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HERS 280 > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Cardiorespiratory Fitness (CRF)

A

ability to perform large muscle, dynamic, moderate-to-high intensity exercise for prolonged periods of time

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2
Q

VO2 Max

A

The maximal volume of O2 that can be consumed during a progressive exercise for prolonged periods

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3
Q

what is the gold standard for CRF?

A

VO2 max

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4
Q

Steady-state- HR

A

HR that varies <5 bpm

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5
Q

Why should you asses CRF?

A
  • considered one of the best indicators of collective health
  • individualization of exercise prescription
  • tracking and motivating toward exercise progression
  • clinical purposes
  • Low CRF is an independent risk factors for CV mortality
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6
Q

What are the clinical purposes of assessing CRF?

A
  • aide in making occupational disability determinations
  • prognostic and diagnostic of chronic disease
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7
Q

What are two alternative approaches to assessing CRF when VO2 is not feasible?

A

Field tests
- non-laboratory settings
- can be administered to groups or individuals
Submaximal exercise tests
- tests with effort limited to submaximal exertion
- typically in laboratory setting

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8
Q

Maximal testing advantages and disadvantages:

A

Advantages
- determines lung and heart health
- accurate results
- true baseline
- see your limit
- MEASURED
Disadvantages
- time consuming
- expensive
- exhaustive (safety)

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9
Q

Submaximal testing advantages and disadvantages:

A

Advantages
- takes less time
- not all the way to max
- less expensive
- doesn’t need specific people to run it
Disadvantages
- estimations
- lab setting

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10
Q

What are examples of CRF assessment modes?

A
  • Field (rockport 1 mile walk, cooper 12 minute run, ymca step test, queens college step test)
  • Cycle ergometer (ymca cycle ergometry test)
  • Treadmill (vo2 max)
  • Elliptical (elliptical submaximal test)
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11
Q

What would factor in to deciding how to test CRF?

A
  • reasons for test
  • risk level
  • cost
  • time required
  • personnel required
    -equipment and facilities required
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12
Q

What are some assumptions made for submaximal tests?

A
  • steady-state HR is achieved for each exercise stage
  • a linear relationship exists between HR and VO2 max
  • the difference between actual and predicted maximal HR is minimal
  • everyone is able to maintain the desired cadence/speed
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13
Q

What are some sources of error for submaximal tests?

A
  • prediction of HRmax is by age
  • efficiency of the participant performing the test in ergometer
  • equipment calibration
  • accurate measurements of HR during each stage
  • having a steady-state HR at each stage
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14
Q

What is the standard error range for predicting maximal HR?

A

_+ 10-15 bpm

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15
Q

Predicting maximal HR is fundamental to administering what tests?

A

submaximal tests

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16
Q

General procedures for submaximal testing of CRF:

A
  • obtain resting HR and BP immediately prior to exercise in exercise posture
  • familiarization with equipment
  • 2-3 minute warm up
  • a specific protocol should have 2-3 minute stages with appropriate increments in work rate
  • HR should be monitored atleast 2 times during each stage towards the end (if greater than 110 HRss should be reached before moving on)
  • BP should be monitored in the last minute of each stage and repeated if hypotensive or hypertensive response
  • Rating of perceived exertion (RPE) and additional rating scales should be monitored towards the end
  • appearance and symptoms should be monitored regularly
  • test should be terminated when participant reaches 70% HRR
  • appropriate cool down should be initiated
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17
Q

What are the pretest standardizations for CRF assessents?

A
  • wear comfortable clothes
  • avoid tobacco & caffeine 3hrs prior to the test
  • avoid alcohol 12hrs priori to test
  • have plenty of fluids and avoid strenuous exercise for the previous 24hrs
  • obtain adequate sleep night before test
  • complete informed process
  • complete par-q+ or other health-screening tool
  • explain the RPE scale
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18
Q

What are some of the general indications for stopping and exercise test?

A
  • angina
  • drop in systolic BP of >10mmHg
  • excessive rise is BP (sys. >250 or dia >115)
  • shortness of breath, wheezing, leg cramps, or claudication
  • signs of profusion
  • failure of HR to increase with increased intensity
  • noticeable change in heart rhythm by palpation or auscultation
  • request to stop
  • physical and verbal manifestations of exercise intensity
  • failure of testing equipment
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19
Q

Absolute VO2 measurement:

A

L/min

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20
Q

Relative VO2 measurement:

A

ml/kg/min

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21
Q

What are the principles of ACSM exercise perscriptions?

A
  • should aim to improve on or more components of health and decrease periods of physical inactivity
  • should follow FITTVP
  • should also consider (goals, physical ability, physical fitness, health status, schedule, physical and social environment, available facilties)
  • should be based on ExRx (goals, results, and recommendations)
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22
Q

What are some general considerations for ExRX?

A
  • CVD and musculoskeletal complications can be minimized by…
    - following preparticipation health screening and eval. procedures
    - beginning new programs at light-to-moderate intensity and gradually progressing
    - follow ACSM guidelines
  • behavioral interventions are important to reduce barriers and enhance adherence
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23
Q

What are the components of an exercise training session?

A
  • Each session should have a goal in mind
  • should include three phases (warmup <15 min, conditioning- 10-60min, cool-down)
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23
Q

What is the frequency, intensity, and time of aerobic exercise?

A

3 days/week, moderate (40-59%) or vigorous(60-89%), 30-60 min/day moderate or 20-60min vigorous

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24
Q

Frequency, intensity, and duration are…

A

interdependent

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25
Q

What is the talk test?

A

Use a nursery rhyme to have client say during exercise and if they can do it with little to no difficulty it is an appropriate intensity

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26
Q

What is positive dose-response?

A

health/fitness benefits with increasing intensity

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27
Q

What is the overload principle?

A

exercising below a minimum intensity will not challenge the body sufficiently to result in physiological parameter.

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28
Q

What is interval training?

A

intermittent periods of intense exercise separated by periods of recovery - can elicit similar physiological adaptations with lower total work loads

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29
Q

What is the principle of specificity?

A

physiological adaptations to exercise are specific to the type of exercise performed

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30
Q

What are some things to considered when deciding what type to prescribe for aerobic exercise?

A
  • Principle of specificity
  • skill level
  • muscle groups used
  • activities that place different stresses on the body
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31
Q

Pedometers:

A

7000-8000 steps/ day
>_ than 3000 at brisk pace

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32
Q

How do you progress CRF?

A
  • start low and go slow
  • all progressions should be graudal to decrease injury and lessen soreness
  • initially increase duration by 5-10 minutes every 1-2 weeks for the first 4-6 weeks
  • after 1 month increase frequency, intensity, and time for the next 4-8 weeks
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33
Q

Absolute vs relative VO2:

A

absolute is for non-weight bearing

relative is used for weight bearing

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34
Q

What is body composition?

A

the relative proportions of fat and fat-free tissue in the body

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35
Q

What is fat mass (FM)?

A

All lipids from adipose and other tissues in the body

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36
Q

What is fat free mass (FFM)?

A

all lipid-free tissues including water, muscle, bone, connective tissue, and internal organs

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37
Q

What is percent body fat (%BF)?

A

fast mass expressed as a percentage of total body weight

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38
Q

Why should you asses body comp.?

A
  • identify health risks, or promoting understanding of health risks associated with too much or too little body fat
  • assessing the effectiveness of exercise and/or nutrition interventions
  • estimating ideal body weight to formulate dietary recommendations and exercise prescriptions
  • monitoring growth, development, maturation, and age-related changes in body comp. (especially in kids)
  • Formulating interventions to prevent chronic disease later in life
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39
Q

What is excess body fat associated with?

A
  • hypertension
  • metabolic syndrome
  • type 2 diabetes
  • stroke
  • cardiovascular disease
  • dyslipidemia
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40
Q

What is low body fat associated with?

A
  • malnutrition
  • eating disorders
  • fluid-electrolyte imbalances
  • renal and reproductive disorders
  • osteoporosis and osteopenia
  • muscle wasting
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41
Q

What functional impairments can both obesity and sarcopenia result in?

A

Decreased:
- walking speed
- stability
- postural control
- neurocognitive function
Increased:
- musculoskeletal pain

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42
Q

What is the gold standard test for body composition?

A

there is not one

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43
Q

what are the clinical measures for body composition?

A

Dual-energy x-ray absorptimetry (DEXA or DXA)
- expensive
- requires highly trained personnel
Fitness-related standards
- underwater weighing (UWW)
- determines body density (Db)

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44
Q

What are the anthropometric methods of finding body comp.?

A

Height
weight
circumferences
skinfolds

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45
Q

what are the densitometry methods of finding body comp.?

A

hydrodensitometry (UWW)
air plethysmography (bodpod)

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46
Q

What are the classifications of BMI?

A

Underweight - <18.5
Normal - 18.5-24.9
Overweight - 25.0-29.9
Obesity class I - 30.0-34.9
Obesity class II - 35.0-39.9
Obesity class III - >40.0

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47
Q

What are the pros and cons of BMI?

A

Pros:
- simple
- quick
Cons:
- fails to distinguish between fat, muscle mass, and bone

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48
Q

What is body circumferences a predictor of?

A

The pattern of body weight distribution can be a predictor of health risks of obesity

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49
Q

What is Android obesity?

A

characterized by more fat on the trunk
- increased health risks
-“apple”

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50
Q

What is Gynoid obesity?

A

characterized by more fat in the hip and thigh
- “pear”

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51
Q

Where are the anatomical locations where you measure waist and hip circumference?

A

Waist:
horizontal measure at the narrowest part between the umbilical and the xiphoid process - individual stands, arms at side, feet together, and abdomen relaxed
Hips:
horizontal measure at the maximal circumference of the bottocks - individual stands, feet together

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52
Q

What is the procedure for measuring circumferences?

A
  • all measurements should be take with a flexible yet inelastic tape measure
  • tape should be on skin suface without compressing the subcutaneous adipose tissue
  • extend the gulick spring loaded handle to the same marking each trial
  • rotate through measurement sites to allow skin to regain normal texture
  • take duplicate (2) measures at each sight within 5mm of each other
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53
Q

What are the standardization steps for measuring circumference?

A
  • technician stands on the right side of the client
  • measurement is made on the bare skin
  • measurement is taken at the end of a normal exhalation by the client
  • measuring tape should be parallel to the floor and pulled to lay flat on the skin without compressing the skin
54
Q

What are the risk categories for waist circumference in adults?

A

Very low - <70cm (W) and <80cm (M)
Low - 79-89cm (W) and 80-99 cm(M)
High - 90-110cm (W) and 100-120cm (M)
Very high - >110cm (W) and >120cm (M)

55
Q

Is circumference or BMI better?

A

Circumference because it gives a better indication of fat distribution related to health risks

56
Q

What is the skinfold procedure?

A
  • all measurements are made on the right side of the clients body
  • grasp skin with thumb and index finger (3in apart) and pull fat away from muscle
  • caliper is placed on the skin 1cm away from thumb and finger, perpendicular to the skinfold, half way between crest and base
  • wait 1-2 seconds before reading
  • take 3 measurements at each site and rotate sites making sure readings are with in 1-2mm
57
Q

What are the skinfold sites for males and females?

A

Males:
- abdomen
- chest
- thigh
Females:
- triceps
- suprailiac
- thigh

58
Q

Explain the abdomen skinfold?

A

vertical fold, 2cm to the right of the umbilicus

59
Q

Explain the tricep skinfold?

A

vertical fold, posterior midline of the upper arm, halfway between the acromion and olecranon processes, arm should be held freely at side

60
Q

Explain the chest skinfold?

A

diagonal fold, 1/2 the distance between the anterior axillary line and nipple

61
Q

Explain the supriliac skinfold?

A

diagonal fold, inline with the natural angle of the iliac crest, in line with the anterior axillary line, immediately superior to the iliac crest

62
Q

Explain the thigh skinfold?

A

vertical fold, anterior midline of the thigh, midway between the proximal border of the patella and inguinal crease

63
Q

How do you interpret skinfolds?

A
  1. average the two skinfold trials at each site
  2. sum the three averaged sites
  3. calculate body density
  4. convert Db to percent body fat using appropriate race, age, and ssex equation
  5. determine category
64
Q

Fat vs Lean muscle water comparison:

A

fat has little water and impedes current while lean tissue has lots of water and conducts the current

65
Q

What is the preparation for the BIA test?

A
  • no alcohol consumption 48hrs before the test
  • no products with diuretic properties 24 hrs before test
  • no exercise 12 hours before the test
  • no eating or drinking for 4 hours prior to test
  • void bladder completely within 30 mins of the test
66
Q

What is essential body fat?

A

fat necessary to maintain life and reproductive functions

67
Q

What are the essential percentages of body fat for males and females?

A

Females: 8-12%
Males: 3-5%

68
Q

What is healthy body fat?

A

no universally accepted norms - “good” fat

69
Q

What are the percentages of healthy body fat for males and females?

A

Females: 17-26%
Males: 12-23%

70
Q

What are the guidelines for weight loss?

A

< 150 min/week for minimal weight loss

> 150 min/week for modest weight loss (2-3kg)

> 225-420 min/week for 5-7.5kg weight loss

71
Q

what is dose response?

A

the greater the exposure, the greater the result

72
Q

What is flexibility?

A

the functional capacity of the joints to move through a full range of motion (ROM)

73
Q

What is the importance of flexibility?

A
  • inadequate flexibility decrease the performance of activities of daily living (ADLs)
  • useful baseline measure to allow comparison
  • may help in identifying bilateral strength imbalances
74
Q

What can muscle imbalances cause?

A

overcompensation of the opposite joint/structure which may lead to dysfunction, potential injuries, trauma, and movement pattern complications

75
Q

What factors affect flexibility?

A
  • joint structure (hip v knee joint)
  • muscle or fat mass
  • temperature
  • age
  • sex
  • injury
  • disease (arthritis and osteoporosis)
  • inactivity
76
Q

What are direct measurements of flexibiltiy?

A

goniometers and inclinometers

77
Q

What are indirect measurements of flexibility?

A

sit and reach - hamstring flexibility

78
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of the sit and reach test?

A

Advantages:
- simple
- in expensive
- portable
Disadvantages:
- limb and torso length disparity
- questionable validity
- no longer recommended

79
Q

What is the device used for the Canadian trunk forward flexion test or the sit and reach?

A

flexometer

80
Q

WSU flexometer vs norm charts?

A

WSU starts at 23 and the norm charts start at 26

81
Q

Balance

A

ability to maintain a desired position

82
Q

What is the importance of balance?

A
  • fall prevention
  • reduced risk of ankle sprains in athletes
  • increasingly becoming a component of health-related fitness
83
Q

What is the testing order for the Y-balance test?

A
  • right anterior
  • left anterior
  • right posteromedial
  • left posteromedial
  • right posterolateral
  • left postero lateral
84
Q

What are the testing faults of the Y-balance test?

A
  • maximum of 6 trials in a single direction - 4 failed attempts results in a 0
  • kicking block
  • not returning to starting position under control
  • touching down during reach
  • foot on top of stance plate moves
85
Q

What are the goals of flexibility programs?

A
  • develop ROM in major joints and muscle/tendon groups in accordance with individualized goals
  • minimize deficits experienced with aging
86
Q

What is the prescribed frequency of flexibility?

A

> 2-3 day/week
- daily is most effective

87
Q

What is the prescribed intensity of flexibility?

A

To the point of tightness or slight discomfort

88
Q

What is the prescribed time for flexibility?

A

Static stretching
- 10-30 sec for most adults
- 30-60 may be beneficial for older adults
PNF - proprioceptive neruomuscular facilitation
- 3-6 dec light-to-moderate contraction and then 10-30 seconds of assisted

89
Q

What is static stretching?

A

slowly stretching the muscle and holding the position for a period of time

90
Q

What is active static stretching?

A

holding the stretched position using the strength of the agonist muscle

91
Q

what is passive static stretching?

A

assuming a positon while holding a limb or other part of the body with or without the assitance of a partner or device

92
Q

Stretching more than 60 seconds can…

A

have a deleterious effect on exercise performance

93
Q

Who should you consider static stretching for?

A
  • elderly
  • novice exercisers
  • high risk clients
94
Q

What is the recommendation for prescribed type for flexibility?

A

a series of flexibility exercises for each exercise for each of the major muscle-tendon units

95
Q

What are the types of flexibility exercises?

A

statice (active and passive), dynamic, ballistic, and PNF

96
Q

What is dynamic stretching?

A

gradual transition from one body position to another and a progressive increase in reach and range of motion as the movement is repeated several times

97
Q

How should you do dynamic stretching?

A
  • mimic the intended exercise/activity
  • short sessions (<30 sec) do not adversely affect exercise performance
98
Q

Who should dynamic stretching be used for?

A

athletes and active clients

99
Q

Ballistic stretching

A

using the momentum of the moving body segment to produce the stretch - activates the muscle spindles and stretch reflexes - should be considered for athletes with ballistic sport movements

100
Q

Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation (PNF)

A

involves an isometric contraction followed by a static stretching of the same group (contract-relax) - should be considered for athletes and active clients

101
Q

What should be the prescribed volume for flexibility?

A

repeat stretches 2-4 times to accumulate 90 sec

should take less than 10 minutes

102
Q

When should stretching be done?

A

dynamic should be done at the beginning and static should be done at the end

103
Q

Strategies of promoting exercise within FITT principle?

A
  • Allow individuals to choose there frequency and time
  • For intensity clients with more exercise experience fare better with higher intensity programs (65-75%) and less experienced clients may be better suited to moderate intensity (45-55%)
104
Q

Strategies of promoting exercise within FITT principle - type of equipment?

A

the type of equipment shows no compelling mode that is related to adherence

105
Q

Strategies of promoting exercise within FITT principle - program delivery?

A
  • with some groups there may be greater adherence to at home vs center based workouts
  • interventions delivered entirely or predominately via telephone have been show to be effective with adherence
  • apps and technology also hold promise with adherence
106
Q

What is the social cognitive theory?

A

based principle of reciprocal determinism; that is, the individual, the behavior, and the environment all interact to influence future behavior

107
Q

SCT: What do individuals learn from?

A
  • external reinforcement
  • external punishments
  • observing others
  • cognitive processes
108
Q

What is self efficacy?

A

the confidence in one’s ability to carry out actions necessary to perform certain behaviors

109
Q

What does higher self efficacy result in?

A

greater effort, persistence, and resilience when faced with challenges/barriers

it is also one of the most consistently found correlates of PA in adults and youth

110
Q

What is task self efficacy?

A

an individual belief to actually do the behavior

111
Q

What is barriers self efficacy?

A

whether an individual believes her or she can regularly exercise in the face of common barriers such as lack of time, poor weather, or feeling tired

112
Q

outcomes expectations and expectancies:

A

anticipatory results of a behavior and the value places on these results

if outcomes are valued, then behavior is more likely to happen

113
Q

What is self regulation/control?

A
  • set goals
  • monitor progress toward these goals
  • problem solve when faces with barriers
  • engage in self-reward
114
Q

What is the transtheoretical model (TTM) of behavior change?

A

theory that assumes individuals move through specific stages as they change habits/behaviors

115
Q

what is decisional balance?

A

weighing the pros and cons of changing exercise behavior

116
Q

Pre-contemplation stage of TTM:

A

no intention to be regularly active in the next 6 months

117
Q

Contemplation stage of TTM:

A

intending to be regularly active in the next 6 months

118
Q

Preparation stage of TTM:

A

intending to be regularly active in the next 30 days

119
Q

Action stage of TTM:

A

regularly active for less than 6 months

120
Q

Maintenance stage of TTM:

A

regularly active for more than 6 months

121
Q

What is the theory of planned behavior (TPB)?

A

the intention to perform a behavior is the primary determinant of actual behavior

122
Q

What are the components of TBP?

A

intentions, attitudes, subjective norms, perceived behavior control

123
Q

What is the social ecological model?

A

behavior results from influences at multiple levels
- intrapersonal factors
- interpersonal factors/social environment
- organizational factors
- physical environment
- policy

124
Q

What are strategies to increase PA?

A
  • enhance self-efficacy
  • self-monitoring
  • goal setting
  • implementation intentions
  • reinforcement
  • social support
  • problem solving
  • affect regulation
  • relapse prevention
125
Q

Lapse vs Relapse

A

temporary failure in behavior - a deterioration in someones health after temporary improvement

126
Q

What is client-centered approach?

A
  1. build a genuine and respectful relationship
  2. understand clients perspective
  3. work together to define problems and establish goals
  4. client should be active in decision making
  5. client should do most of the speaking
  6. direct the conversation when appropriate
127
Q

Empathy vs Sympathy

A

empathy you take on the emotions of another individual and sympathy is feeling sorry for another person

128
Q

ACSM

A

american college of sports medicine -programs focus on some of the critical issues in sports medicine and exercise today

129
Q

What is ethics not?

A

feelings, religion, law, culturally accepted norms, science

130
Q

What is the code of ethics?

A

a guide of principles designed to help professionals conduct business honestly and with integrity

131
Q

What are the 9 Ps of digital citizenship?

A
  1. passwords
  2. private information
  3. personal information
  4. photographs
  5. property
  6. permission
  7. protection
  8. professionalism
  9. personal brand
132
Q

What are the four dimensions of personality?

A
  1. extraversion vs introversion
  2. intuition vs sensing
  3. thinking vs feeling
  4. judgement vs perception

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