Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 lipid classes?

A
  1. Fatty Acids
  2. Triacyclglycerols
  3. Phospholipids
  4. Cholesterol
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2
Q

Fatty acids have no _____ present, meaning they are fully reduced

A

oxygens

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3
Q

What are lipids?

A

Fats, they are a group of organic compounds that are insoluble in water but are soluble in organic solvents

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4
Q

Fatty acids are _______ molecules

A

amphipathic

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5
Q

What are saturated fatty acids?

A

Solid hydrocarbon chains with no double bonds or kinks

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6
Q

What are unsaturated fatty acids?

A

Have one or more double bonds that cause kinks in the acid

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7
Q

There are 2 different kinds of fatty acid nomenclature: ?

A
  1. Fatty acid carbon atoms are usually numbered beginning with the carboxyl terminal carbon atom.
    Carbon atoms 2 and 3 are also referred to as α and β, respectively.
  2. Fatty acids can also be numbered from the methyl carbon atom, which is called the omega (ω) carbon.
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8
Q

How is the normal nomenclature structured?

A

E.g. 18:1Δ^9
18 = number of carbons
1 = number of double bonds
9 = double bond location

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9
Q

Fatty acids, a major source of energy, are stored as triacyclglycerols in what kind of tissue?

A

Adipose

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10
Q

Fatty acids are connected to glycerol by an _____ bond

A

ester

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11
Q

“Free” fatty acids are highly ____, attaching them to glycerol makes them less so

A

toxic

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12
Q

What are the 2 sources of triacylglycerol?

A
  1. From the diet
  2. Synthesized in the liver from carbohydrates and proteins if absolutely necessary
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13
Q

____ are the most highly concentrated form of stored biological energy

A

Triacylglycerol

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14
Q

Triacylglycerol is stored in an _____ form

A

anhydrous

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15
Q

Triacylglycerol is too _______ to cross biological membranes

A

hydrophobic

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16
Q

Triacylglycerol is degraded in the small intestine and resynthesized in ?

A

intestinal cells (enterocytes)

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17
Q

____ break down lipids and usually release a fatty acid

A

Lipases

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18
Q

Triacylglycerol broken down by lipases and turned into ?

A

Monoacylglycerol and 2 fatty acids

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19
Q

What is the importance of Chylomicrons?

A

Fat shuttles, they transport triacylglycerol in the circulation to tissues

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20
Q

Fatty acids are stored as triacyclglycerols in _____ ____ in adipose tissue

A

lipid droplets

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21
Q

Adipose tissue has a very ___ capacity for triacylglycerol storage

A

high

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22
Q

In the ____, glycerol from lipolysis in adipose tissue can be used for gluconeogenesis

A

liver

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23
Q

Fatty Acid Oxidation Occurs in the ?

A

Mitochondrial Matrix

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24
Q

To be oxidized, fatty acids need to be:
1. ?
2. ?

A
  1. Activated (bound to CoA)
  2. Transported (carnitine shuttle)
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25
Q

What is the rate-limiting step of fatty acid oxidation?

A

Fatty acid transport into the mitochondria

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26
Q

In an energy surplus the carnitine shuttle is going to have __ activity; but in an energy deficiency the carnitine shuttle is going to have ___ activity

A

low, high

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27
Q

The ____ step of the carnitine shuttle is regulated, and the enzyme of the step is ?

A

1st, Carnitine acyltransferase I

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28
Q

What are the 4 basic steps in the β-Oxidation of saturated fatty acids?

A
  1. Oxidation
  2. Hydration
  3. Oxidation
  4. Cleavage
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29
Q

What is the 1st step in the β-Oxidation of saturated fatty acids?

A

Oxidation via Acyl CoA dehydrogenase. Introduces trans double bond (α-β or C2-C3)

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30
Q

What is an Enoyl CoA?

A

A generic term describing an unsaturated fatty acid bound to CoA

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31
Q

What is the 2nd step in the β-Oxidation of saturated fatty acids?

A

Hydration via Enoyl CoA hydratase

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32
Q

What is the 3rd step in the β-Oxidation of saturated fatty acids?

A

Oxidation via Hydroxyacyl CoA dehydrogenase

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33
Q

What is the 4th step in the β-Oxidation of saturated fatty acids?

A

Thiolysis/cleavage via thiolase. Carbons 1 and 2 of a fatty acid generate each acetyl CoA

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34
Q

In the β-Oxidation of saturated fatty acids, two carbon units are sequentially removed from the ____ end of the fatty acid (carbons bound to CoA)

A

carboxyl

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35
Q

Fatty acid oxidation continues until ?

A

the fatty acid is completely oxidized to acetyl CoA

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36
Q

What is the overall NET production of ATP from the oxidation of palmitate (7 cycles)?

A

106 ATP

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37
Q

What is the importance of Enoyl CoA isomerase?

A
  • Moves double bond from C3-4 to C2-3
  • Changes double bond from cis to trans and now becomes an intermediate of the pathway
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38
Q

? is a unique product of the beta oxidation of odd chain fatty acids

A

Propionyl Co-A

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39
Q

Propionyl Co-A is metabolized by carboxylase to a 4-carbon intermediate that is eventually converted to ?

A

succinyl Co-A

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40
Q

? are an alternative to glucose as a fuel or energy source

A

Ketone bodies

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41
Q

Ketone bodies are formed by ketogenesis in the _____ only

A

liver

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42
Q

Ketone bodies are utilized by extrahepatic tissues (brain) when [?] is low

A

glucose

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43
Q

Determine which of these ketone bodies are used/not used for fuel:
Acetoacetate: ?
β-hydroxybutyrate: ?
Acetone: ?

A

Acetoacetate: for fuel
β-hydroxybutyrate: for fuel
Acetone: not for fuel

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44
Q

Ketone body formation occurs in the mitochondria of the ___ where acetyl CoA is produced

A

liver

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45
Q

Which ketone body does not contribute to acetyl CoA production?

A

Acetone

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46
Q

Fatty acid biosynthesis occurs in the ____, in the ___ primarily and in adipose

A

cytosol, liver

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47
Q

Fatty acids are synthesized by a multienzyme complex: ?

A

Fatty Acid Synthase (FAS)

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48
Q

In fatty acid biosynthesis, the chain length is increased by sequential addition of ___ -carbon units (derived from acetyl CoA)

A

2

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49
Q

Elongation of fatty acids stops with formation of ______ (C-16)

A

palmitate

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50
Q

Further elongation/desaturation of fatty acids past palmitate is catalyzed by ?

A

other enzymes

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51
Q

What is the primary substrate for fatty acid biosynthesis?

A

Acetyl CoA

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52
Q

_____ is also needed for fatty acid biosynthesis

A

NADPH

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53
Q

? catalyzes the 1st and rate limiting step of FA biosynthesis

A

Acetyl CoA Carboxylase

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54
Q

Palmitate is an ____ of acetyl CoA carboxylase, while Citrate is an _____

A

inhibitor, activator

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55
Q

Glucagon and epinephrine ______ acetyl CoA carboxylase, while insulin ______ it

A

inactivates, activates

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56
Q

What is the 2nd step in Fatty Acid Biosynthesis?

A

Loading FAS with substrates. Acetyl-CoA to β-ketoacyl synthase via Acetyl transacylase (AT)

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57
Q

What is the 3rd step in Fatty Acid Biosynthesis?

A

Formation of acetyl ACP and malonyl ACP charges/primes. Malonyl CoA to Malonyl ACP via Malonyl transacylase (MT)

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58
Q

What is the 4th step in Fatty Acid Biosynthesis?

A

1st reaction in formation of FA chain, and is a condensation. Activated acetyl and malonyl groups condense forming acetoacetyl ACP. Catalyzed by β-ketoacyl-ACP Synthase

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59
Q

What is the 5th step in Fatty Acid Biosynthesis?

A

Acetoacetyl-ACP (B-ketobutyryl-ACP) is reduced. Reaction a reduction reaction, and is catalyzed by B-ketoacyl-ACP reductase (KR). Electron donor is NADPH.

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60
Q

What is the 6th step in Fatty Acid Biosynthesis?

A

Dehydration. Water is removed from C2 and C3 of β-hydroxybutyryl-ACP to introduce a double bond. Product is trans-Δ2-butenoyl-ACP.

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61
Q

What is the 7th step in Fatty Acid Biosynthesis?

A

Reduction. Double bond of trans-Δ2-butenoyl ACP is reduced to form butyryl-ACP by Enoyl-ACP Reductase. NADPH is the electron donor. One pass through fatty acid synthase is complete.

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62
Q

What is the 8th step in Fatty Acid Biosynthesis?

A

Translocase. Transfer of butyryl group from ACP to KS. Catalyzed by Acetyl transacylase (AT). The next cycle can then start

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63
Q

What is the 2nd round in Fatty Acid Biosynthesis?

A
  • Malonyl CoA -> Malonyl-ACP is catalyzed by malonyl transacylase (MT)
  • Butyryl group is condensed to malonyl ACP
    Repeat:
    Reduction
    Dehydration
    Reduction
    Translocation
    Product = 6 carbon fatty acid
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64
Q

In total, __ cycles of condensation and reduction are required to produce palmitate.

A

7

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65
Q

What is the overall reaction for the synthesis or palmitate:
__Acetyl CoA + __ATP + __NADPH -> __Palmitate + __CoA + __ADP + __Pi + __NADP+ + __H2O

A

8, 7, 14, 1, 8, 7, 7, 14, 6

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66
Q

Most fatty acids are ____ than palmitate (18-26C), mono- and ________fatty acids

A

longer, polyunsaturated

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67
Q

Elongation occurs in _______ ______, and 2 carbons are added at a time from malonyl CoA

A

endoplasmic reticulum

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68
Q

Humans cannot introduce double bonds past carbon __

A

9

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69
Q

Desaturation is the introduction of ? and is catalyzed by _______ enzymes

A

cis double bonds, desaturase

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70
Q

Location of double bond is ____ for each desaturase

A

specific

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71
Q

Humans lack Δ__ and Δ__ desaturases, and so must obtain _____and _______ through the diet

A

12, 15, linoleate, α-linolenate

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72
Q

We use linoleate and α-linolenate to make other ?

A

long polyunsaturated fatty acids

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73
Q

Low energy (↓ AMP): is where AMPK is _____ and AMPK phosphorylates ____ (inactive)

A

active, ACC

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74
Q

High energy (🠕 ATP): is where is AMPK _____ and ACC is de-phosphorylated (_____)

A

inactive, active

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75
Q

Acetyl CoA carboxylase activity is ____ by citrate and insulin

A

increased

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76
Q

Acetyl CoA carboxylase activity is _____ by epinephrine, and glucagon

A

decreased

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77
Q

Acetyl CoA carboxylase activity is ______ by palmitate?

A

decreased

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78
Q

Malonyl CoA inhibits ? (carnitine shuttle), and so blocks ?

A

carnitine acyltransferase I, beta oxidation

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79
Q

Cholesterol is synthesized mainly by the ___, the remainder is from the ____

A

liver, diet

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80
Q

What are the 2 functions of cholesterol?

A
  • Structural component of membranes
  • Precursor of bile salts, steroid hormones, & vitamin D
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81
Q

Where are the 27 carbons in cholesterol from?

A

Acetyl CoA

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82
Q

Cholesterol is the precursor of 5 steroid hormones: ?

A
  1. Cortisol
  2. Estradiol
  3. Progesterone
  4. Testosterone
  5. Vitamin D
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83
Q

How many reactions are there is the cholesterol biosynthetic pathway?

A

25

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84
Q

What is the rate limiting step in the cholesterol biosynthetic pathway?

A

HMG-CoA reductase

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85
Q

Where does the cholesterol biosynthetic pathway occur?

A

the cytosol

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86
Q

Cholesterol is synthesized in __ stages

A

4

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87
Q

In cholesterol biosynthesis, there is ___ of NADPH required for these reactions and everything in between and most comes from the ___

A

LOTS, PPP

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88
Q

What is stage 1 in cholesterol biosynthesis?

A

Formation of mevalonate. 3 acetyl CoA are used to form it. Here HMG CoA reductase is found, and is the target of statins.

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89
Q

A total of ___ acetyl CoA are used for each molecule of cholesterol formed.

A

18

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90
Q

Excess cholesterol is converted to bile acids which are stored in _____

A

gallbladder

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91
Q

What are the 3 fates of cholesterol?

A
  1. Hepatocyte plasma membrane
  2. Bile Acids
  3. Exported in LDLs
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92
Q

What is an HDL?

A

High-density lipoprotein. Picks up cholesterol from blood and tissues

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93
Q

What is an LDL?

A

Low-density lipoprotein. Transport cholesterol from liver to tissues

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94
Q

Regulation of cholesterol synthesis occurs in __ ways:
1. When cholesterol levels in the cell drop, the transcription of the gene for HMG-CoA reductase is ____; transcription slows when cholesterol levels are ___
2. The rate of translation of HMG-CoA reductase mRNA is inhibited by ____ _____
3. The degradation of HMG-CoA reductase enzyme is _____ by elevated levels of ____ cholesterol

A

3, stimulated, high, mevalonate metabolites, stimulated, cellular

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95
Q

Together the three regulatory processes of cholesterol synthesis can alter the amount of enzyme by over ___-fold!

A

200

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96
Q

↓ [cholesterol]: leads to __ HMG-CoA reductase, LDL receptor and __ synthesis and __ uptake of cholesterol

A

🠕, 🠕, 🠕

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97
Q

🠕 [cholesterol]: leads to __ HMG-CoA reductase, LDL receptor, and __ synthesis and __ uptake

A

↓, ↓, ↓

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98
Q

What is Familial Hypercholesterolemia?

A

High circulating cholesterol levels, caused by a defective LDL receptor, the cholesterol is not cleared from the blood, causing atherosclerotic plaques

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99
Q

In familial hypercholesterolemia, cholesterol levels get so high they form ?

A

xanthomas (deposits) in the skin

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100
Q

Cholesterol provides _____ to membranes

A

fluidity

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101
Q

Fatty acids have 2 fates: 1. and 2.

A
  1. Triacylglycerol as metabolic energy
  2. Phospholipid for membranes
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102
Q

What are the 3 most common phospholipids?

A
  1. Phosphatidylcholine
  2. Phosphatidylethanolamine
  3. Phosphatidylserine
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103
Q

Triacylglycerol and phospholipids are synthesized from a _____ pathway, what is it called?

A

common, Kennedy Pathway

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104
Q

? is the starting substrate of TG and PL synthesis

A

Glycerol 3-phosphate

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105
Q

In the Kennedy pathway, _______ catalyzes the sequential attachment of fatty acids to glycerol backbone (____bond)

A

acyltransferase, ester

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106
Q

What is the most abundant phospholipid?

A

Phosphatidylcholine, at 50%

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107
Q

Why is there a second pathway for the synthesis of phosphatidylcholine?

A

To ensure there is an adequate supply

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108
Q

Where does the methylation pathway of the synthesis of phosphatidylcholine occur?

A

The liver

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109
Q

What kind of charge do all of the relevant phospholipids have?

A

positive charge

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110
Q

The synthesis of phosphatidylethanolamine occurs by _________ of phosphatidylserine

A

decarboxylation

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111
Q

Eicosanoids are derived from ______, which is part of a phospholipid present in a ?

A

arachidonate, cell membrane

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112
Q

Arachidonate releases by ?

A

Phospholipase A2

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113
Q

Eicosanoids are termed ?

A

paracrine hormones

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114
Q

Eicosanoids are not stored and so are ?

A

rapidly degraded

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115
Q

______ send messages to nearby cells/tissues including the cell in
which it was made

A

Eicosanoids

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116
Q

The signal for PLA2 activation _____ calcium in the cell; this leads to
______ of PLA2 to the plasma membrane, and phosphorylation of PLA2
which ____ it.

A

elevates, translocation, activates

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117
Q

Biological actions of eicosanoids are _____ in ____ organs

A

diverse, various

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118
Q

What are some examples of the biological actions of eicosanoids?

A

vasodilation, vasoconstriction, platelet aggregation, inhibition of platelet aggregation, contraction of smooth muscle, chemotaxis of leukocytes, release of lysosomal enzymes

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119
Q

What are some of the excess production symptoms of eicosanoids?

A

pain, inflammation, fever, nausea, vomiting

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120
Q

Where does Aspirin target in the realm of arachidonates?

A

Prostaglandin synthase

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121
Q

What is the Ubiquitin-proteasome pathway?

A

For cellular protein turnover. Ubiquitin molecules are linked to a specific lysine. The protein becomes polyubiquitinated, processed into peptides, and the ubiquitin is eventually cleaved and re-utilized

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122
Q

What is proteolysis?

A

The hydrolytic cleavage if proteins by digestive proteinases; these enzymes are secreted into the stomach and small intestine

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123
Q

Gastric acidic environment _____ proteins
and thus enhances proteolysis

A

denatures

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124
Q

The K+/H+ Pump in the membrane of specialized
stomach cells pumps ____ into the stomach in
exchange for K+ at the expense of _____ ______;
generates acidic environment and releases ____.

A

protons, ATP hydrolysis, heat

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125
Q

In some individuals, the K+/H+ pump is overactive, or the esophageal sphincter is weak, which results in
?

A

gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

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126
Q

What are some medications used to treat GERD?

A

Antacids, histamine H2 receptor blockers, and proton pump inhibitors

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127
Q

All digestive proteolytic enzymes are secreted from either specialized gastric cells (pepsinogen) or from the
pancreas (others) as ?

A

inactive zymogens

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128
Q

All zymogens are themselves activated by ?

A

proteolysis

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129
Q

Why are proteinases are synthesized and stored as
zymogens?

A

So that they don’t break down proteins in the cells
where they are made/stored and don’t digest themselves prior to secretion

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130
Q

_____ preferentially cleaves peptide bonds between hydrophobic amino acids or aromatic amino acids.

A

Pepsin

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131
Q

______ cleaves peptide bonds following an Arg or Lys
residue

A

Trypsin

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132
Q

______ preferentially cleaves peptide bonds after an aromatic amino acid.

A

Chymotrypsin

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133
Q

______ broader specificity; cuts after amino acids with smaller, hydrophobic side chains such as Gly, Ala,Val

A

Elastase

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134
Q

What are endopeptidases?

A

When proteolytic enzymes cleave internal peptide bonds in a substrate

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135
Q

Proteases eventually self-_____

A

inactivate

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136
Q

The Amino Acids on either side of a peptide bond form a
____ substrate and generally require _____ enzymes

A

unique, different

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137
Q

Bond between arginine and glycine is cleaved by
_____

A

trypsin

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138
Q

Bond between tyrosine and serine is cleaved by
________

A

chymotrypsin

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139
Q

In regards to the specificities of digestive proteolytic enzymes, two groups target either the amino or
carboxy terminal residue of a peptide, these are called _________ or _______ respectively

A

aminopeptidases, carboxypeptidases

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140
Q

What are the 3 fates of the amino group of amino acids?

A

Transamination (cytosol)
Oxidative deamination (mitochondria)
Urea Cycle (split between the cytosol and mitochondria)

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141
Q

In the Transamination Reaction, there is a transfer of amino group to an α-ketoglutarate. What are the donors/acceptor?

A

Donors: L-amino acids
Acceptor: α-ketoglutarate

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142
Q

In the Transamination Reaction, the amino groups get funneled to ?

A

Glutamate

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143
Q

The Transamination reaction is an obligatory step in the degradation of ?

A

amino acids (except for Lys and Thr)

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144
Q

True or False: the transamination reaction is reversible?

A

True, Keq is ~1

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145
Q

What are the enzymes in the transamination reaction?

A

Enzymes: aminotransferases
Coenzyme: PLP

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146
Q

What are the 2 most important aminotransferases?

A

Aspartate aminotransferase
Alanine aminotransferase

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147
Q

Where is aspartate aminotransferase found?

A

In the liver mitochondrion

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148
Q

Where is alanine aminotransferase found?

A

Muscle cytosol

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149
Q

_____ phosphate (an aldehyde) is an a-amino group acceptor; _______ phosphate is an a-keto (ketone) group acceptor

A

Pyridoxal, pyridoxamine

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150
Q

In ______ phosphate, the amino group of incoming α-amino acid forms covalent linkage with aldehyde group, and the α-keto acid leaves

A

pyridoxal

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151
Q

In _______ phosphate, the ketone group of incoming α-keto acid (typically α-ketoglutarate) forms covalent linkage with amino group. Amino group then
displaced again by active site lysine amino group. Glutamate leaves.

A

pyridoxamine

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152
Q

The incoming amino acid amino group displaces the
lysine amino group, in a fully _____ reaction, and
forms an identical _____ of PLP

A

reversible, aldimine

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153
Q

What is aldimine?

A

A chemical term that defines an imine (C=N group) derived from an aldehyde

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154
Q

An aldimine is also called a ?

A

Schiff base

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155
Q

What is the ping-pong nature of the aminotransferase reaction?

A

In which when the first substrate (amino acid) is bound to the enzyme (via PLP) and reacts (pyridoxamine phosphate), the second substrate (α-ketoglutarate) cannot bind to form second product (L-glutamate) till the first product (α-keto acid) leaves

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156
Q

What is the α-keto acid pair to alanine?

A

pyruvate

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157
Q

What is the α-keto acid pair to aspartate?

A

Oxaloacetate

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158
Q

What is the α-keto acid pair to glutamate?

A

α-ketoglutarate

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159
Q

What is an α-keto acid?

A

Means there is a ketone group adjacent to a carboxylate group

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160
Q

Aminotransferases are important markers for ?

A

liver or heart damage

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161
Q

High serum levels of _____ aminotransferase (also called Glutamate Pyruvate Transaminase or GPT) indicative of damage. Same goes for _____ aminotransferase (also called Glutamate Oxaloacetate Transaminase or GOT).

A

alanine, aspartate

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162
Q

Fate of Glutamate in Liver is to be transported to the mitochondria and undergoes oxidative deamination to release ?

A

ammonia

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163
Q

Oxidative deamination of glutamate is done via which enzyme?

A

Glutamate dehydrogenase

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164
Q

Oxidative deamination removes the amino group from glu as ? and is a reversible reaction

A

NH4

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165
Q

What is the coenzyme in oxidative deanimation?

A

NAD+ or NADP+

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166
Q

High concentrations of NH4+ are ?

A

toxic

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167
Q

NH4+ is converted to urea in the ?

A

liver mitochondria

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168
Q

Excess ammonia in non-liver tissues is transported as _____ to the liver

A

glutamine

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169
Q

What is the nontoxic transport form of NH4+?

A

Glutamine

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170
Q

In the liver, NH4+ is released from glutamine by cleavage by which enzyme?

A

Mitochondrial glutaminase

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171
Q

Alanine transports excess ammonia from muscle tissue to ?

A

liver

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172
Q

In muscle, glutamate is formed from ?.

A

transaminations

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173
Q

The glutamate amino group is ultimately transaminated to pyruvate, forming _____. Once in liver, alanine is transaminated to form ______.

A

alanine, glutamate

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174
Q

Alanine carries ______ from muscle to liver

A

Nitrogen

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175
Q

NH4+ is converted to urea in the ?

A

liver

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176
Q

Where does the urea cycle occur?

A

The liver

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177
Q

What are the 3 precursors of urea?

A

NH4+, CO2, and Aspartate

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178
Q

Historically, urine was a valuable diagnostic tool for defects in ?

A

nitrogen metabolism

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179
Q

In the urea cycle, there are __ cytosolic enzymes that exist as a multiprotein complex

A

3

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180
Q

______ and _____ must be transported in and out of the mitochondria respectively during the cycle

A

Ornithine, citrulline

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181
Q

? is a major regulation point but is actually not part of the urea cycle

A

Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase I (CPS I)

182
Q

The formation of carbamoyl phosphate occurs in the ?

A

mitochondrial matrix

183
Q

What is the enzyme used in the formation of carbamoyl phosphate?

A

CPS I

184
Q

How is CPS I regulated?

A

allosterically

185
Q

What is the first key regulatory step in urea cycle?

A

The formation of carbamoyl phosphate

186
Q

How many ATP molecules are consumed in the formation of carbamoyl phosphate?

A

2

187
Q

The formation of N-acetylglutamate is done via which enzyme?

A

N-acetylglutamate synthase

188
Q

What is happening during the formation of N-acetylglutamate?

A

Amide bond formation between α-amino group of glutamate and activate carbonyl carbon of acetate

189
Q

The formation of N-acetylglutamate is _______ regulated and only occurs in the presence of _____ amino acids in the liver

A

allosterically, excess

190
Q

The product N-Acetylglutamate is a required allosteric activator of ?

A

CPS I

191
Q

Citrullene is formed in the ?

A

Mitochondrion

192
Q

Ornithine is the first cousin of ____, as it has one ____ CH2 group

A

lysine, fewer

193
Q

What is going on in the formation of citrulline?

A

An amide bond is formed between ornithine and carbamoyl phosphate

194
Q

What is the important aspect of citrulline?

A

It can be transported to the cytosol

195
Q

Citrulline is formed via which enzyme?

A

Ornithine transcarbamoylase

196
Q

Argininosuccinate is formed from citrulline and aspartate via which enzyme?

A

Argininosuccinate synthetase

197
Q

Argininosuccinate formation occurs in the ?

A

cytosol

198
Q

In the formation of argininosuccinate, what intermediate is formed?

A

L-citrulline adenylate

199
Q

The role of aspartate in the formation of argininosuccinate is to ?

A

ultimately donate the 2nd NH3 group to urea

200
Q

the formation of arginine and fumarate by argininosuccinate is done via which enzyme?

A

Cytosolic argininosuccinase or argininosuccinate lyase

201
Q

In the formation of arginine, the other product fumarate can be converted to ?

A

malate

202
Q

The malate formed by the fumarate (made via the formation of arginine) then goes back to the mitochondrion to feed into which cycle?

A

TCA

203
Q

The malate formed by the fumarate (made via the formation of arginine) can also be converted to ______ and/or ______

A

oxaloacetate, aspartate

204
Q

Which cycle supplies most of the arginine requirements for adults?

A

Urea

205
Q

The hydrolysis of arginine is via which enzyme?

A

Cytosolic arginase

206
Q

In the hydrolysis of arginine, ____ is finally formed and ____ is regenerated

A

urea, ornithine

207
Q

What is the overall stoichiometry of the urea cycle:
__CO2 + __NH4+ + __ATP + __Aspartate + __H2O -> __Urea + __ADP + __Pi + __AMP + __PPi + __Fumarate

A

1, 1, 3, 1, 2, 1, 2, 2, 1, 1, 1

208
Q

A single urea cycle enzyme deficiency will result in _______, or elevated NH4+ in the blood, and is incredibly toxic to the ____ system

A

hyperammonemia, nervous

209
Q

Citrullinema is a result of what deficiency?

A

Argininosuccinate lyase deficiency

210
Q

Patients with liver cirrhosis cannot process ?

A

ammonia to urea

211
Q

Urea cycle requires an ____ of amino acids in the liver, is typically very active in ___ protein diets, very active during _____, and the leftover carbon skeletons are shunted to the ? or to ?

A

excess, high, starvation, TCA cycle, gluconeogenesis

212
Q

Why is the urea cycle active during starvation?

A

The human body can’t utilize carbohydrates as an energy source, so proteins present in the muscles are broken down and hence use amino acids as energy sources. Since there is an enhancement in the amino acid degradation, more urea is produced

213
Q

What is argininemia?

A

Defective arginase in urea synthesis, and causes mental retardation

214
Q

What is argininosuccinicacidemia?

A

Defective argininosuccinase in urea synthesis, and causes vomiting and convulsions

215
Q

What is carbamoyl phosphate synthetase 1 deficiency?

A

Defective carbamoyl phosphate synthetase 1 in urea synthesis, and causes lethargy, convulsions, and early death

216
Q

What is maple syrup urine disease (branched chain ketoaciduria)?

A

Defective branched-chain α-keto acid dehydrogenase complex in isoleucine, leucine, and valine degradation, and it causes vomiting, convulsions, mental retardation, and early death

217
Q

What is phenylketonuria?

A

Defective phenylalanine hydroxylase in the conversion of phenylalanine to tyrosine, leads to a phelylalanine buildup in the blood, and causes neonatal vomiting and mental retardation

218
Q

What are the 2 main treatment options for deficiencies in urea cycle enzymes?

A

Supplemented diet with benzoate and phenylbutyrate

219
Q

How do treatments like benzoate and phenylbutyrate work?

A

Form enzyme-catalyzed amide linkages with glycine or glutamine α-amino groups. The resultant products, benzoylglycine and phenylacetylglutamine are then excreted in urine. This can help deplete the liver nitrogen pool, eventually lowering the ammonia levels in blood

220
Q

In the liver, free ammonium is produced from
breakdown of Serine and Threonine by ? and ?

A

serine dehydratase, threonine dehydratase

221
Q

In the liver, the breakdown of Serine gives ____ and ___ and Threonine gives ______ and ____

A

pyruvate, NH4+, α-ketobutyrate, NH4+

222
Q

In the kidney, ammonia is generated by the metabolism of glutamine by enzymes ? and ?, and is secreted in urine as ?

A

glutamate dehydrogenase, glutaminase, free ammonium

223
Q

Other sources of ammonia includes amines from the ___, monoamines that serve as ______/__________, and from the catabolism of _____ and _______

A

diet, hormones, neurotransmitters, purines, pyrimidines

224
Q

The carbon skeletons of all 20 amino acids are broken
down and fed into only seven central metabolites: ?

A

Pyruvate, oxaloacetate, α-ketoglutarate, succinyl CoA, fumarate, acetyl CoA, acetoacetyl CoA

225
Q

Which of the seven central metabolites are glucogenic, which are ketogenic?

A

Glucogenic: pyruvate, oxaloacetate, α-ketoglutarate, succinyl CoA, fumarate
Ketogenic: acetyl CoA, acetoacetyl CoA

226
Q

There are only two amino acids that are purely ketogenic: ?

A

Leucine and lysine

227
Q

What is the difference between glucogenic and ketogenic?

A

Glucogenic amino acids can be converted into glucose, which can then be used to produce energy. Ketogenic amino acids can be converted into ketone bodies.

228
Q

______ breakdown generates products that are ketogenic and glucogenic: ______ is ketogenic, _____ is glucogenic via gluconeogenesis.

A

Phenylalanine, acetoacetate, fumarate

229
Q

The liver lacks the branched chain _______, so breakdown occurs in _____, ____, and _____ tissue.

A

aminotransferase, kidney, brain, adipose

230
Q

_______, ______, ______, and _____ are all converted to glutamate, and then broken down to α-ketoglutarate

A

Glutamine, proline, arginine, histidine

231
Q

α-ketoglutarate and pyruvate are the most common ways of breaking down your ?

A

carbon skeletons

232
Q

It is estimated that about __% or 10^11 (100 Billion) kg comes from ?

A

60, nitrogen-fixing microorganisms

233
Q

Nitrogenase itself is very sensitive to inactivation by ?

A

O2

234
Q

Both the reductase and nitrogenase are ? proteins

A

iron-sulfur cluster (Fe-S)

235
Q

The ____ Cofactor is only found in nitrogenase

A

MoFe

236
Q

Humans have __ Mo-requiring enzymes and all require the pterin Mo Cofactor

A

4

237
Q

? is a primary control point of nitrogen metabolism

A

Glutamine synthetase

238
Q

Glutamine Synthetase is present in ____ organisms.

A

all

239
Q

Glutamine is _____ source of amino groups in many Biosynthetic Reactions

A

primary

240
Q

Glutamine synthetase is an allosteric _____ (12 identical subunits)

A

dodecamer

241
Q

Glutamine Synthetase activity is controlled by 8 _____ regulators

A

allosteric

242
Q

Combined effect of allosteric effectors in glutamine synthetase is more than ____.

A

additive

243
Q

Covalent modification of Glutamine synthetase by _____ makes the enzyme more responsive to allosteric inhibitors.

A

adenylation

244
Q

Adenylylation of Glutamine Synthetase occurs on a ____ residue

A

tyrosine

245
Q

Adenylation of Glutamine Synthetase leads to its _____, and is the ?.

A

inactivation, regulatory step

246
Q

Glutamine is the major source of the donor amino group in the formation of ?

A

amides

247
Q

All amino acids are built from intermediates of which 3 pathways?

A

Glycolysis, TCA cycle, PPP

248
Q

What are the nonessential amino acids for humans?

A

Alanine, asparagine, aspartate, glutamate, serine

249
Q

What are the two conditionally essential amino acids for humans?

A

Arginine, glutamine, and tyrosine

250
Q

Why are arginine, glutamine, and tyrosine considered conditionally essential amino acids?

A

Specific populations who do not synthesize it in adequate amounts, such as new born infants and people with diseased livers who are unable to synthesize cysteine, must obtain one or more of these from their diet

251
Q

In tetrahydrofolate, the two ____ atoms are the sites where the 1 carbon units get attached

A

nitrogen

252
Q

Can we synthesize tetrahydrofolate?

A

No

253
Q

What are the terms synonymous with the 1-C unit “methyl”?

A

N^5, or -CH3

254
Q

What are the terms synonymous with the 1-C unit “methylene”?

A

N^5N^10, or -CH2-

255
Q

What are the terms synonymous with the 1-C unit “formyl”?

A

N^10, or -CHO

256
Q

What are the terms synonymous with the 1-C unit “methenyl”?

A

N^5N^10, or -CH=

257
Q

N^5-formimino-tetrahydrofolate is involved in ______ metabolism

A

histidine

258
Q

The conversion of tetrahydrofolate to N^5,N^10-methylene-tetrahydrofolate requires the conversion of serine to ?

A

glycine

259
Q

Methionine synthesis entails the conversion of homocysteine to methionine via what enzyme?

A

methionine synthase

260
Q

Methionine synthesis also involves the conversion of N^5 methyltetrahydrofolate to ?

A

Tetrahydrofolate coenzyme B12

261
Q

When you convert serine to glycine, you liberate a group that ends up on ?

A

tetrahydrofolate

262
Q

S-Adenosylmethionine (SAM) is a ____ donor in many biosynthetic reactions

A

methyl

263
Q

When S-Adenosylmethionine is used as a methyl donor, the product is ?

A

S-Adenosylhomocysteine

264
Q

Hydrolysis of S-Adenoyslhomocysteine yields ______ and ______. Homocysteine has __ more CH2 group than cysteine

A

adenosine, homocysteine, 1

265
Q

? supplies the CH3- group for methionine biosynthesis

A

N^5-methyltetrahydrofolate

266
Q

Where the adenosine is linked to methionine?

A

The sulfur atom

267
Q

Methyl group usually transfers to a _____ or
_____ atom

A

nitrogen, oxygen

268
Q

Valine ____ threonine deaminase, while isoleucine ____ threonine deaminase.

A

activates, deactivates

269
Q

What is the amino acid precursor of sphingosine?

A

Serine

270
Q

What is the amino acid precursor of histamine?

A

histidine

271
Q

What is the amino acid precursor of thyroxine?

A

Tyrosine

272
Q

What is the amino acid precursor of epinephrine?

A

Tyrosine

273
Q

What is the amino acid precursor of serotonin?

A

Tryptophan

274
Q

What is the amino acid precursor of nicotinamide unit of NAD+?

A

Tryptophan

275
Q

What is the amino acid precursor of 5,6-Dihydroxyindole?

A

Tryptophan

276
Q

What is the amino acid precursor of L-Dopamine?

A

Tyrosine

277
Q

What is the amino acid precursor of Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)?

A

Glutamate

278
Q

What is the amino acid precursor of heme?

A

Glycine

279
Q

While only 5% of nucleosides absorbed are reutilized for nucleic acid synthesis, 25% of these are used by the rapidly regenerating _____ (specialized intestinal cells).

A

enterocytes

280
Q

In the intestinal lumen, the conversion of nucleic acids to nucleotides uses which enzyme?

A

Nuclease enzymes, phosphodiesterases

281
Q

In the intestinal lumen, the conversion of nucleotides to nucleosides uses which enzyme?

A

Alkaline phosphatase enzymes

282
Q

In the intestinal lumen, the conversion of nucleosides to purines and pyrimidines uses which enzyme?

A

Nucleosidase enzymes

283
Q

For the base Adenine, what is the corresponding:
1. Ribonucleoside
2. Ribonucleotide
3. Deoxyribonucleoside
4. Deoxyribonucleotide

A
  1. Adenosine
  2. Adenylate (AMP)
  3. Deoxyadenosine
  4. Deoxyadenylate (dAMP)
284
Q

For the base Guanine, what is the corresponding:
1. Ribonucleoside
2. Ribonucleotide
3. Deoxyribonucleoside
4. Deoxyribonucleotide

A
  1. Guanosine
  2. Guanylate (GMP)
  3. Deoxyguanosine
  4. Deoxyguanylate
285
Q

For the base Uracil/Thymine, what is the corresponding:
1. Ribonucleoside
2. Ribonucleotide
3. Deoxyribonucleoside
4. Deoxyribonucleotide

A
  1. Uridine
  2. Uridylate (UMP)
  3. Thymidine
  4. Thymidylate (TMP)
286
Q

For the base Cytosine, what is the corresponding:
1. Ribonucleoside
2. Ribonucleotide
3. Deoxyribonucleoside
4. Deoxyribonucleotide

A
  1. Cytidine
  2. Cytidylate (CMP)
  3. Deoxycytidine
  4. Deoxycytidylate (dCMP)
287
Q

What are the 7 uses of nucleotides?

A
  1. Precursors of DNA and RNA
  2. ATP
  3. Adenine nucleotides are the components of 3 major coenzymes (NAD, FAD, Coenzyme A)
  4. Activated intermediates
  5. Metabolic and physiologic regulators
  6. GTP is used in signal transduction pathways
  7. CTP is used in the biosynthesis of glycerophospholipids
288
Q

What is the De Novo pathway?

A

Activated ribose (PRPP) + amino acids + ATP + CO2 -> Nucleotide

289
Q

What is the Salvage pathway?

A

Activated ribose (PRPP) + base -> Nucleotide

290
Q

In the De Novo pyrimidine biosynthesis (UTP, CTP), pyrimidines are built from ?

A

Carbamoyl phosphate, aspartate, and PRPP

291
Q

In the De Novo pathway of pyrimidine nucleotide (UMP and CMP) biosynthesis, what are the precursors?

A

Ribose-5-phosphate, CO2, Gln, Asp

292
Q

What are the steps in the De Novo pathway of pyrimidine nucleotide (UMP and CMP) biosynthesis?

A
  1. Synthesize carbamoyl phosphate
  2. Build the pyrimidine ring (orotate) from aspartate
  3. Link orotate to ribose-5-phosphate
293
Q

What is the rate limiting step in pyrimidine synthesis and its corresponding enzyme?

A

Synthesis of carbamoyl phosphate, the enzyme is Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase II (CPS II)

294
Q

Compare the metabolic process of CPS I to CPS II?

A

CPS I: urea synthesis
CPS II: pyrimidine synthesis

295
Q

Compare the location of CPS I to CPS II?

A

CPS I: mitochondrial matrix
CPS II: cytosol

296
Q

Compare the N donor of CPS I to CPS II?

A

CPS I: NH4+
CPS II: glutamine

297
Q

Compare the regulator effectors of CPS I to CPS II?

A

CPS I: + = N-acetylGlu, arginine
CPS II: - = CTP, + = ATP, PRPP

298
Q

Aspartate transcarbamoylase (ATCase) is an _______ regulated control point

A

allosterically

299
Q

What is an inhibitor of ATCase? What is an activator of ATCase?

A

CTP, ATP

300
Q

What yields orotate?

A

Ring closure and oxidation

301
Q

The formation of PRPP from Ribose 5-phosphate uses what enzyme? This enzyme is highly regulated, but by ____ end products (not ______).

A

PRPP synthetase, purine, pyrimidines

302
Q

Orotidylate decarboxylase catalyses formation of ? from orotidylate

A

uridylate

303
Q

Both Orotate phosphoribosyl transferase and Orotidylate decarboxylase activities are found on a _____ polypeptide chain. The bifunctional enzyme is called ?

A

single, uridine monophosphate synthetase

304
Q

Formation of CTP from UTP requires ______, ___ and the enzyme ?

A

glutamine, ATP, cytidylate synthetase

305
Q

Pyrimidine Nucleotide Biosynthesis:
The pyrimidine ring is first synthesized to form ______. Then N1 of Orotate is covalently linked to C1 of the _____ using PRPP as the _____. ________ is the leaving group. Orotidylate is then enzymatically decarboxylated to form ____. ___ is then formed from UMP (__ ATP molecules are used up). Then ___ is formed by the addition of NH3 to UTP (from Glutamine).

A

orotidylate, ribose, precursor, pyrophosphate, UMP, UTP, 2, CTP

306
Q

Ribonucleotide Reductase (RNR) makes deoxy NDP’s from ____

A

NDP’s

307
Q

Note that dUDP and dUTP are dephosphorylated to ____, then converted to ___

A

dUMP, dTMP

308
Q

Order these statements for the conversion of dUMP to dTMP:
1. N5,N10 methylene THF is then regenerated by the action of serine hydroxymethyl transferase.
2. THF is regenerated by reduction of dihydrofolate by dihydrofolate reductase using NADPH
3. Methylation of dUMP by 1-C (CH2) transfer (N5,N10 methylene THF)

A

3, 2, 1

309
Q

How do chemotherapeutic agents work?

A

Inhibition of biosynthesis of DNA is the basis for some chemotherapies

310
Q

Where is the impact caused by fluorouracil in THF synthesis?

A

Thymidylate synthase, in the conversion of dUMP to TMP

311
Q

Where is the impact caused by trimethoprim in THF synthesis?

A

Dihydrofolate reductase, in the conversion of dihydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate

312
Q

Fluorouracil is what kind of inhibitor?

A

Suicide

313
Q

Methotrexate and Aminopterin are effective competitive inhibitors of _______

A

DHFR - dihydrofolate reductase

314
Q

_______ has a 1000x fold greater affinity for DHFR than does dihydrofolate and is a competitive inhibitor

A

methotrexate

315
Q

Methotrexate, aminopterin, and trimethoprim are also used to treat some _____ disorders such as rheumatoid arthritis and eczema

A

autoimmune

316
Q

________ binds and inhibits both bacterial and protozoan DHFR enzymes very effectively (10^5 more so than Human DHFR).

A

Trimethoprim

317
Q

_______ is often used in combination with other drugs to combat bacterial or protozoan infections.

A

Trimethoprim

318
Q

______ is used to treat herpes simplex infections (various herpes viruses), and herpes zoster infections (chicken pox, shingles).

A

Acyclovir

319
Q

Acyclovir is considered what kind of medication?

A

Antiviral

320
Q

The following paragraph describes the Mechanism of action of what kind of medication?
Herpes viruses have a thymidine kinase which has a broad substrate specificity. Herpes TK, but not the human enzyme, will phosphorylate acyclovir. Acyclovir phosphate is a dGTP analog for the viral DNA polymerase. No 3’-OH group, hence after incorporation, termination of viral DNA synthesis.

A

Antiviral acyclovir

321
Q

? : is a reverse transcriptase inhibitor which is a nucleoside analog. One component of an HIV cocktail.

A

Zidovudine and/or Azidothymidine

322
Q

Zidovudine and/or Azidothymidine is considered what kind of medication?

A

Antiviral

323
Q

The following paragraph describes the Mechanism of action of what kind of medication?
Cellular enzymes first convert azidothymidine to the 5’ triphosphate. Acts as a thymidine analog; gets incorporated into the DNA. Links to normal nucleotide 3-OH via its 5’ triphophate. The azido group on C3 the prevents further phosphodiester bond formation and DNA elongation.

A

Zidovudine and/or Azidothymidine

324
Q

In the interconversion of nucleoside monophosphate kinase, its always the _______ that gets phosphorylated to the diphosphate, and its specific for the _____ not the sugar

A

monophosphate, base

325
Q

What are the Three types of pathways in the Biosynthesis of Purine Nucleotides?

A

(1) De novo pathway (starting from the beginning)
(2) Salvage pathway (recycling bases)
(3) Very little is used from dietary sources

326
Q

What are the 6 precursors for the de novo pathway is the Biosynthesis of Purine Nucleotides?

A
  1. Ribose-5-P
  2. Aspartate
  3. CO2
  4. Glycine
  5. Glutamine
  6. Formate
327
Q

What is the main strategy in the biosynthesis of purine nucleotides?

A

Build the purine ring onto the ribose-5-P one atom or few atoms at a time

328
Q

Formation of Inosinate then leads to formation of
______ and ______.

A

Adenylate, Guanylate

329
Q

The first step in Purine Synthesis adds ______ to ? It is also highly _____

A

ammonia, C1 of ribose-5-P, regulated

330
Q

What is the reaction of the first step in purine synthesis?

A

5-phosphoribosyl-1-pyrophosphate (PRPP) is converted to 5-phospho-β-D-ribosylamine, via glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase and the conversion of glutamine to glutamate and PPi

331
Q

The product of the first step in purine synthesis is _____ and soon decomposes, so it has to be quickly utilized in the next step of the pathway. This reaction is regulated by ______ ______. Note, ______ is the origin of the amino group.

A

unstable, feedback inhibition, glutamine

332
Q

There is ______ regulation of GMP and AMP synthesis: GTP is required for IMP → AMP, and ATP is required for IMP → GMP

A

Reciprocal,

333
Q

Purine degradation results in ?

A

Uric Acid (Urate)

334
Q

What is the purine degradation reaction resulting in uric acid?

A

Xanthine is converted to uric acid, and then urate via the enzyme xanthine oxidase

335
Q

_____ is only moderately soluble, tends to crystallize if in excess, but it is a very good antioxidant.

A

Urate

336
Q

_____ is characterized by high blood levels of uric acid or urate due to overproduction or underexcretion of uric acid

A

Gout

337
Q

Uric acid crystals deposit in joints causes ?

A

pain and inflammation, essentially arthritis

338
Q

What is the treatment for gout?

A

Drugs. e.g. allopurinol

339
Q

Allopurinol reacts with xanthine oxidase to produce ______, which is an inhibitor of xanthine oxidase

A

Oxypurinol

340
Q

Most purines from diet are converted to ? which is (hopefully) excreted

A

uric acid

341
Q

What are the two main enzymes used in the salvage pathways for purine nucleotide biosynthesis?

A

Adenine phosphoribosyltransferase (APRT), this is the minor enzyme of the two
Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT)

342
Q

What is Lesch Nyhan Syndrome?

A

Deficiency in HGPRT activity due to mutations in the gene

343
Q

Lesch Nyhan Syndrome is an X-linked disease, thus primarily affects ____

A

males

344
Q

? comes with severe intellectual deficits, motor dysfunction, self-mutilation, and very aggressive behavior. The combination of increased synthesis and decreased utilization of purines leads to high levels of uric acid production

A

Lesch Nyhan Syndrome

345
Q

What is the most dangerous aspect of Lesch Nyhan Syndrome?

A

It does not respond to allopurinol treatment

346
Q

What is a major aspect of the intricate regulation and integration of metabolic pathway?

A

Allows metabolic pathways to respond rapidly to the needs of the cell/organism

347
Q

What are the 5 most common mechanisms of regulation in metabolic pathways?

A
  1. Allosteric modulators
  2. Covalent modification
  3. Proteolysis
  4. Induction or repression of enzyme synthesis
  5. Compartmentalization
348
Q

Hormones are signals from outside the cell that allow communication between ____ and ____ as well as integrate and coordinate the metabolic activities of ______ _____

A

cells, tissues, different tissues

349
Q

The human body uses and regenerates approximately its own body weight in ATP per day, which corresponds to about __-__kg of ATP/day

A

50-75

350
Q

What are the 3 sources of carbohydrates, fat, and proteins?

A
  1. Diet
  2. Circulating Fluid (blood)
  3. Stored fuel
351
Q

There are 6 sources of carbohydrates, fat, and proteins from circulating fluid (blood):
1. Glucose from diet and ______
2. Lactate from _____ metabolism
3. Glycerol and fatty acids from ? in adipose tissue
4. Ketone bodies synthesized in the ____
5. Triacylglycerol transported as ?
- ____ contains triacylglycerol from dietary fatty acids
- ____ contains triacylglycerol produced in the liver
6. Amino Acids from ___ or ______ of body proteins

A
  1. gluconeogenesis
  2. anaerobic
  3. lipolysis of triacylglycerol
  4. liver
  5. plasma lipoprotein, chylomicron, VLDL
  6. diet, proteolysis
352
Q

Stored fuel comes in 3 different forms: ?

A
  1. Glycogen
  2. Triacylglycerol
  3. Proteins
353
Q

How much liver glycogen in grams compared to muscle glycogen?

A

Liver: ~100g
Muscle: ~500g

354
Q

How much triacylglycerol in the body in grams?

A

~15000

355
Q

Triacylglycerol is the ____ of stored energy in the body, and can be stored in virtually ______ amounts

A

bulk, unlimited

356
Q

How much protein in the body in grams?

A

~6000

357
Q

Stored fuel in protein form has no storage form independent of ______

A

function

358
Q

_________ are the most highly concentrated form of stored biological energy

A

Triacyclglycerols

359
Q

Tissues and organs have specialized functions and, therefore, they have different ____ _______ and ?

A

fuel requirements, patterns of metabolism

360
Q

Type of fuel utilized by these tissues vary with the ______ and _______ states of the individual, and level of _____

A

nutritional, hormonal, activity

361
Q

Brain and RBC only use ____ as energy source

A

glucose

362
Q

The brain, given its small size, utilizes a big proportion and overconsumption of _____

A

glucose

363
Q

Some organs function as substrate/energy providers: such as the ___ and ? ensure that consumer organs, especially _____, ____, and ? are always supplied with fuel.

A

liver, white adipose tissue, brain, muscle, red blood cells

364
Q

The _____ ____ absorbs nutrients from the diet; moves them into blood or lymphatic system

A

small intestine

365
Q

The _____ ___ carries nutrients from intestine to liver

A

portal vein

366
Q

The _____ processes fats, carbohydrates, proteins from diet; synthesizes and distributes lipids, ketone bodies, and glucose for other tissues; converts excess nitrogen to urea

A

liver

367
Q

The ______ secretes insulin and glucagon in response to changes in blood glucose concentration

A

pancreas

368
Q

The _____ transports ions to maintain membrane potential; integrates inputs from body and surroundings; sends signals to other organs

A

brain

369
Q

The _____ _____ uses ATP generated aerobically to pump blood

A

cardiac muscle

370
Q

The _____ _____ carries lipids from intestine to liver

A

lymphatic system

371
Q

The _____ ____ synthesizes, stores, and mobilizes triacylglycerols.

A

adipose tissue

372
Q

The ____ _____ uses ATP generated aerobically or anaerobically to do mechanical work

A

skeletal muscle

373
Q

Glucokinase in liver is not inhibited by ?

A

G6P (glucose-6-phosphate)

374
Q

_____ has high capacity for glucose uptake

A

Liver

375
Q

? is at the crossroads of carbohydrate metabolism in the liver

A

Glucose 6-phosphate

376
Q

Glucose export is used to maintain blood [glucose] for use by ____

A

brain

377
Q

In liver, during the ___ state, glucose is used for conversion to ATP, glycogen, fatty acids, cholesterol, NADPPH, and nucleotides; but in the ____ state, glycogen and gluconeogenesis is used to generate glucose

A

fed, fasting

378
Q

Liver acts as a glucose _____

A

sensor

379
Q

Liver acts as a glucose sensor and there are three features contribute to this:
1. Liver has a specific glucose transporter, ____, which has a high ___ for glucose which means it can respond to increasing glucose concentrations
2. Liver also has a specific hexokinase called ______; it too has a high Km for glucose and is not inhibited by _______
3. Liver glycogen phosphorylase a is inhibited by ______

A

GLUT2, Km, glucokinase, glucose-6-P, glucose

380
Q

In liver, during the ___ state, amino acids are converted to proteins, nucleotides, or are exported; but in the ____ state, amino acids are used to make glucose and ATP

A

fed, fasting

381
Q

In liver, during the ___ state, fatty acids are converted to triacylglycerol and phospholipids; but in the ____ state, fatty acids are converted to ATP and ketone body production

A

fed, fasting

382
Q

A major role of the liver is to produce fuel from nutrients taken up from blood to be used by ?

A

other organs

383
Q

The liver takes up _____ and _____ released from muscle and glycerol released from adipose to synthesize glucose via gluconeogenesis

A

alanine, lactate

384
Q

There is no significant ____ in the brain

A

glycogen

385
Q

In brain, during the ___ state, glucose is converted to ATP; but in the ____ state, glucose and ketone bodies are used for ATP

A

fed, fasting

386
Q

During prolonged fasting, ketone bodies can provide as much as ___% of the energy in the brain

A

70

387
Q

In fat cells, during the ___ state, glucose is converted to ATP, NADPH, as well as Acetyl CoA and DHAP, which are converted to Fatty acyl CoA and glycerol 3P, fatty acids are converted to triacylglycerol; but in the ____ state, lipolysis occurs

A

fed, fasting

388
Q

In fat cells, most ATP needs are met through ?

A

β-oxidation

389
Q

What are myocytes?

A

Skeletal muscle cells

390
Q

Since muscle lacks glucose-6-phosphatase, the glucose released from glycogen is metabolized
through ____

A

glycolysis

391
Q

Some lactate in blood is used by heart and oxidized to CO2; has specific isozyme of LDH which favors conversion to _____

A

pyruvate

392
Q

At _____ activity in skeletal muscle cells, glucose is converted to ATP and lactate, glycogen to glucose, and fatty acids to ATP

A

maximum

393
Q

In skeletal muscle cells during the _______ state, fatty acids are converted to ATP

A

resting

394
Q

The heart obtains most of its ATP through ______ ______ using fatty acids

A

oxidative phosphorylation

395
Q

Insulin, glucagon and epinephrine are the major metabolic hormones: ______ and _____ are synthesized and stored in the pancreas while _____ is synthesized in the adrenal gland

A

insulin, glucagon, epinephrine

396
Q

Insulin, glucagon, and epinephrine are termed _____ hormones which means they are secreted into the blood to act on other tissues including the major metabolic organs discussed already

A

endocrine

397
Q

Its important to note that insulin, glucagon, and epinephrine do not necessarily have effects on all tissues, only those that have ?

A

receptors on their cell surface

398
Q

Insulin, glucagon, and epinephrine ensure that adequate fuels are available for the different
tissues in the body or that dietary nutrients are properly stored and metabolized → ?

A

maintain metabolic homeostasis

399
Q

Because insulin, glucagon, and epinephrine can simultaneously act on different tissues, they can
coordinate metabolic processes to more effectively achieve the ?

A

desire effect

400
Q

The primary signal for insulin secretion is ____; fatty acids and some specific amino acids can augment this , so insulin levels rise shortly after eating and signal the fed state

A

glucose,

401
Q

Since sustained high levels of glucose in blood is damaging to cells, the metabolic effects of insulin are related to _____ blood glucose and to properly manage, store, metabolize this nutrient

A

lowering

402
Q

One of the primary, initial effects of insulin is to stimulate glucose ___ into cells

A

uptake

403
Q

Insulin: __ glucose uptake, __ glycolysis, __ acetyl-CoA production, __ glycogen synthesis, __ triacylglycerol synthesis, __ gluconeogenesis, __ lipolysis
Signals fed state: __ blood glucose level, __ fuel storage, __ cell growth and differentiation

A

↑, ↑, ↑, ↑, ↑, ↓, ↓, ↓, ↑, ↑

404
Q

The primary signal for glucagon release from the pancreas is a ____ in blood glucose levels

A

drop

405
Q

A major action of glucagon is to stimulate _____ of glucose from liver by activating glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis

A

release

406
Q

Glucagon also stimulates _____ which provides an additional brain fuel to take some pressure of glucose usage

A

ketogenesis

407
Q

Glucagon also stimulates ? in adipose, which release fatty acids which can be used as an alternative fuel by many tissues, again taking the pressure off of glucose usage

A

TAG breakdown

408
Q

Glucagon: __ cAMP level, __ glycogenolysis, __ glycogen synthesis, __ triacylglycerol hydrolysis and mobilization, __ gluconeogenesis, __ glycolysis, __ ketogenesis
Signals fasting state: __ blood glucose level, __ glucose release from liver, __ ketone bodies as an alternative fuel for brain

A

↑, ↑, ↓, ↑, ↑, ↑, ↓, ↑, ↑, ↑, ↑

409
Q

_______ is released from adrenal glad under stressful situations that require energy

A

Epinephrine

410
Q

The main target organs of ______ are liver, muscle and adipose, which provide fuel for the muscle to produce ATP

A

epinephrine

411
Q

In ______, epinephrine stimulates glycogen breakdown and glucose release; in ____, epinephrine stimulates TAG breakdown and fatty acid release; in ______, epinephrine stimulates glycogen breakdown and glycolysis

A

liver, adipose, muscle

412
Q

Epinephrine: __ cAMP level, __ glycogenolysis, __ glycogen synthesis, __ triacylglycerol mobilization, __ glycolysis
Signals stress: __ blood glucose level, __ glucose release from liver

A

↑, ↑, ↓, ↑, ↑, ↑, ↑

413
Q

The normal blood glucose (mg/100mL)

A

60-90, or ~3mM to ~5mM

414
Q

What is “hypoglycemic”?

A

Anything less than 40mg/100mL, causes lethargy, convulsions, and coma

415
Q

What happens if your blood glucose goes below 10mg/mL or ~0.5mM?

A

If prolonged, permanent brain damage, and death

416
Q

What is “hyperglycemic”?

A

Anything above 140mg/100mL, causes cataract, convulsion, coma, death

417
Q

What is the “Early Phase” in the 3 phases of starvation?

A

1 day

418
Q

In the ____ phase: glucagon levels rise in response to dropping glucose, insulin goes down; glucose uptake decreases to preserve for brain; gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis in liver stimulated; no problem maintaining blood glucose; TAG hydrolysis in adipose is mildly stimulated, glycerol released is substrate for gluconeogenesis while fatty acids energy source for many tissues; metabolically this is an easy challenge to handle

A

early

419
Q

What is the “Mid Phase” in the 3 phases of starvation?

A

2-3 weeks

420
Q

In the ____ phase: liver glycogen now completely depleted; body tries to lower its utilization of glucose; TAG hydrolysis in adipose is further elevated; but amount of glycerol released is inadequate to provide sufficient substrate for gluconeogenesis; as a result, muscle degradation begins which releases amino acids; glucagon stimulates ketone body production; excessive fatty acid oxidation in liver provides lots of acetyl CoA substrate; brain derives about a third of its energy from ketone bodies

A

Mid

421
Q

Muscle wasting actually begins about Day __ of starvation

A

3

422
Q

What is the “Late Phase” in the 3 phases of starvation?

A

> 3 weeks

423
Q

In the ____ phase: TAG hydrolysis in adipose continues to provide most of the body’s energy needs; muscle degradation slows dramatically in attempts to spare whatever muscle remains; this reduces glucose production; ketone body production increases even further; brain derives about two-third of its energy from ketone bodies; this phase lasts depends on the size of the fat depot

A

Late

424
Q

The degradation of non-muscle cellular protein produces many symptoms, people often die from an _____ _____ rather than directly from ______ although reduction in heart function does occur

A

infectious disease, starvation

425
Q

_______ _____ is the collective name for a group of disorders characterized by persistent hyperglycemia

A

Diabetes Mellitus

426
Q

_____ _____ is the leading cause of adult blindness, amputation, renal failure, heart attack and stroke

A

Diabetes Mellitus

427
Q

What is the fasting glucose blood level in Diabetes Mellitus?

A

> 7mM

428
Q

The major effects of ______ include: urinary loss of H2O, glucose, electrolytes, dehydration of cells, cellular malfunction and can cause coma, glycation of plasma proteins (HbA1c), cataracts

A

hyperglycemia

429
Q

What are the 2 tests that can help diagnose Diabetes?

A
  1. Glucose tolerance test
  2. Blood HbA1C test
430
Q

What is the Glucose tolerance test?

A

Drink glucose solution, measure blood [glucose] over a period of several hours

431
Q

What is the Blood HbA1C test?

A

HbA1C test result reflects your average blood sugar level for the past two to three months, and measures the amount of blood sugar attached to your hemoglobin proteins (glycated)

432
Q

The ____ your A1C level is, the poorer your blood sugar control and the higher your risk of diabetes

A

higher

433
Q

What are the 2 main aspects of Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus?

A
  1. Insulin-Dependent Diabetes Mellitus (IDDM)
  2. Juvenile onset
434
Q

What are the 2 main aspects of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus?

A
  1. Non-insulin-Dependent Diabetes Mellitus (NIDDM)
  2. Maturity onset
435
Q

Type __ Diabetes Mellitus accounts for ~10% of diabetics and is characterized by deficiency of insulin

A

1

436
Q

Type __ Diabetes Mellitus is caused by an autoimmune attack of the β-cells of pancreas due to: environmental factors or genetic determinants that allow cells to be recognized as “non-self” by the immune system

A

1

437
Q

Clinical characteristics of Type __ Diabetes Mellitus:
o frequent urination (polyuria)
o excessive thirst (polydipsia)
o excessive hunger (polyphagia)
* usually accompanied by fatigue and weight loss

A

1

438
Q

What is the treatment for type 1 Diabetes Mellitus?

A

Insulin therapy to regulate blood glucose

439
Q

In diabetes, there is hyperglycemia due to:
__ glucose uptake, __ glycogen breakdown, __ gluconeogenesis. There is also a __ ketone bodies

A

↓, ↑, ↑, ↑

440
Q

Your body thinks it is starving because there is no glucose entering cells, so insulin therapy aims to __ glucose uptake

A

441
Q

___ ketone body production in diabetics can be lethal

A

Excess

442
Q

Ketone bodies are moderately strong acids, and excess production can lead to _____. In untreated diabetics, there can be overproduction of ketone bodies, leading to ______ ______

A

acidosis, diabetic ketoacidosis

443
Q

If insulin is absent or not functioning, glucose cannot enter cells. All energy must be derived from ____, leading to the production of _____ ___

A

fats, acetyl CoA

444
Q

In diabetics, _______ is used for glucose production, so there is insufficient amounts to react with acetyl CoA from fatty acid oxidation. Instead, _____ __ builds up because oxaloacetate is not available to replenish the TCA cycle. Result is that acetyl CoA is utilized for ?

A

oxaloacetate, acetyl CoA, ketone body production

445
Q

In diabetics, KB _____ > KB ______

A

Synthesis, Oxidation

446
Q

Low fat diet still contains lots of ________: dietary _______ are broken down into glucose, _____ blood glucose levels. Insulin is secreted from pancreas and stimulates glucose _____. Promotes fat storage

A

carbohydrates, carbohydrates, raising, uptake

447
Q

In the keto/ketogenic diet, most calories come from ___ and very little _______

A

fats, carbohydrates

448
Q

Goal in the keto/ketogenic diet is to reduce body weight and get rid of excess triacylglycerol from adipose tissue by stimulating _____ and ? by restricting carbohydrate intake so ____ not secreted. Glucagon/epinephrine is secreted which activates lipolysis so the body’s primary fuel source shifts from _____ to ____

A

lipolysis, fatty acid oxidation, insulin, glucose, fat

449
Q

With the keto diet, you want to stimulate _____, but not ______

A

ketosis, ketoacidosis

450
Q

What is ketosis?

A

Production of ketone bodies

451
Q

What is ketoacidosis?

A

Very high levels of ketone bodies in the blood, ↓ blood pH leads to coma, death, which can happen if not enough caloric intake is too low

452
Q

In the keto diet there are beneficial metabolic changes (short-term) which does lead to weight loss, __ hunger, __ energy expenditure, __ fat loss vs protein. But there are some pitfalls: hunger, fatigue, low mood, irritability, constipation, kidney stones, nutrient deficiencies, headaches, brain “fog,” ↑ uric acid in the circulation can cause gout

A

↓, ↑, ↑