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Principles of Meat Science > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

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1
Q

Muscle contraction is typically initiated by a stimulus that arrives at the surface of a muscle fiber, but that is not the end of the message. List 5 (five) important elements (steps) in the process of transferring the stimulus from the brain to the contractile organelles (myofibrils) of a muscle fiber.

A
  • depolarization of nerve (axon)
  • release of acetylcholine from axon across the synapse
  • depolarization or sarcolemma
  • depolarization follows T-tubules into muscle fiber
  • calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into sarcoplasm around the myofibrils
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2
Q

List four (4) location of adipose tissue for a beef carcass.

A
  • internal
  • subcutaneous
  • intermuscular
  • intramuscular
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3
Q

List five potential stressors during the pre-harvest period that could affect animal well-being.

A
  • transportation
  • temperature/humidity
  • animal size and density
  • feed withdrawal
  • lairage
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4
Q

List four (4) options that are available to enhance the effectiveness of carcass washing.

A
  • steam vacuum
  • organic acid rinse
  • hot water rinse
  • steam pasteurization
  • antimicrobial chemicals
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5
Q

List three potential pathways of metabolism that can generate ATP for muscle contraction.

A
  • Phosphocreatine path
  • Aerobic metabolism path
  • Anaerobic metabolism path
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6
Q

List the four (4) main organizational levels of muscle structure from macroscopic (outermost) to microscopic (innermost) beginning with “muscle”.

A
  • muscle
  • muscle bundle
  • muscle fiber
  • myofibril
  • myofilament
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7
Q

When a physical stunning procedure is used, one may observe movement or twitching of muscle tissue in the hind leg, yet no signal was sent from the brain of that animal to its muscle tissue. Please explain how that twitching (contraction) is possible and identify two alternative stunning methods that are approved for use.

A

Reflex reaction may occur even when animal is insensible from stunning methods. Reflex includes contraction stimulus caused by lingering depolarization and acetylcholine deployment at myoneural junction. Alternative stunning methods include electrical and chemical methods (electric stunner or carbon dioxide chamber.

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8
Q

Suppose one observes two animals and one can undergo normal aerobic respiration and the other could only undergo anaerobic respiration due to stress, transport and fighting with other animals in the pen. If the first animal has a reserve of calories sufficient for 10 hours of normal movement and function, approximately how many hours would one expect that same calorie reserve to supply energy for the second animal? You must assume that the second animal is healthy and can properly remove lactate build up with no other effects during the period of anaerobic respiration.

A

Multiple responses will be acceptable provided they relate to the reduced amount of energy (ATP) that can be generated in the anaerobic metabolism pathway.

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9
Q

Steps of muscle contraction in order from 1-10.

A
  1. Resting state
  2. Motor nerve action potential arrives at motor end plate
  3. Acetylcholine released, sarcolemma and membrane depolarized
  4. Action potential transmitted via T-tubules to SR
  5. Ca2+ released from SR terminal cisternae into sarcoplasm
  6. Ca2+ binds to troponin C
  7. Tropomyosin moves to expose myosin binding site to actin
  8. Actin-myosin cross-bridge formation
  9. Myosin ATPase activated and ATP hydrolyzed
  10. Repeated formation and breaking of cross-bridges resulting in sarcomere shortening
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10
Q

In living muscle, glycogen is hydrolyzed into glucose molecules and then phosphorylated into glucose-1-phosphate for further metabolism and energy (ATP) production. The maximum each glucose-1-phosphate molecule can yield is 3 molecules of ATP. True or False?

A

FALSE; 35 molecules of ATP

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11
Q

The sarcoplasmic proteins in muscle are classified as salt-soluble and are for essential for cohesion in processed meat products. True or False?

A

FALSE; water-soluble

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12
Q

Ossification may be used as an indicator of physiological age and the cartilage of thoracic vertebrae on a beef carcass is going to ossify first. True or False?

A

FALSE; sacral

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13
Q

There are many large meat companies with operations in Missouri. One of these large companies with a facility in Columbia is Tyson. True or False?

A

FALSE; Oscar Meyer (Kraft/Heinz), Swift

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14
Q

Meat consumption in the USA is higher than many other countries. Based on consumption figures (not your preferences!), the species with the highest rate of consumption in the USA is lamb. True or False?

A

FALSE; chicken

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15
Q

Muscle fiber types are related to metabolism. The red fiber type is known to be highly oxidative, tonic (slow twitch), rich in mitochondria, and contain significant amounts of myoglobin. True or False?

A

TRUE

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16
Q

During growth of a typical market animal, nerve tissue usually trends upward (becomes a greater proportion of the animal’s body) right up to the point when it is harvested. True or False?

A

FALSE; adipose

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17
Q

The typical dressing percentage for a US #1 market hog is 70%. True or False?

A

TRUE

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18
Q

The concept that most organs in the body, including muscle, function efficiently only within a narrow range of physiological conditions is called neutrality. True or False?

A

FALSE; homeostasis

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19
Q

The typical proportion (%) of the major constituents of lean muscle tissue are 1% carbohydrates, 20% protein, 75% water, 3% lipids, and 1% ash (inorganics). True or False?

A

TRUE

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20
Q

The degree of saturation associated with beef fat is higher than chicken fat. True or False?

A

TRUE

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21
Q

List four pieces of equipment that may be used to prepare a fresh sausage such as bratwurst

A
  1. grinder
  2. stuffer
  3. mixer
  4. packager
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22
Q

List two examples of spoilage bacteria and two examples of pathogenic bacteria.

A

Pathogenic: Clostridia, Salmonella, STEC, Campylobacter, Listeria, Staphylococcus

Spoilage: C. Botulinum, Carnobacterium, others

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23
Q

List four (4) items of information that are typically required on a label for fresh meat products

A
  1. Name of cut
  2. Weight
  3. Cooking assistance
    4, Package cost
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24
Q

List four (4) factors that affect meat batter formulation and stability

A
  1. pH
  2. batter viscosity
  3. temperature during matrix formation
  4. fat particle size
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25
Q

Using knowledge from the meat processing demonstration, list three materials used to make manufactured casings and one meat product that is commonly stuffed into a casing.

A
  1. collagen
  2. cellulose
  3. plastic

Bratwurst, ground beef/pork, etc

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26
Q

List 5 physical properties of meat that are partially dependent on water holding capacity.

A
  1. color
  2. texture
  3. firmness
  4. juiciness
  5. tenderness
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27
Q

What are the four phases of rigor mortis and in which phase is the elasticity of muscle the greatest?

A
  1. delay
  2. onset
  3. completion
  4. resolution

delay has greatest elasticity

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28
Q

List three intrinsic factors of meat that affect microbial growth in meat.

A
  1. Water activity
  2. pH
  3. Protective tissues (skin/fat)
29
Q

List three postmortem effects that can influence postmortem changes and meat quality.

A
  1. temperature
  2. accelerated processing
  3. electrical stimulation
30
Q

Curing is the application of salt, nitrite, seasonings and two additional additives to meat to develop unique properties and resistance to rapid deterioration. Briefly describe the function of each individual ingredient (all five!).

A
  1. Salt: flavor, preservative
  2. nitrite: curing color, safety, flavor, antioxidant
  3. sugar: flavor, decrease water activity, fermentation
  4. seasoning: flavoring/color
  5. erythorbate: cure acceleration
31
Q

Briefly describe how the stability of products made using the heat-set method of restructuring depends on the raw materials and added ingredients.

A

Must include mention of salt-soluble protein and that heat will denature the protein to set the form of the product. Other items: phosphate, mechanical action, myofibrillar protein content

32
Q

Choose the correct name of the pigment for each of the following description using the list provided.
a. metmyoglobin
b. oxymyoglobin
c. deoxymyoglobin
d. nitric oxide myoglobin
e. nitrosylhemochromagen

______ stable pink (Fe2+)
______ purplish red (Fe2+)
______ brown (Fe3+)
______ red (Fe2+)
______ bright red (Fe2+)

A

E= stable pink (Fe2+)
C= purplish red (Fe2+)
A= brown (Fe3+)
D= red (Fe2+)
B= bright red (Fe2+)

33
Q

Which of the following is not a substrate available to generate ATP in postmortem muscle cells?
a. phosphocreatine
b. lactic acid
c. pyruvate
d. glucose-6-phosphate

A

B: lactic acid

34
Q

The breakdown of glycogen into glucose molecules is called ….
a. glycolysis
b. glycogenesis
c. glycogenolysis
d. glycogen phosphorylase

A

C: glycogenolysis

35
Q

A parasitic infection that is considered the third leading cause of death due to food-borne source and cats are the primary reservoir for this organism known as…
a. Trichinella spiralis
b. Escherichia coli O157:H7
c. Heartworms
d. Toxoplasma gondii

A

D: toxoplasma gondii

36
Q

The pH at which positive charges equal negative charges for a particular protein or group of proteins is called …
a. equilibrium
b. ultimate pH
c. isoelectric point
d. denaturation point

A

C: isoelectric point

37
Q

The indication of overall light reflectance of meat color is called …
a. hue
b. chroma
c. value
d. opaqueness

A

C: value

38
Q

When the iron in the heme ring of myoglobin (or hemoglobin) is in the ferric state (+3), it is called …
a. oxidized
b. neutral
c. denatured
d. reduced

A

A: oxidized

39
Q

A fish that has scales removed, eviscerated, fins and head often removed is called …
a. fresh
b. drawn
c. dressed
d. filleted

A

C: dressed

40
Q

Which of the following may be used to treat raw pork to assure that it free of Trichinella spiralis organisms?
a. cooking
b. freezing
c. drying
d. all of the above

A

D: all of the above

41
Q

Bologna and frankfurters represent examples from which sausage classification?
a. cooked and smoked
b. fresh
c. fermented
d. cooked but not smoked

A

A: cooked and smoked

42
Q

The flat iron steak (or roast) from the beef chuck is also a very tender muscle called …
a. psoas major
b. supraspinatus
c. semitendinosus
d. infraspinatus

A

D: infraspinatus

43
Q

The calcium alginate system is an example of which process?
a. fermentation
b. curing
c. cold-set binding
d. emulsification

A

C: cold-set bonding

44
Q

List the two minerals and two vitamins that are featured micronutrient components of meat as described in class.

A

Minerals: Zinc and Iron
Vitamins: thiamine, niacin, B6 and B12

45
Q

The USDA FSIS oversees and regulates at least 10 significant activities in the role of inspection. List 6.

A

The examination of animals and their carcasses at slaughter/Inspection at all stages of preparation of meat and meat food products to assure sanitary handling and sanitation of equipment, buildings, and grounds/Verification of adequacy and effectiveness of each facility’s or plant’s sanitation standard operating procedures (SSOP) and HACCP plans/Product sampling and analysis to assure compliance with performance standards/Condemnation of unfit products to prevent their use in human food/Examination of all ingredients used in preparation of meat food products to assure their fitness for food/Prescription and application of identified standards for inspected meat food products/Enforcement of measures that ensure informative labeling/Inspection of foreign meat and meat food products offered for importation/Administration of a system of certification to assure acceptance of domestic meats and meat food products in foreign commerce.

46
Q

Describe the outcomes of the palatability demonstration which compared meat cuts and hot dogs

A

Compared beef chuck petite tender steak (infraspinatus, tender) muscle with beef bottom round (biceps femoris, tough) and venison ribeye (longissimus, tender) with the venison being most tender (4.9 vs 4.1 and 4.1), most flavorful (4.7 vs 3.6 and 3.4), and most overall palatability (4.8 vs 3.9 and 4.0)

Compared Bar S hot dogs with Oscar Mayer all beef hot dogs with OM as slight winner for tenderness (6.2 vs 6.1), clear winner for flavor (6.0 vs 5.0) and overall palatability (5.8 vs 5.3)

47
Q

What were the three treatment combinations and two storage comparisons used in the palatability demonstration based on ground pork?

A

Treatments: Control (no additives)/Cold set (alginate, calcium carbonate, lactic acid)/Heat set (salt, phosphate)

Storage: Fresh ground pork/Thawed ground pork after 6 months of freezing)

48
Q

List 5 categories of by-products that help return value and contribute to full utilization of harvested livestock and poultry.

A
  1. edible by-products
  2. hides, skins, pelts
  3. tallows, grease
  4. animal feed/ fertilizers
  5. pharmaceuticals, biologicals
49
Q

List 6 nutrition facts commonly found on the nutrition label of packaged meat products

A
  1. Serving size,
  2. servings per container
  3. calories
  4. total fat
  5. cholesterol
  6. sodium
50
Q

List 3 types of inspectors and their primary responsibility.

A
  1. Food inspector: operations of production facilities
  2. Laboratory inspector: chemical and microbial analysis
  3. Veterinary Medical Officer: oversee all facilities with slaughter operations
51
Q

List 5 (of the possible 7) principles of HACCP that are mandatory for the meat and poultry industry.

A
  1. Conduct HA
  2. Identify CCP
  3. Establish CL
  4. Monitor CCP
  5. Establish CA
    (6.) Recordkeeping
    (7.) Verification
52
Q

List 4 factors that influence the freezing rate of meat products.

A
  1. freezing medium
  2. movement of freezing medium
  3. packaging used
  4. composition of tissues
53
Q

List three methods of chemical preservation and an example of a chemical used for each method.

A
  1. Curing (salt, nitrite)
  2. antioxidants (BHA, BHT, some spices)
  3. antimicrobial (nitrite, some spices)
    (4.) atmospheric (CO2, ozone)
54
Q

List 3 examples of physical deterioration associated with meat or poultry products.

A
  1. Dehydration
  2. shrinkage
  3. absorption of off-flavors
    (4.) freezer burn
55
Q

Perception of tenderness is described by several conditions. List 4.

A
  1. Softness to tongue and cheek
  2. resistance to tooth pressure
  3. ease of fragmentation
  4. mealiness
    (5.) adhesion of fibers
    (6.) residue after chewing
56
Q

List two appearance and two structural changes of meat that are affected by heat treatment.

A

Appearance: color and textural changes shown by reduction of space between fibers and melting of fat

Structural: myofibrillar proteins tighten and connective tissue solubilizes

57
Q

What is rendering and how does it contribute to sustainability? Describe briefly

A

Separation of inedible tissues such as fats using techniques like grinding, heating, and dehydration to recover useful materials for industrial purposes. Rendering adds value to inedible portions of the animal and decreases the need for solid waste disposal (landfill) while preserving the environment.

58
Q

Which of the following was introduced to reduce the occurrence and numbers of pathogenic microorganisms, reduce incidences of foodborne illness, and to modernize the meat and poultry inspection system?
a. Meat Inspection Act
b. Processed Product Improvement Act
c. Food Safety Modernization Act
d. Pathogen Reduction and HACCP Final Rule

A

D: Pathogen Reduction and HACCP FInal Rule

59
Q

Which organ was featured in the stew which was prepared for the class?
a. liver
b. kidney
c. brain
d. heart

A

B: kidney

60
Q

Which of the following is not considered a major component of meat tenderness?
a. Connective tissue type and amount
b. Muscle fiber integrity
c. Actomyosin cross-bridge formation
d. Adipose tissue content

A

D: adipose tissue content

61
Q

Frying is an example of which cooking method?
a. moist heat
b. dry heat
c. microwave heat
d. radiant heat

A

B: dry heat

62
Q

Biological value of which protein source is the lowest?
a. soy
b. beef
c. chicken
d. egg

A

A: soy

63
Q

Which specie generally has the highest degree of saturated fatty acids in the subcutaneous fat?
a. pork
b. beef
c. chicken
d. lamb

A

D: lamb

64
Q

The initial Act (law) that provided for inspection of red meat species such as beef and pork antemortem, postmortem, and as products at all stages of processing was…
a. Meat Inspection Act
b. Humane Slaughter Act
c. Wholesome Meat Act
d. Processed Product Improvement Act

A

A: Meat Inspection Act

65
Q

Jurisdiction for the USDA Food Safety and Inspection Service does not include…
a. antemortem inspection of animals for human consumption
b. marking and labeling of meat products
c. products containing less than 3% meat or less than 2% poultry
d. control and restriction of condemned materials

A

C: products containing less than 3% meat or less than 2% poultry

66
Q

The freezing method that results in the smallest ice crystals in meat is…
a. Still air
b. Blast freezing
c. Plate freezing
d. Cryogenic freezing

A

D: Cryogenic freezing

67
Q

Natural casings may be derived from …
a. small intestine
b. large intestine
c. bladder
d. all of the above

A

D: all of the above

68
Q

Freezer burn is an example of deterioration caused by…
a. Lipid oxidation
b. Physical changes
c. Microbial changes
d. Color changes

A

B: physical changes

69
Q

The solidification point for tallow is …
a. Over 40 C
b. under 40 C
c. under 20 C
d. under 0 C

A

A: over 40 C

Principles of Meat Science (1 decks)

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