Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Normal RBC count

A

Female: 4.2-5.4

Male 4.5-6.2

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2
Q

Normal WBC count

A

Female: 4500-11000

male: 5000-10,000

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3
Q

Normal Hematocrit

A

Female: 37-47%

Male: 42-52%

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4
Q

Normal HDL (protective levels)

A

Female: >55mg/dL

male> 45 mg/dL

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5
Q

Normal LDL

A

Beneficial: <100 mg/dL

harmful: >160 mg/dL

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6
Q

Normal Ejection Fraction (EF)

A

60-80%

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7
Q

Normal Hemoglobin

A

female: 12-16

male: 14-18

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8
Q

Normal sodium levels

A

135-145 mEq/L

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9
Q

normal potassium levels

A

3.5-5.0 mEq/L

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10
Q

normal total cholesterol

A

<200 mg/dL

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11
Q

Normal Troponin

A

<0.5 for Troponin 1 and <0.1 for Troponin T

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12
Q

Normal BNP level

A

<100 pg/mL indicates no heart failure

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13
Q

Normal PaCO2 range

A

35-45 mm Hg (Acid)

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14
Q

Normal Creatinine (reflects GFR for renal function)

A

Female: 0.5-1.1 mg/dL

male: 0.6-1.2 mg/dL

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15
Q

Normal pH range

A

7.35-7.45

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16
Q

Normal Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)

A

10-20 mg/dL (indirect measure of overall hydration)

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17
Q

Absolute pH

A

7.4

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18
Q

Normal HCO3 range

A

22-26 mEq/L

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19
Q

Normal SaO2

A

95-100%

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20
Q

Normal PaO2 levels

A

80-100 mmHg

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21
Q

normal BP range

A

120/80-140/90

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22
Q

Normal V/Q ratio

A

4:5 or 0.8

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23
Q

Diabetes mellitus type 1

A

Dietary intervention (low carbohydrate) + insulin replacement

  • a disease in which body does not make enough insulin to control blood sugar levels.

-Symptoms: increased thirst, frequent urination, hunger, fatigue, blurred vision

treatment: insulin, diet, exercise

  • happens mostly in adolescents
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24
Q

Diabetes mellitus type 2

A

treatment: Dietary intervention, oral hypoglycemics, and insulin (if refractory)

  • Body doesn’t produce enough insulin or it resists insulin.
  • symptoms: frequent urination, increased thirst, hunger, fatigue, blurred vision
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25
Q

Hypertension

A

High blood pressure, higher than 140/90

  • creates severe complications like heart disease, stroke, and sometimes death.

may sometimes have no symptoms

-Blood Pressure is the force that a persons blood exerts against the walls of their blood vessels.

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26
Q

Acute Kidney Injury (AKI)

A

rapid loss of renal function due to damage to the kidneys; formerly called acute renal failure

  • rapid kidney failure that can happen in hours or days.
  • causes a build up of waste products in your blood and makes it hard For your kidneys to keep the right balance of fluid in your body.

Symptoms: decreased urine output, swelling due to fluid retention, nausea, fatigue, and shortness of breath.

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27
Q

heart failure (HF)

A
  • condition in which there is an inability of the heart to pump enough blood through the body to supply the tissues and organs with nutrients and oxygen.
  • symptoms: shortness of breath, fatigue, swollen legs, and rapid heartbeat.
  • treatment: medicine( beta blocker, ACE inhibitior, vasodilator), less salt, limit fluid intake, exercise, quit smoking.
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28
Q

COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease)

A

A group of lung diseases that block airflow and make it difficult to breathe.

  • Symptoms: shortness of breath, wheezing, chronic cough.
  • main cause: smoking, air pollution, chemical fumes, dust

four stages: mild, moderate, severe, very severe

Medicine: bronchodilator, steroid, oxygen therapy

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29
Q

Asthma

A

A chronic allergic disorder characterized by episodes of severe breathing difficulty, coughing, and wheezing.

  • The EPR-3 guideline classification divides asthma severity into four groups: intermittent, persistent-mild, persistent-moderate, and persistent-severe.
  • Step 1 - mild intermittent asthma. Symptoms fewer than two times a week. Does not have problems between flare-ups. …

Step 2 - mild persistent asthma. Symptoms more than two times a week, but no more than once a day. …

Step 3 - moderate persistent asthma. Symptoms every day. …

Step 4 - severe persistent asthma. Constant symptoms.

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30
Q

Emphysema

A

A serious disease that destroys lung tissue and causes breathing difficulties.

  • Emphysema is a lung condition that causes shortness of breath. In people with emphysema, the air sacs in the lungs (alveoli) are damaged. Over time, the inner walls of the air sacs weaken and rupture — creating larger air spaces instead of many small ones.
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31
Q

chronic bronchitis

A

inflammation of the bronchi persisting over a long time.

  • Acute bronchitis is often caused by a viral respiratory infection and improves by itself.

Symptoms of bronchitis include coughing up thickened mucus and shortness of breath.

Treatments usually includes soothing remedies to help with coughing, which may last weeks. Antibiotics are not usually recommended.

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32
Q

myocardial infarction

A

the occlusion of one or more coronary arteries caused by plaque buildup (heart attack).

  • The usual cause of sudden blockage in a coronary artery is the formation of a blood clot (thrombus).
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33
Q

Reproductive disorders

A

FSH and LH

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34
Q

Estrogen

A

A sex hormone, secreted in greater amounts by females than by males. In nonhuman female mammals, estrogen levels peak during ovulation, promoting sexual receptivity.

  • maintains skin and vessel function.

-increase blood coagulation

  • exert control over other hormonal development via protein synthesis
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35
Q

progesterone function

A
  • stimulates development and maintenance of endometrium that prepares it for implantation.
  • supports pregnancy
  • breast development
  • lead to increased aldosterone
  • increase basal body temp
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36
Q

Vaginitis

A

inflammation of the lining of the vagina

  • brought on by bad hygiene, foreign bodies, intestinal parasites, STI, systemic antibodies.
  • signs and symptoms: burning, itching, dysuris,dyspareania(painful sex) and malodorous odor.
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37
Q

vaginal cancer

A

malignant cells of the vagina

Associated with DES (diethylstilbestrol)administration to mother during pregnancy which ended in the early 1970s; HPV

ii. Genetic risk

iii. Obesity, smoking, estrogen Rx

c. S&S - *abnormal bleeding- most common sign; pain, dysuria, constipation, vaginal discharge

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38
Q

cervical cancer

A

a. Etiology - strongly linked to HPV!

b. Risk factors - smoking, poor diet, multiple (2 or more) sexual partners, onset of intercourse at a young age.

c. Long latent phase which ↑efficacy of the Pap smear.

d. S&S - abnormal vaginal bleeding and discharge; if advanced disease - pain, fistulas, enlarged local lymph nodes, hematuria

e. Rx - removal of the cancer

i. Electrocautery

ii. Cryosurgery

iii. Laser therapy

iv. Conization

v. Hysterectomy

vi. Radiation if advanced

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39
Q

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) -Inflammatory disease of the upper reproductive tract - very common

A

a. Etiology - young age, unmarried status, abortion, multiple sex partners, IUD, failure to use contraception

b. S&S- abdominal pain, purulent discharge, fever, ↑sedrate, ↑WBC

c. DX - C-reactive protein, ultrasound, laparoscopy

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40
Q

phimosis

A

narrowing of the opening of the prepuce over the glans penis

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41
Q

smegma

A

thick, cheesy secretion that accumulates under the labia minora or the male foreskin

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42
Q

Epididymis

A

A long, coiled duct on the outside of the testis in which sperm mature.

*inflammation of the epididymis

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43
Q

cryptorchidism

A

undescended testicles

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44
Q

myalgia

A

Muscular pain, “muscle aches”

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45
Q

arthralgia

A

joint pain

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46
Q

libido

A

sexual desire

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47
Q

What is the role of the nervous system in male sexual function?

A

Erection is under the control of the parasympathetic nervous system, Ejaculation and relaxation are under the control of the sympathetic nervous system, Male sexual function depends on intact reflexes, higher neural function, and a working vascular system.

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48
Q

Erectile Dysfunction

A

a. Define - inability to achieve or maintain an erection for sexual satisfaction

b. Etiology - Psychogenic - anxiety, depression, mood changes: Organic - damage or dysfunction of the nervous system, hormonal imbalances, vascular problems that reduce blood flow to the penis, drug use, direct penile problems: DM, Old age, Atherosclerosis, Hypertension, Cigarette smoke, Heart disease, Alcohol

c. Treatment

i. Determine underlying cause and treat

ii. Counseling for psychogenic issues

iii. Hormone replacement

iv. Drug therapy

v. Prosthesis/implant

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49
Q

Priapism

A

a. Define - Painful prolonged erection not associated with sexual stimulation.

b. Etiology- Occurs frequently with sickle cell anemia, cancers, sildenafil, and sometimes in newborns: Occurs with alcohol, infection, leukemia, stokes, spinal cord injuries

c. Pathophysiology- Engorgement of penile vasculature with causing hypoxia and ischemia with resultant inflammatory process and scarring

d. Treatment- Medical emergency: Rx - relieve urinary retention, pain control, hydration, sedation, ice packs, local instillation of drugs

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50
Q

Penile Cancer

A

a. Etiology -Related to poor hygiene, HPV, ultravoiletradiation, immunocompromise

b. Pathophysiology -Chronic irritation leads to chronic inflammation and rebuilding of cells which allows for aberrant DNA and metaplastic cell development

c. Rx - topicals, laser removal, penectomy

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51
Q

Testicular Torsion - Medical Emergency

A

a. Risk group -Most common in adolescents

b. Patho - Testicles rotate around in the truncia vaginalisand the vasculature twists in the spermatic cord choking off blood supply to the testes.

c. S&S - unilateral pain that radiates to the inguinal canal, swollen, large testicle; also have non symmetrical testes.

d. Rx - surgical correction and possible orchiectomy(removal of testicle(s).

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52
Q

Testicular Cancer - Most common cancer in young males

A

a. Etiology -Most common in Caucasians, Closelyassociated with cryptorchidism, Familial predisposition

b. Early S&S - enlargement of one testicle which may be associated with abdominal or groin heaviness and ache.

c. Metastasizes quickly

d. S&S of metastatic spread - Lower extremity swelling, back pain, cough, hemoptysis, dizziness, gynecomastia

e. Prevention is the key - STE monthly

f. Rx - good prognosis especially with early surgical excision. Chemotherapy and radiation may also be used based on stage and grade.

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53
Q

Acute Prostatitis

A

a. Uncommon

b. Bacterial entry into the prostate

c. S&S fever, chills, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, frequent & painful urination, urethral discharge.

d. DX based on urine characteristics and culture with a manual rectal exam.

e. Rx with antibiotics

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54
Q

Chronic Prostatitis

A

a. Long term infectious process.

b. S&S frequent UTIs, less likely to produce myalgia and arthralgia than the acute form.

c. RX - requires longer term antibiotic therapy due to poor penetration of the antibiotics into the prostate.

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55
Q

Pain Syndrome

A

a. Chronic inflammation without infection or chronic pelvic pain

b. S&S - back, rectal, penile, testicular, and scrotal pain; ED; painful ejaculations; ↓libido

c. Rx varies based on the healthcare provider; Symptomatic relief and possibly antibiotics

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56
Q

BPH - This was also discussed in the renal/urinary lecture

A

a. Very common

b. Unknown cause

c. Risk factors - age, family hx, African American race, dietary fat and meat, estrogen

d. S&S - small weak urinary stream; post void dribbling; frequency; nocturia; retention; frequent UTIs; hydonephrosis; Renal failure

e. Diagnosis

i. ↑PSA

ii. Urine studies

iii. √creatinine as a sign of ↓ GFR and renal failure

f. Treatment

i. Watch and wait

ii. Rx UTIs

iii. Drugs to reduce prostate size and relax smooth muscle

iv. TURP (transurethral resection of the prostate) if severe but not favored due to iatrogenic impotence

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57
Q

Prostate Cancer

A

a. Most common male cancer

b. Slow growing cancer

c. Risk factors - age; African American race; heredity; ↑fat and meat diet; Androgens

d. Metastasizes to pelvic bones, vertebral column and ribs

e. Pain is the first sign with S&S resembling BPH

f. Routine PSA screenings >50 years

g. Diagnosis is based on PSA level

h. Rx - surgical removal, hormonal therapy, radiation

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58
Q

Condylomata acuminate AKA genital warts

A

a. Etiology - HPV - 70 strains of the virus

b. Inoculation is followed in 6- 8 weeks by soft fleshy lesions on the external genitalia or cauliflower shaped lesions on the internal portions of the genitalia- lifelong infection- may not be evident for years

c. Most common STI and is oncogenic

d. S&S - dyspareunia (painful intercourse) and the lesions

e. Treatments

i. Topical agents

ii. Cryosurgery - freezing

iii. Laser removal

iv. Electrocautery - burning

v. Surgery

vi. Sexual abstinence during treatment

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59
Q

Genital Herpes

A

a. Spread via contact

b. Grow in neurons

c. Dormant periods

d. Passed to infant during birth if active (lethal)

e. S&S - tingling; itching; pain, pustules and vesicles that burst and crust; fever, HA, malaise, lymphadenopathy, pain, dysuria, retention

f. S&S may occur in the CNS and throat

g. First infections last 2- 4 weeks with subsequent infections shorter in duration and less severe symptoms

h. Treat symptoms - antiviral agents to reduce viral loads and shorten outbreaks

i. Hand washing imperative

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60
Q

Candidiasis AKA yeast AKA moniliasis

A

a. Normal vaginal yeast is Candida albicans.

b. Infection is caused by an overgrowth of resident yeast due to

i. Antibiotics

ii. Immunosuppression

iii. Pregnancy

iv. Birth control pills

v. DM

c. S&S

i. Irritation

ii. Itching

iii. Dysuria

iv. Dyspareunia

v. Thick white cheesy discharge

vi. May grow in skin folds

d. Treatment

i. Topical antifungals

ii. Systemic antifungals

iii. Breathable clothing

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61
Q

Trichomoniasis

A

a. Colonizes in the male urethra and prostate

b. Males are generally asymptomatic

c. Females have foul smelling green-yellow discharge with the general S&S of infection.

d. Increases the risk for HIV and infertility

e. Rx with metronidazole concurrently.

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62
Q

Chlamydia

A

a. Parasite

b. Causes urethritis, PID, pneumonia

c. S&S in females- range from none to S & S of infection, dysuria, abnormal vaginal discharge, bleeding after intercourse

d. Can be localized near the point of entry or spread into the pelvic and abdominal cavities.

e. S&S in males - urethritis, erythema, tenderness, discharge, dysuria, itching

f. May progress to prostatitis, epididymitis, and infertility

g. Rx with antibiotics simultaneously

h. THE MOST COMMON STD IN THE US.

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63
Q

Gonorrhea

A

a. N. gonorrhoeae is a pus forming bacterium

b. Prevalent in the Southeastern U.S.

c. May gain access through the GU tract, eyes, mouth, rectum or skin.

d. S&S 2-5 days post exposure

e. The infection spreads through the effected system. Infant eyes if present during childbirth. This is way babies get ointment in their eyes when they are born.

f. Local S & S of infection

g. Males - *yellow green discharge

h. Females - dysuria, dyspareunia, irregular bleeding with increased bleeding around menses

i. Rectal, pharngeal, urethral, & cervical

j. RX with antibiotics

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64
Q

Syphilis - Treponema pallidum causative organism

A

a. Spread from contact with syphilitic lesion

b. Three stages

c. More common in MSM (Men who have sex with men)

d. More common in African Americans

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65
Q

Stage I - primary

A

i. Chancre - painless lesion 10-90 days post exposure

ii. Regional lymphadenopathy

iii. Highly contagious

iv. Chancre heals in 3-12 weeks

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66
Q

Stage II - secondary

A

i. Systemic dissemination - lesions on skin, mucous membranes, lymph nodes, meninges, stomach and liver

ii. Rash development 2 weeks to 3 months post chancre

iii. Hair loss

iv. Secondary lesions are very contagious

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67
Q

Stage III

A

i. Granulomas (gummas) form in bone, skin, liver, heart, and brain causing necrosis in those who do not heal or remain asymptomatic.

ii. Delayed response after years of latency and multiplication

iii. CV system

  1. Aneurysms, valvular insufficiency aortic arteritis

iv. CNS

  1. Blindness, dementia, ataxia, hearing loss

v. Liver

vi. Bones

vii. Testes

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68
Q

Fluid and Electrolytes

A

the process of regulating the extracellular fluid volume, body fluid osmolality, and plasma concentrations of electrolytes

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69
Q

intracellular

A

within the cell

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70
Q

Extracellular

A

outside the cell

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71
Q

interstitial

A

pertaining to spaces between cells in a tissue or organ

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72
Q

third space fluid

A

fluid found in the interstitial tissue space

  • Third space is also a term used to refer to, for example, the bowel with an ileus, and the collection of fluid therein, usually post-operatively.
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73
Q

Define the factors that influence the movement of fluid and electrolytes (F&E) and describe how each factor influences the movement of F&E. What increases/decreases the impact of these factors?

A
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74
Q

Hydrostatic pressure

A

the pressure created by water. Hydrostatic pressure creates a pushing motion of fluid. Anything that increases the amount of water in a container (cell, vascular space) increases the flow of water out of the container. Hydrostatic pressure is increased by adding water to the vascular space via IV for example.

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75
Q

colloidal

A

pertaining to a gluelike substance

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76
Q

oncotic pressure

A

The pressure of water to move, typically into the capillary, as the result of the presence of plasma proteins.

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77
Q

capillary permeability

A

Ability of substances to diffuse through capillary walls into the tissue spaces.

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78
Q

Diffusion

A

Movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.

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79
Q

Osmosis

A

Diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane

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80
Q

Isotonic fluid

A

Any fluid having the same solute concentration as another fluid to which it is being compared.

  • Isotonic solutions have a concentration of dissolved particles similar to plasma, and an osmolality of 250 to 375 mOsm/L.
  • Common examples of isotonic solutions are 0.9% normal saline and lactated ringers.
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81
Q

a. What impact does isotonic fluid have on fluid shifts?

A

Because isotonic solutions have the same concentration of solutes as plasma, infused isotonic solution doesn’t move into cells. Rather, it remains within the extracellular fluid compartment and is distributed between the intravascular and interstitial spaces, thus increasing intravascular volume.

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82
Q

b. What impact does isotonic fluid have on cell size?

A

If a cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, water will leave the cell, and the cell will shrink. In an isotonic environment, the relative concentrations of solute and water are equal on both sides of the membrane. There is no net water movement, so there is no change in the size of the cell.

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83
Q

Where does isotonic fluid stay?

A

Because isotonic solutions have the same concentration of solutes as plasma, infused isotonic solution doesn’t move into cells. Rather, it remains within the extracellular fluid compartment and is distributed between the intravascular and interstitial spaces, thus increasing intravascular volume.

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84
Q

Name the isotonic fluids.

A

-0.9% Saline.

-5% dextrose in water (D5W)**also used as a hypotonic solution after it is administered because the body absorbs the dextrose BUT it is considered isotonic)

-5% Dextrose in 0.225% saline (D5W1/4NS)

-Lactated Ringer’s.

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85
Q

Hypotonic fluids

A

the #of particles in a solution on one side of a membrane is less than the # of particles in a solution on the other side of the membrane

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86
Q

What impact does hypotonic fluid have on fluid shifts?

A

When a hypotonic solution is administered intravenously, fluid shifts out of the bloodstream to the area of higher concentration in the interstitial and intracellular spaces.

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87
Q

What impact does hypotonic fluid have on cell size?

A

It also means that the extracellular fluid has a higher concentration of water in the solution than does the cell. In this situation, water will follow its concentration gradient and enter the cell, causing the cell to expand.

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88
Q

Where does hypotonic fluid have the propensity to go/stay?

A

A hypotonic solution has a low solute concentration than the inside of the cells (solute concentration in the cell is high). Osmotic forces then cause water from a solution to enter the cells. The cell eventually stretches and bursts in the process becoming lysis.

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89
Q

Name the hypotonic fluids:

A

Hypotonic: D5W (in the body) 0.25% NaCl. 0.45% NaCl (half normal saline) 2.5% Dextrose.

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90
Q

What impact does hypertonic fluid have on fluid shifts?

A

Hypertonic solutions such as 3% saline solutions contain higher concentrations of solutes than those found in human serum. Because of this discrepancy in concentration, these fluids are osmotically active and therefore, will cause fluid shifts

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91
Q

What impact does hypertonic fluid have on cell size?

A

Because the cell has a relatively higher concentration of water, water will leave the cell, and the cell will shrink.

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92
Q

Name the hypertonic fluids:

A

3% Saline.

5% Saline.

10% Dextrose in Water (D10W)

5% Dextrose in 0.9% Saline.

5% Dextrose in 0.45% saline.

5% Dextrose in Lactated Ringer’s.

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93
Q

Dehydration

A

A serious reduction in the body’s water content

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94
Q

Dehydration causes

A

Vomiting and diarrhea

Excessive sweating

Untreated diabetes mellitus

No access to water

Lack of thirst in elderly

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95
Q

Dehydration signs and symptoms

A

-Weight losses of 6-10 pounds in one week

-Tenting

-Filling or emptying of venous filling more than 6-10 seconds

-Flat veins in supine client

-Tongue is dry

-Sunken eyeballs

-Blood pressure decreased with elevated pulse rate

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96
Q

Appropriate fluid types and specific fluids used for patient with dehydration:

A

Initial management includes placement of an intravenous or intraosseous line and rapid administration of 20 mL/kg of an isotonic crystalloid (eg, lactated Ringer solution, 0.9% sodium chloride). Additional fluid boluses may be required depending on the severity of the dehydration.

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97
Q

Overload

A

a condition in which a person feels overly pressured by demands

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98
Q

Overload causes

A

Heart failure.

Cirrhosis.

Kidney failure.

Nephrotic syndrome.

Premenstrual edema.

Pregnancy.

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99
Q

Overload signs and symptoms

A

Rapid weight gain.

Noticeable swelling (edema) in your arms, legs and face.

Swelling in your abdomen.

Cramping, headache, and stomach bloating.

Shortness of breath.

High blood pressure.

Heart problems, including congestive heart failure.

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100
Q

Overload fluids used

A

Crystalloid fluids

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101
Q

Low fluid volume

A

Hypovolemic shock (hemorrhagic shock, non-hemorrhagic shock)

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102
Q

Signs and Symptoms of Fluid Volume Deficit

A

Postural hypotension

Weight loss/Dryness

Inelastic skin

Increase pulse and respiration

Renal failure

Dizziness (orthostatic/postural hypotension)

Decreased urination (oliguria)

Dry mouth, dry skin.

Thirst and/or nausea.

Weight loss (except in third spacing, where the fluid will still be in the body but inaccessible)

Muscle weakness and lethargy.

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103
Q

Low fluid volume causes

A

trauma to vessels or tissues, fluid loss from GI tract (vomiting/diarrhea)

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104
Q

What is the best indicator of fluid status? How should this assessment be conducted?

A

The elasticity of skin, or turgor, is an indicator of fluid status in most patients (Scales and Pilsworth, 2008). Assessing skin turgor is a quick and simple test performed by pinching a fold of skin. In a well-hydrated person, the skin will immediately fall back to its normal position when released.

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105
Q

How does antidiuretic hormone (ADH) effect fluid balance?

A

Antidiuretic hormone stimulates water reabsorbtion by stimulating insertion of “water channels” or aquaporins into the membranes of kidney tubules. These channels transport solute-free water through tubular cells and back into blood, leading to a decrease in plasma osmolarity and an increase osmolarity of urine.

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106
Q

How does obesity impact fluid balance?

A

Also, overweight and obese subjects demonstrated a significantly larger decrease in body mass after exercise than lean controls (P<0.05). Conclusion: Obese subjects demonstrate a larger deviation in markers of fluid and sodium balance than their lean counterparts during prolonged moderate-intensity exercise.

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107
Q

What is the recommended amount of daily fluid intake?

A

About 15.5 cups (3.7 liters) of fluids for men. About 11.5 cups (2.7 liters) of fluids a day for women

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108
Q

What is the volume to weight equivalent of water?

A

The density of water is 1 kilogram per liter(kg/L) at 39.2°. This means that 1 liter (L) of water weighs 1 kilogram (kg) and 1 milliliter (mL) of water weighs 1 gram (g).

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109
Q

Define obligatory urine output and what is the amount?

A

700mL per day, 30 mL per hour

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110
Q

Electrolytes listed below

A

An ionic compound whose aqueous solution conducts an electric current

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111
Q

Sodium

A

A. Extracellular

B. Movement: If sodium ions are outside of a cell, they will tend to move into the cell based on both their concentration gradient (the lower concentration of Na +start superscript, plus, end superscript in the cell) and the voltage across the membrane (the more negative charge on the inside of the membrane).

C. A normal blood sodium level is between 135 and 145 milliequivalents per liter (mEq/L).

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112
Q

Hypernatremia

A
  • Hypernatremia is a serum sodium concentration > 145 mEq/L (> 145 mmol/L). It implies a deficit of total body water relative to total body sodium caused by water intake being less than water losses.
  • S&S: Hypernatremia typically causes thirst. The most serious symptoms of hypernatremia result from brain dysfunction. Severe hypernatremia can lead to confusion, muscle twitching, seizures, coma, and death.
113
Q

Hyponatremia

A
  • deficient sodium in the blood, is decrease in serum sodium concentration < 136 mEq/L

-S&S: Nausea and vomiting.

Headache.

Confusion.

Loss of energy, drowsiness and fatigue.

Restlessness and irritability.

Muscle weakness, spasms or cramps.

Seizures.

Coma.

114
Q

Potassium

A

Potassium is a mineral and an electrolyte. It helps your muscles work, including the muscles that control your heartbeat and breathing. Potassiumcomes from the food you eat. Your body uses the potassium it needs. The extra potassium that your body does not need is removed from your blood by your kidneys.

  • It exists predominantly in the intracellular fluid at concentrations of 140 to 150 meq/liter and in the extracellular fluid at concentrations of 3.5 to 5 meq/liter.
  • Movement: It helps keep the water (the amount of fluid inside and outside the body’s cells) and electrolyte balance of the body. Potassium is also important in how nerves and muscles work. Potassium levels often change with sodium levels.
  • Levels of potassium controlled by: The body maintains the right level of potassium by matching the amount of potassium consumed with the amount lost. Potassium is consumed in food and drinks that contain electrolytes (including potassium) and lost primarily in urine. Some potassium is also lost through the digestive tract and in sweat.
115
Q

Hyperkalemia

A

excessive potassium in the blood

116
Q

Hyperkalemia causes

A

M.A.C.H.I.N.E.

M - Medications - ACE inhibitors, NSAIDS

A - Acidosis - Metabolic and respiratory

C - Cellular destruction - Burns, traumatic injury

H - Hypoaldosteronism, hemolysis

I - Intake - Excesssive

N - Nephrons, renal failure

E - Excretion - Impaired

117
Q

Hyperkalemia symptoms

“MURDER”

A

Muscle weakness

Urine, oliguria, anuria

Respiratory distress

Decreased cardiac contractility

ECG changes (peaked T at 6, prolonged PR at 7, absent P and wide QRS at 8-9)

Reflexes, hyperreflexia, or areflexia (flaccid)

118
Q

Hypokalemia

A

deficient potassium in the blood

less than 3.5 mEq/L (3.5 mmol/L)

119
Q

Hypokalemia causes

A

B.A.D. L.O.A.D.

B-arters/Conns syndrome(hyperaldosteronism)

A-lkalosis

D-iuretics

L-axative abuse

O-ther causes: insulin overdose

A-cute glucose load

D-iarrhoea

120
Q

Hypokalemia S/S

A

Fatigue, Anorexia, N/V, Muscle weakness, Decreased GI motility, Dysrhythmias, Paresthesia, Flat T waves on ECG

121
Q

Conjunctivitis (pink eye)

A

-Infection of the outer layer of the eye.

-also known as pink eye may be inflammatory or infectious in nature

  • Conjunctivitis is very contagious and handwashing is the most important aspect of prevention of spread
122
Q

Conjunctivitis Causes

A

i. Chemical

ii. Allergen

iii. Blood borne pathogens

iv. Physical irritants

v. Bacterial

vi. Viral

vii. Chlamydia and other sexually transmitted infections

viii. Birth

123
Q

Pink eye signs and symptoms

A

i. Redness

ii. Purulent drainage

iii. Tearing/lacrimation

iv. Transient blurred vision

v. Itching

vi. Photophobia

vii. Burning

viii. Foreign body sensation

124
Q

Keratitis

A

inflammation of cornea which can cause scarring and lead to blindness.

125
Q

Keratitis causes

A

i. Infection- HSV 1 commonly

ii. Birth

iii. Allergies

iv. Ischemia

v. Deficient tears- dry eyes

126
Q

Glaucoma (#1 Cause of blindness in the US)

A

the aqueous humor (liquid part of the eye) increases in volume which increases the pressure inside the eye and puts pressure on the ocular disk which causes it to become cupped in shape. This distortion of the ocular disk leads to loss of visual fields, halos around the field of vision and pain. If left untreated the retina will detach from the disk and cause blindness.

127
Q

Open Angle Glaucoma

A

A. the passageway for the fluid from the aqueous humor (Iridocorneal angle) is open so eye drops must be used to decrease the pressure. Surgery may be done to widen the angle in some cases

i. Risk factors

  1. Age 40 and >
  2. African Americans
  3. Trauma
  4. Uveitis
  5. Corticosteroid therapy
  6. DM
  7. Family HX

ii. Diagnosed by pressures in the eye greater than 9-21 mmHG and changes to the optic disk

128
Q

Closed Angle Glaucoma

A

the Iris extends closer to the Iridocorneal angle and blocks the flow of fluid from inside the eye. This type is most common in Asians and Eskimos and requires surgical intervention.

129
Q

Cataracts

A

A. opacification of the lens which commonly occurs as we age especially noted after age 65.

a. Risk factors

i. Smoking

ii. Sun exposure (UVB)

iii. Corticosteroids

iv. DM

v. Trauma

vi. Renal disease

b. Blurred or distorted vision is the main symptom

c. Dx - by eye exam

d. Rx- glasses for as long as possible and then surgery to replace the lens.

130
Q

Retinopathy

A

A.damage to the small blood vessels due to poor perfusion of the eye lead to the new growth of blood vessels (Neovascularization) which are fragile, leak, bleed and grow over the retina which causes blindness.

a. Risk factors

i. DM

ii. Sickle cell dz

iii. Sarcoidosis

iv. Hyperviscosity of the blood

131
Q

Retinal Detachment

A

Definition: the two layers of the retina separate which allows the vitreous fluid to accumulate between the layers

a. Risk Factors - Infections, tumors, cataract removal predispose

b. S&S - Acute vision loss, Floaters, Flashing lights, No pain

c. RX - this is an emergency and the retina must be repaired surgically

132
Q

macular degeneration

A
  • the macula deteriorates

a. Risk factors

i. Age

ii. Female

iii. Smoking

iv. Low dietary carotenoids

v. High dietary fat

vi. Genetics

b. S&S - Loss of central vision, cannot distinguish facial features, cannot do close work like needlepoint

133
Q

Impacted Cerumen

A

Definition: Impacted ear wax

a. S&S - loss of hearing, sneezing, feelings of fullness, tinnitus (ringing in the ears).

b. Rx - do not stick anything in the ear to get the wax out - use a bulb syringe and warm water

134
Q

Otitis Externa

A

Definition: Swimmer’s ear

a. Risk factors - having a wet ear canal (swimming and propped baby bottles are common), trauma

b. S&S

i. Itching

ii. Redness

iii. Tenderness

iv. Drainage

v. Hearing loss

c. RX - antibiotic and steroid drops

135
Q

Otitis Media

A

Definition: Inflammation in the middle ear with fluid collection

​a. Risk factors

i. Non breast fed

ii. Male

iii. Day care

iv. Smoking families

v. Pacifiers and propped bottles

vi. Upper respiratory tract infections

vii. Childhood

c. S&S

i. Pain

ii. Fever

iii. Hearing loss

iv. Poor feeding

v. Pulling ear

vi. Night waking

vii. Irritability

d. Complications

i. Complications

ii. Hearing loss

iii. Speech impairment

iv. Mastoiditis and degradation

v. CNS infections are rare

e. RX - antibiotics. If it is recurrent (3 times in 6 months or 4 times in one year) prophylactic antibiotics, remove the cause, tympanoplasty tubes

136
Q

Meniere disease

A

Definition: stretching and distention of the inner ear causing hearing loss, vertigo, tinnitus, pallor, nausea & vomiting, and diaphoresis. Rx is to protect the patient’s safety as a priority, avoid head movement, medicines are available to decrease inner ear distention, and shunts can be placed to drain the fluid.

​a. Cause - unknown

b. Risk factors

i. Trauma

ii. Infection

iii. Pituitary, adrenal or thyroid insufficiency

iv. Vascular disorders

137
Q

Cancer From first test

A

any malignant growth or tumor caused by abnormal and uncontrolled cell division…….

138
Q

Difference in benign and malignant tumors

A

One is known as benign and the other as malignant. A benign tumor is a tumor that does not invade its surrounding tissue or spread around the body. A malignant tumor is a tumor that may invade its surrounding tissue or spread around the body.

139
Q

What does the suffix “oma” signify? Is this ALWAYS the case? Give an example of an exception.

A

A. oma: Suffix meaning a swelling or tumor. Many words in medicine end in -oma.

b.

140
Q

carcinoma

A

Carcinoma: Cancers derived from epithelial cells. This group includes many of the most common cancers that occur in older adults. Nearly all cancers developing in the breast, prostate, lung, pancreas, and colon are carcinomas.

141
Q

What does the suffix “sarcoma” indicate?

A

A broad group of cancers that begin in the bone and soft connective tissues

142
Q

What are some RISK FACTORS for developing cancer?

A

Older age.

A personal or family history of cancer.

Using tobacco.

Obesity.

Alcohol.

Some types of viral infections, such as human papillomavirus (HPV)

Specific chemicals.

Exposure to radiation, including ultraviolet radiation from the sun.

143
Q

What happens (related to cancer development) when a person is immunocompromised?

A

People with weakened immune systems are at higher risk of getting severely sick.

144
Q

All cancers originate from changes in __________.

i. Function of tumor suppressor genes

ii. Function of oncogenes

A

I. Tumor suppressor genes are normal genes that slow down cell division, repair DNA mistakes, or tell cells when to die (a process known as apoptosis or programmed cell death). When tumor suppressor genes don’t work properly, cells can grow out of control, which can lead to cancer.

ii. An oncogene is a gene that has the potential to cause cancer. In tumor cells, these genes are often mutated, or expressed at high levels. … If, through mutation, normal genes promoting cellular growth are up-regulated (gain-of-function mutation), they will predispose the cell to cancer; thus, they are termed “oncogenes”.

145
Q

Are some viruses related to cancer development? Give an example.

A

Examples of viruses associated with cancer are: papillomavirus-cervical cancer, hepatitis virus-liver cancer, Epstein-Barr virus-Burkitt’s lymphoma.

146
Q

What are some common laboratory tests used to detect cancer?

A

-Examples of blood tests used to diagnose cancer include:

Complete blood count (CBC). This common blood test measures the amount of various types of blood cells in a sample of your blood. …

Blood protein testing. …

Tumor marker tests. …

Circulating tumor cell tests.

-Examples of the types of laboratory tests we use include:

CTC test. Cellsearch™ circulating tumor cell (CTC) tests may be used to monitor metastatic breast, colorectal and prostate cancers. …

Complete blood count test. …

Flow cytometry. …

Mammaprint + Blueprint® test. …

Oncotype DX® test. …

CA-125 test. …

Prostate-specific antigen test.

147
Q

What are some common cancer screening procedures?

A

Examples of some common cancer screening tests that are known to lower cancer death rates include colonoscopy for colon cancer, mammography for breast cancer, and Pap smear for cervical cancer.

148
Q

What does metastasis mean? Describe metastasis?

A

The spread of cancer cells from the place where they first formed to another part of the body.

In metastasis, cancer cells break away from the original (primary) tumor, travel through the blood or lymph system, and form a new tumor in other organs or tissues of the body.

149
Q

How are tumors classified?

A

Grading systems differ depending on the type of cancer.

In general, tumors are graded as 1, 2, 3, or 4, depending on the amount of abnormality.

In Grade 1 tumors, the tumor cells and the organization of the tumor tissue appear close to normal.

These tumors tend to grow and spread slowly.

150
Q

Describe the effects of cancer on the body and why they happen.

A

A growing tumor becomes a lump of cancer cells that can destroy the normal cells around the tumor and damage the body’s healthy tissues.

151
Q

Asymptomatic

A

without symptoms

152
Q

Pain

A

an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage

153
Q

cachexia

A

a condition of physical wasting away due to the loss of weight and muscle mass that occurs in patients with diseases such as advanced cancer or AIDS

154
Q

immune suppression

A

disease, malnutrition, stress, extremes of ages, immunosuppressive drugs

155
Q

infection

A

contributes to anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia

-due to invasion and destruction of bone marrow cells, poor nutrition, and chemotherapy

156
Q

What is leukopenia. Why is this bad?

A

So ‘leukopenia’ literally means a deficiency of white cells. Since we know that white cells are the soldiers of the body that protect against infections, having a low number of white blood cells can leave a person vulnerable to infection.

157
Q

What is thrombocytopenia? Why is this bad?

A

Your platelet count may be low if the body is not making enough platelets, losing platelets, or platelets are being destroyed. In patients with cancer, low platelet count may be caused by: Certain types of cancer: patients with lymphomas or leukemias may be at higher risk for low platelet counts.

158
Q

What is anemia? Why is this bad?

A

Why you can die from anemia. Red blood cells carry oxygen throughout your body. When you don’t have enough red blood cells, your organs don’t get enough oxygen and can’t work properly. This can have severe consequences.

159
Q

Opportunistic infections

A

infections seen in patients with compromised immune systems

160
Q

What effects does chemotherapy have on the body? WHY?

A

Chemotherapy can cause fatigue, loss of appetite, nausea, bowel issues such as constipation or diarrhoea, hair loss, mouth sores, skin and nail problems.

You may have trouble concentrating or remembering things. There can also be nerve and muscle effects and hearing changes.

161
Q

What types of cells does chemotherapy target? What are the effects on cells not affected by cancer?

A
  • Chemotherapy is most effective at killing cells that are rapidly dividing.
  • Unfortunately, chemotherapy does not know the difference between cancer cells and the normal cells. The “normal” cells will grow back and be healthy but in the meantime, side effects occur.

-Cancer is the uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells in the body. Cancer develops when the body’s normal control mechanism stops working. Old cells do not die and instead grow out of control, forming new, abnormal cells. These extra cellsmay form a mass of tissue, called a tumor.

162
Q

What are the warning signs of cancer?

  1. C
  2. A
  3. U
  4. T
  5. I
  6. O
  7. N
A
  1. Change in bowel or bladder habits.
  2. A sore that does not heal.
  3. Unusual bleeding or discharge.
  4. Thickening or lump in the breast or elsewhere.

Indigestion or difficulty in swallowing.

Obvious change in a wart or mole.

Nagging cough or hoarseness.

163
Q

Altered cell growth

A

§ Moles: melanocytes

§ Lipomas: adipose tissue

§ Vascular tumors (hemangiomas): blood vessels

§ Neuromas: nerves

  • Malignant

§ Kaposi sarcoma: metastasizing, opportunistic

Ø Cancer

  • Most skin cancers are slow
  • Light skin over 60 yrs. highest risk
  • High altitude & low latitude living is a risk factor
  • Need biopsy to diagnosis:

§ Mole changes

§ Large, change colors, ulcerate, bleed

164
Q

Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors

A

Ø May be malignant or benign

Ø Benign tumors often go undiagnosed because there is no pain

Ø Malignant tumors are called sarcomas

Ø Most bone tumors are secondary to metastasis from another site most commonly from:

  • Breast
  • Prostate
  • Lung
  • Kidney
165
Q

GERD

A

This is a chronic disease that occurs when stomach acid or bile flows into the food pipe and irritates the lining.

Acid reflux and heartburn more than twice a week may indicate GERD.

Symptoms include burning pain in the chest that usually occurs after eating and worsens when lying down.

Relief from lifestyle changes and over-the-counter medications is usually temporary. Stronger medication may be needed.

166
Q

Main cause of GERD

A

incompetent lower esophageal sphincter, frequent acid reflux

167
Q

The pathogenesis of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

A

The pathogenesis of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is complex and involves changes in reflux exposure, epithelial resistance, and visceral sensitivity. The gastric refluxate is a noxious material that injures the esophagus and elicits symptoms.

168
Q

Common signs and symptoms of GERD include:

A

A burning sensation in your chest (heartburn), usually after eating, which might be worse at night.

Chest pain.

Difficulty swallowing.

Regurgitation of food or sour liquid.

Sensation of a lump in your throat.

169
Q

When left untreated, GERD (or acid reflux) can lead to complications, including:

A

-Adult onset asthma.

-Esophagitis (Inflammation, irritation, or swelling of the esophagus)

-Stricture (Narrowing of the esophagus)

-Barrett’s Esophagus (Pre-cancerous changes to the esophagus)

-Regurgitation of acid into the lungs.

Sinusitis.

170
Q

GERD Rx

A

Prescription-strength proton pump inhibitors.

Proton Pump Inhibitors (PPIs) for Heartburn and Reflux

Dexlansoprazole (Dexilant)

Esomeprazole (Nexium)

Lansoprazole (Prevacid)

Omeprazole (Prilosec, Zegerid)

Pantoprazole (Protonix)

Rabeprazole (Aciphex)

171
Q

acid-base balance

A

equilibrium between acid and base concentrations in the body fluids

……

172
Q

What is pH?

A

A numerical measure of the acidity or alkalinity of a solution, usually measured on a scale of 0 to 14. Neutral solutions (such as pure water) have a pHof 7, acidic solutions have a pH lower than 7, and alkaline solutions have a pHhigher than 7.

173
Q

Describe an acid. What is the relation to H+

A

The amount of hydrogen ion present in a water solution is used as a measure of the acidity of a substance; the higher the concentration of hydrogen ion the more acidic the solution and the lower the pH.

174
Q

What are the types of acid our bodies make during normal cellular metabolism

A

Cellular metabolism is the set of chemical reactions that occur in living organisms in order to maintain life. Cellular metabolism involves complex sequences of controlled biochemical reactions, better known as metabolicpathways.

175
Q

Describe buffers-the ___________ line of defense

A

first

176
Q

Describe the respiratory system in normal acid base balance. This is the __________line of defense.

A

Second

177
Q

What kind of acid do the lungs excrete?

A

Lung function, transport of CO2 and acid-base balance

By varying the rate at which carbon dioxide is excreted, the lungs regulate the carbon dioxide content of blood.

178
Q

What is the indicator of lung effectiveness?

A

PaCO2

179
Q

What do the lungs do if the CO2 is high?

A

Respiratory failure is a serious condition that develops when the lungs can’t get enough oxygen into the blood. Buildup of carbon dioxide can also damage the tissues and organs and further impair oxygenation of blood and, as a result, slow oxygen delivery to the tissues.

180
Q

What do the lungs do it the CO2 is low?

A

A low CO2 level can be a sign of several conditions, including: Kidney disease. Diabetic ketoacidosis, which happens when your body’s blood acid level goes up because it doesn’t have enough insulin to digest sugars. Metabolic acidosis, which means your body makes too much acid.

181
Q

What does the renal system to do maintain acid base balance?

3rd line of defense

A

The kidneys help maintain the acid-base balance by excreting hydrogen ions into the urine and reabsorbing bicarbonate from the urine.

182
Q

What type of acids do the kidneys excrete?

A

Acid excretion by kidneys. One of the ways (there are several) by which the kidney excretes acid (and conserves sodium) is through generation of ammonia (and ammonium) from glutamine in the proximal convoluted tubules (and to a lesser extent absorption of ammonia from blood in the distal tubules).

183
Q

What may the kidneys MAINTAIN to regulate acid base balance?

A

The kidneys help maintain the acid-base balance by excreting hydrogen ions into the urine and reabsorbing bicarbonate from the urine.

184
Q

What is the indicator of renal effectiveness?

A

Glomerular filtration rate is the best overall indicator of kidney function. It is superior to the serum creatinine level, which varies with age, sex, and race and often does not reflect kidney function accurately.

185
Q

renal function

A

kidney function, defined by the rate at which blood is filtered through the kidneys

186
Q

What are the functions of the renal system?

A

The kidney and urinary systems help the body to eliminate liquid waste called urea, and to keep chemicals, such as potassium and sodium, and water in balance.

187
Q

normal anatomy of the renal system

A
188
Q

What is a nephron? How many are there?

A

Nephron, functional unit of the kidney, the structure that actually produces urine in the process of removing waste and excess substances from the blood. There are about 1,000,000 nephrons in each human kidney.

189
Q

What are the 3 major functions of the nephron?

A

filtration, reabsorption, secretion

190
Q

Describe the function of the parts of the nephron

A

A nephron is the basic unit of structure in the kidney. A nephron is used separate to water, ions and small molecules from the blood, filter out wastes and toxins, and return needed molecules to the blood.

… The glomerulus is the specialized configuration of capillaries within the nephron that make kidneys possible.

191
Q

What is glomerular filtration rate?

A

A GFR of 60 or higher is in the normal range. A GFR below 60 may mean kidney disease. A GFR of 15 or lower may mean kidney failure.

192
Q

Loop of Henle

A

section of the nephron tubule that conserves water and minimizes the volume of urine

193
Q

collecting tubule

A

the structure in the nephron that collects urine from the distal convoluted tubule

194
Q

proximal convoluted tubule

A

first section of the renal tubule that the blood flows through; reabsorption of water, ions, and all organic nutrients

195
Q

distal convoluted tubule

A

Between the loop of Henle and the collecting duct; Selective reabsorption and secretion occur here, most notably to regulate reabsorption of water and sodium

196
Q

What hormones are important to regulation of kidney function?

A

prostaglandins

197
Q

What labs are important to assessment of kidney function?

A

a. Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)

b. Creatinine

C. Urinalysis

198
Q

What does costovertebral angle (CVA) tenderness tell you about the kidneys?

A

Costovertebral angle tenderness suggests nephrolithiasis, ureteropelvic junction obstruction, or pyelonephritis.

199
Q

renal failure

A

decrease in excretion of wastes results from impaired filtration function

200
Q

Renal Failure S/S

A

Decreased urine output, although occasionally urine output remains normal.

Fluid retention, causing swelling in your legs, ankles or feet.

Shortness of breath.

Fatigue.

Confusion.

Nausea.

Weakness.

Irregular heartbeat.

201
Q

Renal failure etiology

A

lack of blood flow, blockage, hemorrhage, various poisons

202
Q

Renal Failure Rx

A

Anti-hypertensives (blood pressure tablets) You might need anti-hypertensive tablets to lower your blood pressure. …

Diuretics (water tablets) …

Erythropoietin (EPO) …

Hepatitis B vaccination. …

Iron supplements. …

Phosphate binders. …

Sodium Bicarbonate. …

Statins (cholesterol tablets)

203
Q

pancreatitis

A

inflammation of the pancreas

204
Q

Pancreatitis signs and symptoms

A
  • Abdominal pain present in the mid-epigastric or LUQ
  • Pain is more severe when lying down and may radiate to the back or flank area
  • Abdominal tenderness with decreased or absent bowel sounds
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • May have symptoms of shock: due to panceratic hemorrhage
  • Bulky, pale foul smelling stools (steatorrhea)
  • Hypocalcemia due to fixation of calcium in area of fat necrosis
205
Q

Pancreatitis etiology

A
  1. Biliary tract disease
  2. Alcohol abuse
  3. Infections
  4. Hypercalcemia
  5. drugs
206
Q

Pancreatitis Medications

A

-Anticholinergics (dicylclomine (Bentyl): decrease intestinal motility and the flow of pancreatic enzymes

-Pain control: Dilaudid

-Prophylactic antibiotics, antiemetics

-H2 receptor antagonists or proton pump inhibitors: to suppress gastric acid and decrease pancreatic activity

-Spasmolytics (papaverine (Pavabid) relax smooth muscle

-Pancreatic enzymes (pancrelipase (Viokase): aid with digestion of fats and proteins when taken with meals and snacks

207
Q

Pancreatitis health

A

Currently, no medications are used to treat acute pancreatitis specifically. Therapy is primarily supportive and involves intravenous (IV) fluid hydration, analgesics, antibiotics (in severe pancreatitis), and treatment of metabolic complications (eg, hyperglycemia and hypocalcemia).

208
Q

What are the purposes of the inflammatory process?

A

The inflammatory response is a defense mechanism that evolved in higher organisms to protect them from infection and injury.

Its purpose is to localize and eliminate the injurious agent and to remove damaged tissue components so that the body can begin to heal.

209
Q

What are the 5 cardinal signs of inflammation and why does each occur

A

In the case of inflammation, there are five cardinal signs that characterize the condition: pain, heat, redness, swelling, and loss of function. Interestingly, inflammation is a biological process that your body uses in response to infection.

210
Q

Distinguish between acute and chronic inflammation.

A

Some examples of acute inflammation are the common cold, the flu, bronchitis, headache, hives, or joint pain. On the other hand, chronic inflammation lasts for several months to years. It occurs from chronic exposure to a low-intensity irritant or toxin. It may also be an autoimmune response to an allergen.

211
Q

Identify 3 stages in the inflammatory process and explain what happens in each stage

A

Acute -swelling stage.

Sub-acute - regenerative stage.

Chronic - scar tissue maturation and remodelling stage.

212
Q

Bradykinins

A

Chemicals produced by the body and responsible for inflammation and pain

213
Q

Histamine

A

Chemical stored in mast cells that triggers dilation and increased permeability of capillaries.

214
Q

Cytokines

A

Chemicals released by the immune system communicate with the brain.

215
Q

Prostaglandins

A

Modified fatty acids that are produced by a wide range of cells.

216
Q

serous membrane

A

Membrane that lines a cavity without an opening to the outside of the body

217
Q

Sanguinous

A

pertaining to blood

218
Q

fibrinous

A

pertaining to fibers

219
Q

purulent

A

producing or containing pus

220
Q

What are the systemic signs of inflammation?

A

fever, leukocytosis, lymphadenopathy, elevated C-reactive protein

221
Q

What cells are responsible for healing and what is the role of each of these cells

A

Beyond the stem cell, three other types of cells are critical to the process of tissuerepair: fibroblasts, endothelial cells and macrophages. In most wounds, complete replacement of wounded tissue to its original, unharmed state is impossible.

222
Q

Labile cells

A

Never go to G0, divide rapidly w/ a short G1 (e.g., Bone marrow, gut epithelium, skin, hair follicles)

223
Q

Stable cells

A

Cells that do not regularly undergo mitosis but are able to if the need arises

224
Q

Permanent cells

A

cannot replicate; cardiac/striated muscle; neurons

225
Q

How is connective tissue replaced?

A

Repair by connective tissue involves the influx of debris-removing inflammatory cells, formation of granulation tissue (a substance consisting of fibroblasts and delicate capillaries in a loose extracellular matrix) and conversion of said granulation tissue into fibrous tissue that is remodeled over time to form a scar …

226
Q

Identify factors which may delay wound healing.

A

Wound healing can be delayed by factors local to the wound itself, including desiccation, infection or abnormal bacterial presence, maceration, necrosis, pressure, trauma, and edema.

227
Q

vascular response

A

the role of inflammation in increasing blood flow to the site of an injury

228
Q

Epinephrine

A

Neurotransmitter secreted by the adrenal medulla in response to stress. Also known as adrenaline.

229
Q

thyroid hormone

A

stimulates cellular metabolism

230
Q

Four phase of fever

A

There are three clearly distinguishable phases: the period of the fever’s onset, the initial rise (this period is fully established when the fever reaches its height), and the end phase (which is characterized by the fall of the body’s temperature).

231
Q

Granulocytes

A

neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

232
Q

Neutrophils

A

A type of white blood cell that engulfs invading microbes and contributes to the nonspecific defenses of the body against disease.

233
Q

Eosinophils

A

a white blood cell containing granules that are readily stained by eosin.

234
Q

Basophils

A

A circulating leukocyte that produces histamine.

235
Q

mast cells

A

Cells that release chemicals (such as histamine) that promote inflammation.

236
Q

Monocytes

A

An agranular leukocyte that is able to migrate into tissues and transform into a macrophage.

237
Q

Macrophages

A

phagocytize foreign substances and help activate T cells

238
Q

dendritic cells

A

specialized white blood cells that patrol the body searching for antigens that produce infections

239
Q

NK cells

A

responsible for immune surveillance

240
Q

T cells

A

Cells created in the thymus that produce substances that attack infected cells in the body.

241
Q

B cells

A

Cells manufactured in the bone marrow that create antibodies for isolating and destroying invading bacteria and viruses.

242
Q

innate immunity

A

Immunity that is present before exposure and effective from birth. Responds to a broad range of pathogens.

243
Q

adaptive immunity

A

the ability to recognize and remember specific antigens and mount an attack on them

244
Q

passive immunity

A

the short-term immunity that results from the introduction of antibodies from another person or animal.

245
Q

IgG

A

-most abundant

-crosses placenta

-secondary immune response

246
Q

IgM

A

first antibody produced

247
Q

IgA

A

In secretions

Tears

Saliva and mucous membranes

Colostrum

248
Q

IgD

A

Attached to B cells

Activates B cells

249
Q

IgE

A

allergic reactions

250
Q

Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction

A

anaphylactic shock (hay fever, asthma, food allergies)

251
Q

Type 2 hypersensitivity

A

Cytotoxic ANTIBODY mediated cell destruction

Ex: Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

252
Q

Type 3 hypersensitivity

A

Immune Complexes of Antigen and Antibody

Ex: Serum sickness

253
Q

Type 4 hypersensitivity

A

Delayed type hypersensitivity reactions.

T-cell and Macrophage mediated.

Ex: Tuberculosis

254
Q

autoimmune disorder

A

any of a large group of diseases characterized by a condition in which the immune system produces antibodies against its own tissues

255
Q

Autoimmune disorder treatment

A

NSAIDS

256
Q

Hyper acute rejection

A

Preformed IgG antibodies against graft

257
Q

Acute rejection

A

Organ dysfunction - INCREASED GGT in the liver

or CR depending on organ w/ in 5 days - 3months

258
Q

Chronic rejection

A

T-lymphocytes

  • need new transplant
259
Q

What is the etiology of Cell mediated immunodeficiency disorders

A

Etiology. Primary immunodeficiency diseases result from intrinsic defects in immune cells, including T cells, complement components, and phagocytes. Recurrent pneumonia caused by extracellular bacteria suggests antibodydeficiency.

260
Q

What is the etiology of Combined immunodeficiency disorders?

A

Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is a group of rare disorderscaused by mutations in different genes involved in the development and function of infection-fighting immune cells. Infants with SCID appear healthy at birth but are highly susceptible to severe infections.

261
Q

What is the etiology of Humoral immunodeficiency disorders?

A

. Humoral immune deficiencies are conditions which cause impairment of humoral immunity, which can lead to immunodeficiency.

262
Q

HIV Pathophysiology

A

Retrovirus - carries genetic information in RNA instead of DNA

HIV attaches to CD4+ (T helpers)

HIV RNA enters the cells and converts its RNA to DNA in the cell, therefore the body’s cells begin producing the virus

This process kills the CD4+ cells and releases more HIV

263
Q

Opportunistic infection in AIDS

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci (formerly carinii) pneumonia

264
Q

Prion

A

protein particles that cause disease

265
Q

Viruses

A

Pieces of genetic material surrounded by a protein coat

266
Q

Bacteria

A

(microbiology) single-celled or noncellular spherical or spiral or rod-shaped organisms lacking chlorophyll that reproduce by fission

267
Q

Spirochetes

A

spiral-shaped bacteria that have flexible walls and are capable of movement

268
Q

Mycoplasma

A

no cell wall

269
Q

Rickettsia

A

a small bacterium that lives in lice, fleas, ticks, and mites

270
Q

Chlymydia

A

Azithromycin (Zithromax)

271
Q

Fungi

A

An organism that absorbs nutrients from the environment.

272
Q

parasite

A

An organism that feeds on a living host

273
Q

Differentiate the stages of infection progression.

A

the incubation, prodromal, illness, decline, and convalescence periods

274
Q

Global infectious diseases

A

Infectious diseases are the leading cause of global morbidity and mortality [2]. The “big 3” pathogens—HIV, tuberculosis, and malaria—cause hundreds of millions of infections annually and collectively kill more than 5 million people each year, mostly in sub-Saharan Africa and Asia.

275
Q

Global infectious diseases are now being recognized. These diseases, known as endemic to one part of the world, are now being found in other parts of the world because of international travel and a global marketplace. Which of the following is considered a global infectious disease?

A

Malaria

276
Q

shock

A

A condition in which the circulatory system fails to provide sufficient circulation to enable every body part to perform its function; also called hypoperfusion.

277
Q

Shock signs and symptoms

A

-Pale

-Moist

-Cool Skin

-Shallow Irregular Breathing

-Dilated Pupils

-Weak or rapid pulse

-Dizziness or nausea

278
Q

shock phase

A

The first phase of the alarm reaction, during which epinephrine and cortisone are released and the body prepares itself for flight or fight.

279
Q

Shock etiology

A

Identified by underlying causes:

Cardiogenic Shock

Hemorrhagic Shock

Hypovolemic Shock

Obstructive Shock

Distributive (vasogenic) Shock - (3) types

Anaphylactic Shock

Neurogenic Shock

Septic Shock