Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Psychopathology > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What is anxiety?

A

A mood state that follows from apprehension about (potential) negative future outcomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How is some anxiety important for life?

A

Helpful by motivating action and increasing concentration, avoiding potential threats through problem-solving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Social/cultural forces have contributed to anxiety

A

Media, performance, norms, testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Fight or flight system

A

panic response to perceived threat CRF stimulates the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenocortical HPA axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Behavioural inhibition system

A

freeze response which signals our bodies to stop and evaluate the situation to determine the threat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The triple vulnerability theory

A

The first vulnerability=diathesis which is your generalized biological vulnerability

The second vulnerability= generalized psychological vulnerability Eg. Believing the world is dangerous

The third vulnerability specific psychological vulnerability Eg. Learning about others experience to dangers makes you anxious thinking about those things

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Most common health concern

A

Anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Exposure therapy

A

Most anxiety disorders are categorized by avoidance, which worsens the anxiety. There are many types of ET.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Existential approaches to anxiety

A

Rather than focusing on specific strategies focus on meaning in life despite unfortunate truths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Benzodiazepines

A

Xanax, Valium, Ativan are fast acting CNS depressants that affect the GABA system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

SSRI’s

A

antidepressants that are helpful at managing anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

4 notable features that people with GAD have

A
  1. intolerance of uncertainty: set of negative beliefs
  2. Positive beliefs about worry: the worry is what keeps me safe
  3. Poor problem orientation: difficulty seeing the problem
  4. cognitive avoidance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Panic disorder and agoraphobia relation

A

Panic comes with retreat then staying at home so nobody sees your panic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Difference between sudden or expected panic attack

A

Sudden happens out of the blue and expected have a clear trigger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Self-fulfilling prophecy

A

The fear of having panic attacks can cause one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Interoceptive exposure for panic disorder

A

up to 70% of people significantly improve. exposure to bodily sensations associated with panic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Psychosis

A

term for when we lose touch with reality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

3 psychotic symptoms

A

Positive, negative and disorganized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Positive symptoms

A

Delusions and hallucinations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Delusion

A

A belief not grounded in reality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Delusions of grandeur

A

some sense as believing themselves to be a high religious figure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Delusion of reference

A

Associate an idea with another idea when they aren’t associated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Somatic Delusions

A

Someone is convinced something is wrong with them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Erotomanic delusions

A

Believe you have a loving relationship with a celebrity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Cotard’s syndrome

A

Believing some parts of your body is dead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Hypnagogic Hallucinations

A

Occur while falling asleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Hypnopompic Hallucinations

A

Occur as you are waking up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Negative symptoms

A

The absence or insufficiency of normal behaviour such as avolition, anhedonia, asociality, affective flattening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Disorganized Symptoms

A

Disorganized speech, disorganized movement, inappropriate affect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Prodrome Phase of Schizophrenia

A

Disorganized thoughts, social withdrawal, sleep disturbance, suspiciousness, intense focus on ideas which may seem disturbing can take between 2 and 10 years before a full psychotic disorder emerges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Phase 2: Acute Psychotic Episode

A

The easiest phase to assess and diagnose. Positive symptoms emerge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Phase 3: recovery phase

A

Occurs after the symptoms of the acute psychotic episode have subsided

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

how do other schizophrenia spectrum differ?

A

Symptom type and severity, symptom duration, causes of symptoms, comorbidity with other disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Schizotypal Personality

A

Pattern of social and interpersonal deficits and a reduced capacity for close relationships, and eccentricities of behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Brief psychotic disorder

A

Psychotic symptoms lasting at least one day but no longer than a month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Schizophreniform Disorder

A

Episode within the last month but less than 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Delusional Disorder

A

Presence of delusions with a duration of one month or longer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Schizoaffective disorder

A

An uninterrupted period of illness during which there is a major mood episode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Causes of psychosis

A

cat poop (toxoplasma gondii), Fingerprint ridges, eye-tracking differences, living in cities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Dopamine’s role in psychosis

A

Most antipsychotic meds work by blocking dopamine, drugs that increase dopamine can cause psychosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

CBT for psychosis

A

Aaron Beck founding father of CBT focuses on getting people back into society, have reference points so they can connect with reality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is trauma?

A

Any disturbing experience that results in significant fear, helplessness, dissociation, confusion, or other disruptive feelings intense enough to have a long-lasting negative effect on a person’s attitudes, behaviour, and other aspects of functioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Window Of Tolerance

A

If you’re feeling hyper aroused you’re likely over your window of tolerance. Hypoarousal means the body is being understimulated (low mood, low energy, exhausted state)
Trauma happens when you are outside the normal window of tolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Challenges of assessing PTSD

A

Many different types of traumatic events.How do you gather information without asking too many detailed questions?
What if someone describes an event as traumatic but does not meet the criteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

OSI Clinics

A

Dedicated to people who experience traumatic events because of their employment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Moral Injury

A

Describes the psycho-spiritual consequences of events that seriously violate ones core moral beliefs and expectations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Treatment for PTSD

A

SSRI, Exposure therapy, eye movement desensitization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Acute stress disorder

A

Similar criteria to PTSD
Main distinction: can be diagnosed 3 days to 1 month after the traumatic event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Complex PTSD

A

May be diagnosed in adults or children who have repeatedly experienced traumatic events, such as violence, neglect or abuse
Very different from ptsd
ICD is a better guide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Dissociation

A

Disruption of and or discontinuity in the normal integration of consciousness, memory, identity, emotion, perception, body representation, motor control, and behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Derealization

A

Experiences of unreality or detachment with respect to surroundings, individuals or objects are experienced as unreal, dreamlike, foggy, lifeless, or visually distorted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Depersonalization

A

Experiences of unreality, detachment, or being an outside observer with respect to ones thoughts, feelings, sensations, body, or actions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Disassociated personality disorder

A

Formerly multiple personality disorder. Distinct personalities known as alters
A memory may be fragmented. Highly stigmatized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Only one-third of American psychiatrists confidently believe that DID should be included in the DSM. What are some reasons why?

A

Highly likely to be agreeable
DID patients are highly suggestible and DID symptoms may be reinforced by therapists.
Could result in false report of childhood trauma.
Could lead to the idea of distinct personalities being reinforced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Clinical characteristics of DID

A

The estimated average number of alters is 15. Almost everyone with DID has experienced significant childhood trauma(97%) and 68% reported incest.
Limited social support during or after traumatic events.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What disorders include cluster A

A

Odd and eccentric: Schizoid, Schizotypal, Paranoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What disorders include cluster B

A

Borderline, Narcissistic, Histrionic, and Antisocial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Antisocial Personality disorder hypotheses

A

Underarousal hypothesis=evidence that people with ASPD are chronically understimulated

Fearlessness Hypothesis= people with ASPD do not experience fear to the same degree as others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

DBT therapy

A

Distress tolerance
Interpersonal effectiveness
Emotion regulation
Mindfulness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Histrionic personality disorder

A

A pervasive pattern of excessive emotionality and attention seeking, beginning by early adulthood

61
Q

The big 5

A

Extroversion
agreeableness
Conscientiousness
Neuroticism
Openness to experience

62
Q

Self monitoring

A

Personality trait that determines how much people regulate their behaviour based on the context

63
Q

Categorial approach

A

clear categories with clear underlying cause

64
Q

Dimensional approach

A

Trait exist on a continuum

65
Q

Prototypical approach

A

Contains elements of both dimensional and categorical approach

66
Q

What is a mental disorder?

A

Defined by thoughts, behaviours, and emotions that cause dysfunction, personal distress, and are atypical or not culturally expected

67
Q

The 4 d’s of psychopathology

A

Dysfunction, distress, deviance, and danger

68
Q

What time frame were mental health problems considered to be caused by supernatural forces

A

Middle ages

69
Q

What are some medieval treatments align with evidence-based interventions

A

Hydrotherapy: DBT skills

70
Q

What did Galen believe?

A

Humor theory: stated there are 4 bodily fluids that determine emotional balance: blood, black bile, yellow bile, and phlegm

71
Q

What are the biological treatments from the 20th century?

A

Insulin shock therapy, lobotomies, and electro-convulsive therapy

72
Q

Moral therapy

A

Creating spaces where people could rest, recover, and live normal lives developed by Phillipe Pinel

73
Q

Mental Hygiene Movement

A

Pioneered by Dorthea Dix. The backlash against worsening conditions of asylums

74
Q

Multidimensional model of causality

A

Social factors, psychological factors, and biological factors contribute to the development of a mental disorder also known as the bio-psycho-social model to understand mental disorders

75
Q

What are emotions?

A

Short-lived, temporary states lasting from several minutes to several hours, occurring in response to an external event

76
Q

Fight or flight response

A

Biological reaction to alarming stressors that musters the body’s resources to resist or flee the threat

77
Q

How does gene expression depend on evironemt

A

A small portion of our genes are turned on or expressed. Depending on our environment it can determine whether our genes are expressed

78
Q

Diathesis

A

Pre-existing genetic vulnerability

79
Q

Epigenetics

A

biological factors other than DNA that influence gene expression and the traits passed on to future generations

80
Q

Gene-environment correlation

A

People’s genetic predispositions often influence their environments

81
Q

Passive gene-environment correlation

A

our environment is often created by our parents, who share 50% of their genes with us

82
Q

Active gene-environment correlation

A

genes make us seek out our environments

83
Q

Adverse childhood events

A

2/3s of people report at least one and more than 1/5 report 3 or more

84
Q

Mental status exam

A

appearance and behaviour, thought processes, mood, cognitive and intellectual functioning, and sensorium

85
Q

Categorial approach

A

Mental disorders are clear categories and have clear physiology and underlying cause

86
Q

Dimensional Approach

A

mental disorders exist on a continuum

87
Q

Prototypical approach

A

Contains elements of both dimensional and categorial

88
Q

Major Depressive Disorder

A

Significant depressive symptoms, never been a manic or hypomanic episode

89
Q

Persistent Depressive disorder (Dysthmia)

A

Depressed mood for most of the day, for more days than not for at least 2 years

90
Q

How common is depression?

A

Approximately 16% of the global population will experience MDD at some point in their life and approximately 6% will experience it within any given year.

91
Q

cognitive restructuring

A

Challenging negative thinking patterns

92
Q

Manic Episode criteria

A

period of abnormally elevated, expansive or irritable mood and abnormally increased activity or energy lasting at least 1 week

93
Q

Bipolar Disorder 1

A

criteria has been met for at least one manic episode

94
Q

Hypomanic Episode

A

A manic episode lasting at least 4 days and is not severe enough to cause marked impairment in social functioning

95
Q

Bipolar II disorder

A

Criteria met for at least 1 hypomanic episode and at least one major depressive disorder. No manic episode.

96
Q

Bipolar specifiers

A

Rapid cycling: 20-50% of those with bipolar disorder experience rapid cycling

Ultra-rapid cycle lengths

Ultra-ultra rapid cycle lengths

97
Q

Cyclothymic Disorder

A

Chronic alternation of. mood elevation and depression that does not meet the severity for manic or major depressive disorders

98
Q

Average onset for bipolar disorder

A

late adolescence to early adulthood

99
Q

Medications for bipolar disorder

A

Lithium Carbonate, valproate, anti-depressants, antipsychotics, anti-convulsants

100
Q

Whats the world-wide prevalence of ED’s

A

7.8%

101
Q

Mortality in anorexia nervosa

A

20% of people die from this disorder and 5% after 10 years. Females living with AN are 18x more likely to die by suicide

102
Q

Bulimia Nervosa

A

Most common on university and college campuses
Eating large amounts of food in volumes higher than normal followed with compensatory behaviours

103
Q

DSM-5-TR criteria for bulimia nervosa

A

recurrent episodes of binge eating, discrete period of time, sense of lack of control overeating, compensatory behaviours in order to prevent weight gain, at least once a week for 3 months

104
Q

Anorexia Nervosa

A

characterized by a strong fear of gaining and losing control of overeating

105
Q

DSM-5-TR criteria for Anorexia Nervosa

A

Restriction of food intake relative to requirements leading to low body weight, intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat, disturbance in the way ones body weight or shape is

106
Q

Comorbidity in Anorexia Nervosa

A

Anxiety and mood disorders. 13% prevalence of OCD

107
Q

Insomnia

A

Complaint of dissatisfaction with sleep quantity or quality that causes significant distress, at least 3 nights per week and present for at least 3 months

24% of Canadians report symptoms

108
Q

3P model of insomnia

A

Predisposing: complex bio-psycho-social factors

Precipitating: triggers in the environment

Perpetuating: thoughts/behaviours that continue to the cycle of insomnia

109
Q

stimulus control

A

If the client cannot sleep in 10-15 minutes they are to get up and do something quiet then return to bed only when they are sleepy

110
Q

Sleep Restriction

A

Limit the amount of sleep by setting a specific bedtime and wakeup time

111
Q

Hypersomnolence

A

Excessive sleepiness despite enough hours of sleep

112
Q

Narcolepsy

A

Irrepressible need to sleep or napping occurring within the same day. hypocretin deficiency

113
Q

What percent of children have nighmares

A

10-50%

114
Q

What percentage of adults experience nightmares

A

9-30%

115
Q

Obsessive-compulsive disorder

A

presence of obsession, compulsions or both. These are time consuming

116
Q

Four main subtypes of OCD

A

Symmetry
Forbidden thoughts/actions
Cleaning/contamination
Hoarding

117
Q

Obsessive Compulsive Disorder Prevalence

A

Lifetime prevalence of 1.6-2.3%

118
Q

Body Dysmorphic Disorder

A

Perceived defects or flaws in physical appearance that are not observable or appear slight to others, performing repetitive behaviours or mental acts, cause clinically significant distress

119
Q

Prevalence of BDD

A

2-13% student samples
9-15% dermatology
7-8% of cosmetic surgery patients

120
Q

Somatic Symptom Disorder

A

One or more somatic symptoms that are distressing or result in significant disruption of daily life

121
Q

Illness anxiety disorder

A

Somatic symptoms are not present or present but very mild. Excessive health-related behaviours

122
Q

Conversion Disorder

A

One or more symptoms of altered voluntary motor or sensory function
the symptom is not better explained by another disorder

123
Q

Malingering

A

faking symptoms for personal gain

124
Q

Factitious Disorder

A

Falsification of physical or psychological signs or symptoms of behaviour is evident even in the absence of obvious external rewards (faking symptoms for no obvious reason)

125
Q

Sexual desire disorders

A

Male hypoactive sexual disorder and female interest/arousal disorder
- reduced desire must be present for at least 6 months and cause significant distress

126
Q

Sexual arousal disorders

A

Erectile disorder: difficulty maintaining rigid erections for at least 6 months

127
Q

What percentage of married men report occasional erectile dysfunction

A

40%

128
Q

Orgasm Disorders

A

Premature ejaculation and delayed ejaculation

Female orgasmic disorder

129
Q

Criteria for Genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder

A

Recurrent difficulties with one or more: vulvovaginal or pelvic pain during sex, fear or anxiety, tensing or tightening of the pelvic floor, approximately 6 months

130
Q

Paraphilias

A

Sexual disorders in which sexual arousal occurs almost exclusively in the context of inappropriate objects or individuals

131
Q

Fetishistic Disorder

A

intense sexual arousal from using an inanimate object or non-genital body part

132
Q

Voyeuristic and exhibitionistic disorders

A

The voyeuristic disorder is becoming intensely aroused by observing an unsuspecting person who is naked, undressing or engaging in sexual activity. Exhibitionistic disorders become intensely aroused through exposing genitals to unwilling audience.

133
Q

Transvestic Disorder

A

cross-dressing. Intense sexual arousal from wearing clothes traditionally worn by a different gender

134
Q

Sexual sadism and Sexual masochism

A

Masochism is when a person has sexual urges to have pain inflicted on them and sadism is sexual urges to inflict pain on others

135
Q

Frotteuristic disorder

A

The act of touching or rubbing ones genitals against another non-consenting individual in sexual matter

136
Q

Pedophilic disorder

A

Recurrent intense sexually arousing fantasies urges or behaviours involving sexual activity with a prepubescent child or children

137
Q

Covert sensitization

A

Imagining consequences of certain behaviours repeatedly

138
Q

Orgasmic reconditioning

A

re-pairing pleasurable orgasms with other stimuli

139
Q

Relapse prevention programs

A

Similar to substance use programs

140
Q

Drug interventions

A

Antiandrogens which are effectively chemical castration

141
Q

Treatment for children for gender reassignment

A

Wait and see approach

142
Q

What is aging?

A

Aging is the process of passing time

143
Q

Delirium

A

4 key features
1. Disturbance of consciousness
2. Disturbance of cognition
3. Limited course
4. External causation
40-50% of people who experience delirium will die within one year

144
Q

Major neurocognitive disorder (dementia)

A

Gradual deterioration of the brain functioning affects judgement, memory, language and many other cognitive processes/skills

145
Q

Alzheimer’s disease

A

Increasing memory impairment, symptoms often worse at night, higher education = better outcomes, average survival 4-8 years

146
Q

Vascular Neurocognitive disorder

A

blood vessels which can get blocked or damaged in the brain marked by a decline in processing speed and executive function

147
Q

Lewy body disease

A

Small microscopic deposits of protein that damage brain cells. decline in alertness and attention, hallucinations and motor impairment

148
Q

Huntingtons disease

A

A genetic disorder affecting motor movements caused by one specific gene

149
Q

Substance/medication-induced neurocognitive disorder

A

50-70% of chronic alcohol users can show cognitive decline

Psychopathology (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions