nerve affect vision?

A

Ipsilateral complete loss of vision

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4
Q

How would a lesion at the optic chiasm affect vision?

A

Bitemporal hemianopia. i.e. loss of vision on the left side of one retina and the right side of the other.

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5
Q

How would a lesion to the optic radiation affect vision?

A

Homonymous hemianopia. i.e. loss of vision on nasal side of one retina and temporal side of the other.

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6
Q

Identify the three semicircular canals

A

Horizontal
Anterior
Posterior

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7
Q

Identify the two otolith organs

A

Utricle
Saccule

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8
Q

The semicircular canals are sensitive to ______ movement.

A

rotational

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9
Q

Each semicircular canal has a swelling called an ________.

A

Ampulla

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10
Q

The utricle is sensitive to ______ movement.

A

Horizontal

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11
Q

The saccule is sensitive to _______ movement.

A

Vertical

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12
Q

Term for when eyes make repetitive, uncontrolled movements

A

Nystagmus

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13
Q

Nystagmus is typically observed at the BEGINNING/END range.

A

End range (or following movement)

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14
Q

Five stages of the Hoehn-Yahr

A

Stage 1: Minimal signs of PD
Stage 2: Bilateral symptoms
Stage 3: Balance impairment
Stage 4: Severe disability
Stage 5: Advanced disease

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15
Q

Progressions of Huntington’s Disease (3)

A

Early stage: Subtle symptoms. Involuntary movements (chorea), changes in mood or cognition, coordination and balance difficulty. Often still able to maintain independence.

Intermediate stage: More pronounced symptoms. Leads to difficulty walking, speaking, and swallowing. Cognitive symptoms become more prominent.

Advanced stage: Severe motor impairments. Rigidity and bradykinesia. May be wheelchair bound or bedridden.

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16
Q

What is the function of the Cerebellum?

A

Coordinates movement by comparing intended movement and actual movement and making ongoing adjustments.

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17
Q

Identify two lobes of the Cerebellum

A

Anterior lobe and posterior lobe

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18
Q

Both cerebellar lobes are separated by the ______________, have similar function, and have a central region called the ________ and a lateral region called the _________.

A

Primary fissure; vermis; cerebellar hemispheres

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19
Q

The Spinocerebellum of the cerebellum is made up of the ________ and the __________.

A

Vermis and Intermediate zone.

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20
Q

The cerebrocerebellum is made up of the _____________.

A

Lateral cerebellar hemispheres

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21
Q

The Vestibulocerebellum is made up of the ____________.

A

Floccuolonodular lobe

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22
Q

Identify the deep cerebellar nuclei (4)

A
  • Dentate
  • Emboliform
  • Globose
  • Fastigial
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23
Q

what two deep cerebellar nuclei make up the interposed nuclei

A

Emboliform
Globose

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24
Q

Which deep cerebellar nucleus does motor execution through medial descending systems?

A

Fastigial nucleus

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25
Q

Which deep cerebellar nucleus does motor execution through lateral descending systems?

A

Interposed nucleus

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26
Q

Which deep cerebellar nucleus does motor planning through the motor and premotor cortex?

A

Dentate nucleus

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27
Q

For the following functional division of the cerebellum, identify the region, deep nuclei and function associated with it: Cerebrocerebellum.

A

Region: Lateral hemispheres
Deep nuclei: Dentate
Function: Motor planning

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28
Q

For the following functional division of the cerebellum, identify the region, deep nuclei and function associated with it: Spinocerebellum (medial)

A

Region: Vermis
Deep nuclei: Fastigial
Function: Motor execution of trunk

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29
Q

For the following functional division of the cerebellum, identify the region, deep nuclei and function associated with it: Spinocerebellum (lateral)

A

Region: Intermediate hemispheres
Deep nuclei: Interposed
Function: Motor execution of limbs

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30
Q

For the following functional division of the cerebellum, identify the region, deep nuclei and function associated with it: Vestibulocerebellum

A

Region: Flocculonodular lobe
Deep nuclei: Vestibular
Functions: Axial control, balance, extraocular mm

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31
Q

Broca’s Aphasia is also known as _________.

A

Expressive aphasia

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32
Q

Wernicke’s Aphasia is also known as ____________.

A

Receptive aphasia

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33
Q

Describe expressive aphasia

A

Difficulty producing language/speech

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34
Q

Describe receptive aphasia

A

Difficulty in understanding language

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35
Q

Difficulty articulating words because of weakness, paralysis, or coordination.

A

Dysarthria

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36
Q

Able to produce speech that flows fluidly and effortlessly, but lacking coherence.

A

Fluent aphasia

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37
Q

What artery supplies blood to the anterior system of the CNS?

A

Internal carotid

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38
Q

What artery supplies blood to the posterior system of the CNS?

A

Vertebral

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39
Q

Identify the three arteries supplying the cerebellum

A

Superior Cerebellar Artery (SCA)
Anterior Inferior Cerebellar Artery (AICA)
Posterior Inferior Cerebellar Artery (PICA)

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40
Q

T/F the circle of willis includes the MCA.

A

False

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41
Q

Identify the arteries of the circle of willis

A

Anterior cerebral
Anterior communicating
Internal carotid
Posterior communicating
Posterior Cerebral

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42
Q

The anterior system of blood supply to the CNS includes:

A

MCA
ACA

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43
Q

The posterior system of blood supply to the CNS includes:

A

PCA

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44
Q

Classify the cranial nerves into sensory, motor or both.

A

Sensory:
Olfactory
Optic
Vestibulocochlear

Motor:
Oculomotor
Trochlear
Abducens
Accessory
Hypoglossal

Both:
Trigeminal
Facial
Glossopharyngeal
Vagus

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45
Q

Which cranial nerve controls the lateral rectus mm, abducting the eye laterally?

A

CN VI: Abducens

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46
Q

Which cranial nerve controls the superior oblique mm, moving the eye laterally and downward?

A

CN IV: Trochlear

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47
Q

Which CN innervates the tongue muscle?

A

CN XII: Hypoglossal

48
Q

Which CN provides sensory to the face and motor for muscles of mastication?

A

CN V: Trigeminal

49
Q

Identify the three divisions of the Trigeminal nerve from top to bottom:

A

Opthalmic (V1)
Maxillary (V2)
Mandibular (V3)

50
Q

Which CN controls muscles of facial expression, taste, tears, and salivation?

A

CN VII: Facial

51
Q

Which CN provides sensation of the posterior tongue and pharynx, taste from posterior 1/3 of tongue, talking and swallowing?

A

CN IX: Glossopharyngeal

52
Q

Which CN provides parasympathetic innervation to the heart, lungs, and digestive tract, swallow and gag reflex?

A

CN X: Vagus

53
Q

Identify three things the DCML communicates

A

Discriminative touch
Proprioception and vibration
Precise localization, fine intensity gradation

54
Q

Identify two things the spinothalamic tract communicates

A

Crude touch
Pain and temperature

55
Q

Within the DCML, the gracile fasciculus communicates signals from what regions of the body?

A

LE and lower trunk

56
Q

Within the DCML, the cuneate fasciculus communicates signals from what regions of the body?

A

UE and upper trunk

57
Q

The lateral spinothalamic tract is in charge of communicating ______________.

A

Pain and temperature

58
Q

The anterior spinothalamic tract is in charge of communicating ____________.

A

Crude touch

59
Q

Identifying a familiar object without vision is termed ____________.

A

Stereognosis

60
Q

Term for a blood clot that forms within a blood vessel at the site of the cause.

A

Thrombus

61
Q

Term for a blood clot from a transient clot that has lodged within a vessel.

A

Embolism

62
Q

When stroke symptoms are resolved within 24 hours, this is termed a ______________.

A

transient ischemic attack

63
Q

FAST stands for

A

Face is uneven
Arm is weak
Speech is strange
Time to call 911

64
Q

After a stroke, sensation is frequently impaired on the _________ side.

A

Hemiplegic

65
Q

Neglect is primarily a _______ sided issue.

A

Left

66
Q

Identify the components of UE flexion synergy (5)

A

Scapular retraction/elevation
Shoulder abduction and external rotation
Elbow flexion
Forearm Supination
Wrist and finger flexion

67
Q

Identify the components of UE extension synergy (5)

A

Scapular protraction
Shoulder adduction and internal rotation
Elbow extension
Forearm pronation
Wrist and finger flexion

68
Q

Identify the components of LE flexion synergy (4)

A

Hip flexion, abduction, and external rotation
Knee flexion
Ankle dorsiflexion and eversion
Toe extension

69
Q

Identify the components of LE extension synergy (4)

A

Hip extension, adduction, and internal rotation
Knee extension
Ankle plantarflexion and inversion
Toe flexion

70
Q

_________ is a common reflex to return post stroke.

A

ATNR

71
Q

The inability to produce movement on command or automatically, showing a breakdown of the conceptualization of the task is termed _____________.

A

Ideational apraxia

72
Q

The inability to produce movement on command, but able to automatically is termed _____________.

A

Ideomotor apraxia

73
Q

Chart of 6 stages detailing the sequence of events recovering from hemiplegia (paralysis of one side of the body)

A

Brunnstrom’s stages of recovery

74
Q

Cut-off score for stroke BERG

A

Less than or equal to 44 indicates risk of falling

75
Q

What types of questions make up the A and O x4 (alert and oriented)?

A

Person: can you tell me your name?
Place: where are you right now?
Time: what year is it?
Situation: why are you here?

76
Q

Identify two outcome assessments used to evaluate mental status

A

MMSE
Mini-Cog

77
Q

Term for inability to detect smell

A

anosmia

78
Q

Term for impaired far vision

A

Myopia

79
Q

Term for impaired near vision

A

Presbyopia

80
Q

Term for unequal pupils

A

Anisocoria

81
Q

Term for eye deviating from normal conjugat position

A

Strabismus

82
Q

Term for upper eyelid drooping

A

Ptosis

83
Q

Term for the eye being pulled inward

A

Estropia

84
Q

Term for constant, involuntary cyclical movement of eyeball

A

Nystagmus

85
Q

Term for hoarseness indicating vocal cord weakness

A

Dysphonia

86
Q

Term for difficulty swallowing

A

Dysphagia

87
Q

Term for difficulty speaking

A

Dysarthria

88
Q

Term for impaired ability to perform rapid alternating movements

A

Dysdiadochokinesia

89
Q

Term for inability to judge distance or range of movement

A

Dysmetria

90
Q

Term for involuntary oscillatory movement

A

Tremor

91
Q

Term for increase in muscle tone causing greater resistance to movement

A

rigidity

92
Q

Term for uniform, constant resistance as limb is moved

A

Lead pipe rigidity

93
Q

Term for series of brief relaxations or “catches” as limb is passively moved

A

Cogwheel rigidity

94
Q

Term for the ability to maintain COM within the BOS

A

Balance

95
Q

Define the limits of stability

A

The maximum distance an individual is willing or able to lean in any direction without loss of balance or changing BOS

96
Q

Define anticipatory postural control

A

Ability to activate postrual adjustments in advance of destabilizing voluntary movements.

97
Q

Purpose of the clinical test for sensory interaction in balance (CTSIB)

A

provides the clinician with a means to quantify postural control under various sensory conditions. Doesn’t require fancy equipment.

98
Q

How do you test equilibrium?

A

Induce balance difficulty

99
Q

Stairs should be no more than ______ inches high and _______ inches deep.

A

7; 11

100
Q

Ramps should have a running slope of __:__. Ramps that are exposed to harsh conditions rquire a slope of __:__.

A

1:12; 1:20

101
Q

The entrance platform to enter the building should be large enough for __________.

A

a wheelchair

102
Q

The door threshold should be less than or equal to ____.

A

1/2 inch

103
Q

The door width should be ____-_____ to accomodate for a wheelchair.

A

32-34 inches

104
Q

Handrails should be between _____ and _____ inches from the floor

A

34 and 38 inches

105
Q

Term for involuntary movements that occur simultaneously with intentional movements of another body part

A

Associated movements

106
Q

Modified Ashworth is a measure of _______.

A

Tone. What kind of resistance is experienced during passive ROM

107
Q

Strokes should produce UMN/LMN symptoms

A

UMN

108
Q

Muscle spasms are an UMN/LMN symptom, whereas fasciculations are an UMN/LMN symptom.

A

UMN; LMN

109
Q

Decreased or absent reflexes are an UMN/LMN symptom, whereas increased reflexes are an UMN/LMN symptom.

A

LMN; UMN

110
Q

Initially decreased tone that then increases is an UMN/LMN symptom

A

UMN

111
Q

Decreased or absent tone is an UMN/LMN symptom

A

LMN

112
Q

Reflex helping a baby get onto their hands and knees

A

Symmetric tonic neck reflex (STNR)

113
Q

Does the MMT evaluate structures, functions, or participation?

A

Structures

114
Q

Does bed mobility testing evaluate structures, functions, or participation?

A

Function

115
Q

Interpret the concept of SEM, MDIC, cut-off scores, sensitivity and specificity.

A

SEM and MDIC determine meaningful changes over time

Cut-off scores categorize patients into different stages of functioning

Sensitivity and specificity evaluates how accurate the test is