Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

what is 24 hour urine collection used for?

A

Used to evaluate kidney function by measuring the levels of various components in the urine (protein levels)

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2
Q

What are the guidelines to follow when collecting 24-hour urine collection?

A

1.Ask patient to void & discard urine (bladder must be empty)
2.Note EXACT time urine voided & discarded (Begins 24 hour collection period)
3.Post signs in the pt room & time the collection stating 24 hour collection in progress. (Date/Time start/end)
4.Collect every drop of urine that is voided in 24 hours and place in large container on ice or fridge
5.Pts with indwelling catheter place collection bag on ice
6.After 24 hour collection begins ask pt to void one last time and add urine to collection container.

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3
Q

What is the acceptable amount of urine output?

A

*Remember acceptable output is 30mL/hr and 240mL in 8hrs

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4
Q

What is Accountability?

A

being responsible for own actions.

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5
Q

How can you use Accountability to keep patients safe?

A

1.Assuring when you accept pt assignment or delegation of tak, the assignment is within your level of education, training, experience and ability.
2.Refusing to take extra shifts if you are so fatigued that you are not safe practitioner.
3.Staying on the job and caring for patients until someone else can take over their care. (continuity of care)

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6
Q

What is contact precaution used for?

A

To prevent transmission of pathogens spread by direct or indirect contact; use in the presence of excessive wound drainage, fecal incontinence, and when the patient is infected with MDROs, such as MRSA, vancomycin-resistant enterococci, and C. difficile.

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7
Q

What equipment do you need for contact precautions?

A

Put on gloves and a gown when entering the room; wear gloves when touching the patient’s intact skin and the surfaces and articles in close proximity to the patient, such as side rails and medical equipment.
Plus standard precautions

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8
Q

what equipment do you need for droplet precaution?

A

Put on a mask when entering the room. Note: If the patient has H1N1 flu, an N95 respirator is required.
Instruct patient to follow respiratory hygiene/cough etiquette.
Plus standard precautions

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9
Q

what is droplet precaution used for?

A

To prevent transmission of pathogens spread through close contact with respiratory secretions or mucous membranes; examples include influenza (flu), group A streptococcus, bacterial meningitis, rubella (German measles), and Mycoplasma pneumonia.

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10
Q

what equipment do you need for airborne precautions?

A

Put on a fit-tested N95 or higher respirator when entering the room.
Patient must be placed in an airborne infection isolation room with negative pressure.
Plus standard precautions

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11
Q

what is airborne precautions?

A

To prevent transmission of pathogens small enough to be suspended in the air and spread through air currents, examples include tuberculosis, rubeola (measles), chickenpox, coronavirus, and severe acute respiratory syndrome.

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12
Q

what is anaphylaxis?

A

severe reaction that is life threatening causing swelling of the airways, SOB, respiratory arrest, decreased b/p and circulatory collapse.

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13
Q

what do you do if an allergic reaction happens when giving an IV?

A

give IV fluids to increase blood volume & bring b/p up

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14
Q

what do you do if a patient says they are allergic to a medication?

A

record it as an allergy along with documenting the description of the reaction when the medication is taken

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15
Q

what is the cause of most allergic reactions?

A

Antibiotics (sulfa/penicillin)
Iodine/dyes injected for procedures
Vaccines
Anticonvulsants

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16
Q

what happens when you apply heat therapy?

A

Vasodilation increases in the size of the cavity or space inside the blood vessel known as the vessel lumen.

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17
Q

what is phelebitis?

A

inflammation of the vein caused by IV therapy

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18
Q

why would you use heat therapy?

A

Relaxation of muscle spasms
Pain relief
Support of the healing process (increased blood flow delivers extra oxygen and nutrients that are needed to support increased metabolism).
Reduction of the edema once it has stabilized (stopped increasing) after 48-72 hrs heat may be applied to dilate the capillaries and veins so that they can carry away excess fluid.
Elevation of body temp

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19
Q

Why wouldn’t you use heat therapy?

A

Suspected Appendicitis: Heat Therapy to the right lower abdomen could cause enough increased blood flow to the area resulting in a rupture.
Bleeding wound or injury: Applying heat would dilate the vessels, increasing the bleeding.
New injury to joint: heat increases edema making joint mobility more difficult.
Large areas of the body in certain cardiac patients: extensive heat application can result in massive vasodilation of the superficial skin and subcutaneous layers.

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20
Q

how long should a heating therapy be used?

A

20-30 mins/ every 2-3 hours

anything longer will worsen original condition rather than improve it

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21
Q

what is an oropharyngeal airway?

A

made of hard plastic slightly curved shape and designed to hold the tongue in place so that it cannot obstruct the airway of an unconscious patient. Not used on conscious patients b/c it can cause gagging or vomiting.

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22
Q

what is a nasopharyngeal airway?

A

made of pliable rubber and is designed to be inserted through the nose into the pharynx. Patient maybe unable to clear the airway; including a weak cough, decreased level of consciousness or postoperative pain. Be aware of signs that pt needs to be suctioned, such as rattling sounds in the throat, shortness of breath, ineffective cough, and crackles on auscultating the lungs.

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23
Q

what is a suction Cather?

A

will be used to remove secretions from the patient’s nose, throat, and mouth. If an oropharyngeal airway is in place, you will pass the suction catheter along the grooves in the sides of the airway. If a nasopharyngeal airway is in place, you can pass the suction catheter through the airway to the throat. If no airway is in place, you can use the pliable suction catheter to suction through the nose and down the throat.

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24
Q

what is an endotracheal airways?

A

used when patients is unable to breathe independently b/c of airway obstruction or respiratory arrest. To ensure that air does not exit through the trachea around the tube, the endotracheal tube contains an inflatable cuff located near the distal end. When the cuff is inflated, air cannot leak around the tube but goes completely into the lungs for full ventilation.

25
Q

how do a assist a patient who is choking?

A

Helmich manuever

26
Q

what is beside reporting?

A

Nursing staff go to each room together and the pt is introduced to the oncoming shift person who will be caring for them.

27
Q

what is C-diff and its treatment?

A

Contact precautions
Severe diarrhea, develops with antibiotics therapy.
Treatment- vancomycin, metronidazole

28
Q

what is cold therapy?

A

Causes vasoconstriction which decreases blood flow to the area.
Cold lowers the body temp which slow metabolism

29
Q

What is cold therapy used for?

A

Cooling below body temp has been used during cardiovascular surgery and neurosurgery to decrease the tissue oxygen demand (preserves heart/brain)

prevention of edema, hemostasis, pain relief, numbing sensation, reduction of muscle spasm, reduction of fever

30
Q

How long before an injury should you use cold therapy?

A

Recommended for the first 48-72 hours after injury that can result in swelling.

31
Q

Do you need a MD note when applying cold therapy?

A

Need MD note to provide cold therapy not including ice packs applied in ER

32
Q

what is immobility?

A

results from a lack of activity and movement, which may occur when a person is ill and less active than usual.

33
Q

what are some of the complication of immobility?

A

Blood clots, Pneumonia, Bone demineralization, Kidney stones, Constipation, Pressure injuries, urinary retention, depression, contractures

34
Q

what is cultural competency?

A

competent care that occurs when the nurse provides care to a whole pt, incorporation within that care that cultural context of the pt’s belief and values

35
Q

how will the nurse care for a patient using cultural competency?

A

Nurse will understand pts health including perception, expectations, behavior and decision making process
- Empower pts to reach their full health potential by caring to the pt by showing respect for his/her beliefs/ideas by not assuming that the nurse knows what the pt is thinking or feeing.

36
Q

what is cultural and sensitivity in nursing?

A

expression of religious beliefs & represents the meaning of life. Expression of who the individual is & how that individual relates to things of this world(nature)

37
Q

How do you decrease fall risk?

A

Round hourly on patients
Move patient closer to nursing station
Keep floors clean,dry and uncluttered
Ensure the pts bed is always locked and set to low position
Set bed alarm for patients who are high fall risk
Keep possessions within reach
Have patient wear non slip socks/footwear
Prevent orthostatic hypotension
Good lighting
Restraints

38
Q

What cant a LPN delegate?

A

Judgement, critical thinking making, care for an unstable patient unless this is within the delegates practice in the nurse practice act of that state.

39
Q

what are the 5 R’ights?

A

Right task
Right Circumstance,
Right Person,
Right supervision,
Right Communication/Direction

40
Q

what do LPN’s do?

A

Assess, teach, monitor, reinforce, follow up

41
Q

what are the ethical principles of nursing?

A

autonomy, beneficence, justice, and non maleficence.

42
Q

What are some fall precautions?

A

fall assessment scale
restraints
Monitors/alarms
continuously check on the risk for falls

43
Q

what is informed consent?

A

A voluntary agreement made by a well advised, mentally competent patient to be treated by a health care provider or institution

44
Q

where do you give an intramuscular injection?

A

Ventrogluteal, vastus (quads), lateralis (large part of quads), deltoid (shoulder), dorsogluteal (lateral gluteal muscles).

45
Q

what needle size is an intramuscular injection?

A

Vastus lateralis (outside part of thigh) 5/8-1”, Deltoid(child) 5/8-1 ¼ “, Deltoid (shoulder) 5/8-1 ½ “, Ventrogluteal Hip (adult): 1 ½ “

46
Q

what complications should you look for when giving IM injections?

A

Pain and swelling at the injection site, hypersensitivity, slight fever, monitor the injection site.

47
Q

what is hypovolemia (fluid volume deficit?

A

pt loses both fluid and electrolytes contained in that fluid. The most common loss is large amounts of blood through hemorrhage.

48
Q

what is the cause of abnormal fluid loss?

A

bleeding, prolonged tachypnea, excessive sweating, fever, diarrhea

49
Q

What are nursing interventions for fluid volume deficit

A

Replace fluids, monitor electrolyte levels, administer antiemetic medications (nausea meds), monitor vitals for low b/p, measure I&O, and assess oral mucous membranes for dryness.

50
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of hypovolemia?

A

Pt reports of little to no fluid intake or urine output, Pt reports frequent vomiting or diarrhea, flushed pale hot dry skin with nonelastic turgor (late sign), Complaints of thirst/nausea, dry/cracked tongue/lips, elevated heart rate, weak pulse, fever, low b/p, decreased level of consciousness, confusion, severe burn

51
Q

what is a living will?

A

A written document prepared by a mentally competent individual. Document may include what the patient does and does not want should end of life condition or disability occurs.

52
Q

what does a living will include?

A

surgeries, medication, intubation, ventilation or other life sustaining measures
and may also include not to provide IV fluid or feeding tubes

53
Q

what are the 6 rights to medication administration?

A

Patients name/allergies
Date/Time of prescription
Dose of med
Route of Admin
Time of Admin/Frequency of Med
Documentation

54
Q

what are some modifiable risk factors?

A

(lifestyle/nutrition)
Risk factor= Obesity (Diabetes, heart disease, breast cancer, colon cancer)
Risk Factor= Diet high in trans fatty acids, cholesterol and triglycerides (diabetes, stroke, heart disease)
Risk Factor= Hypertension (Stroke, heart disease, kidney disease)
Risk Factor= Smoking (Heart disease, bronchitis, COPD, stroke, lung cancer)

55
Q

What is negligence?

A

Failure to provide certain care that another person of the same education and locale would generally provide under the same circumstances

56
Q

what is the nurse practice act?

A

Establishes regulations for nursing practice within the state and defines the scope of nursing practice.

57
Q

What are the manifestations of hypokalemia?

A

Heart=Low & slow pump
Flat T waves, ST depression & U wave

58
Q
A